Slaughter of red meat species Flashcards

1
Q

How are zoonotic diseases spread?

A
  • Direct contact
  • Within the environment
  • From animal products
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2
Q

Throughout the process of slaughter where is animal welfare important?

A
  • At abattoir: Lairage and Slaughter
  • On transport
  • On farm / market
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3
Q

What does food chain information include?

A
  • Disease status
  • Knowledge of residues
  • Movement restrictions (TB or other disease) to the holding area
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4
Q

What is the food business operator responsible for?

A

Obtaining and evaluating the information part of the HACCP and other Risk Assessments

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5
Q

What does HACCP stand for?

A

Hazard analysis and critical control point

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6
Q

Who decides if animals are accepted for slaughter?

A

Food business operator

E.g. withdrawal – animals cannot be in the lairage for more than 48 hours due to risk of pathogen infection

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7
Q

What are the 3 main points of the Veterinary Medicines Regulations 2013?

A
  • Veterinarian must keep records of their use.
  • Vet can give other products under a ‘prescribing cascade’ when no medicines available
  • The vet must specify an appropriate withdrawal period
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8
Q

Describe the 3 levels of the veterinary cascade

A

Level 1 - use of a UK-authorised veterinary medicine indicated for the same species but for another condition or indicated for use in another species
Level 2 - use of a UK-authorised human medicine or veterinary medicine authorised in the EU but not the UK.
Level 3 - specially prepared medicine made by a veterinary surgeon, pharmacist or suitably authorised manufacturer

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9
Q

What is the maximum residue limit?

A

The maximum concentration of residue accepted by the European Union (EU) in a food product

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10
Q

How are MRL calculated?

A
  • A No Observed (Adverse) Effect Level
  • Divided by an ‘uncertainty’ or ‘safety factor’
  • Determine the Acceptable Daily Intake (ADI)
  • MRL set for each edible tissue to ensure the ADI is not exceeded
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11
Q

What are some ‘uncertainty’ or ‘safety factors’?

A
  • Amount eaten per day
  • Metabolism
  • Tissue distribution.
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12
Q

What is needed/assessed upon delivery of animals to the slaughterhouse?

A
  • Documentation
  • Adequacy of transport - ventilation, etc
  • Was the animal fit for transport?
  • Hazards: are the animals a potential source of infection?
  • What condition are the animals in?
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13
Q

When delivered to the slaughterhouse, what FCI is needed for cattle?

A
  • TB status ?
  • Any actions necessary?
  • Does it require BSE testing?
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14
Q

What are some considerations of the lairage

A
  • Protection against adverse weather conditions
  • Water at all times and feed after 12 hrs
  • Fit for transport? Suitability to be moved?
  • Hazards e.g. zoonotic disease
  • Cleanliness
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15
Q

How should the race be designed?

A

Design is important e.g. cattle need to see a long distance ahead of them, they don’t like corners

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16
Q

Shackling should be carried out before and after which processes?

A

After stunning and before sticking

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17
Q

Describe the steps that occur after sticking

A
  • Bleeding
  • Removal of the hide and feet: removed outwards to prevent bacteria from the hide surface contaminating the carcass
  • Evisceration
  • Splitting of the carcass (don’t cut through the spinal cord)
18
Q

What is the specialised risk material of cattle when slaughtered at any age?

A
  • Tonsils
  • The last four metres of small intestine
  • The caecum
  • Mesentery
19
Q

What is the specialised risk material of cattle when slaughtered over 12 months old?

A

Skull excluding the mandible and including the brain and eyes, and spinal cord

20
Q

When is material classed as specialised risk material in sheep?

A

Over 12 months or after permanent incisor eruption

21
Q

What is the specialised risk material in sheep?

A

Skull, including the brain and eyes, tonsils, spinal cord

• Note: Skull does not include horns.

22
Q

Which 2 steps follow bleeding in pig slaughter?

A

Bleeding -> Scaling and dehairing -> Evisceration and PM inspection

23
Q

Describe the purpose of the scald tank

A
  • Opens hair follicles so they are easier to remove
  • Risk of bacterial infection during this process
  • Blades will scrape the hair off and the carcass is flamed to remove any that remains
24
Q

Which animals undergo Trichinella testing at the slaughterhouse?

A
  • Breeding domestic swine (sows and boars)
  • Wild boar (any age, whether wild or farmed)
  • Solipeds (any age)
  • All pigs that have not been reared in premises officially considered to apply controlled housing conditions
25
Q

Describe the features of controlled housing to prevent Trichinella spread

A
  • Building construction and maintenance
  • Pest-control programme & records
  • Feed provider, Storage of feed
  • Management of dead animals
  • Animal identification
  • No access to outdoor facilities
26
Q

What is the alternative to Trichinella testing?

A

Freezing treatments - only applicable to domestic pigs

27
Q

Which samples need to be submitted for TSE testing?

A
Brain stem (Cattle and sheep)
and Cerebellum (sheep)
28
Q

What are the FBO responsibilities regarding BSE testing?

A
  • Avoidance of cross contamination on the line or at sampling
  • Storage, Separation, Disposal
29
Q

What is inspected by the FSA during meat inspection?

A
  • Pathology
  • Contamination
  • Adequate SRM removal
30
Q

What does a health mark show?

A

An animal has undergone ante and post-mortem inspection & fit for human consumption

31
Q

When is a health mark applied?

A

“Health marks shall be applied by, or under the responsibility of, the official veterinarian when official controls have not identified any deficiencies that would make the meat unfit for human consumption.”

32
Q

What are the features of a health mark?

A
  • Country
  • Individual number
  • Official controls in accordance with European Regulation
33
Q

What is vital in the cutting room?

A

Adequate PPE for workers – e.g. hairnets, gloves, aprons

Hygiene practices to prevent contamination

34
Q

What are the internal temperature requirements for:

  • Fresh red meat
  • Fresh offals
  • Frozen meat
A
  • Fresh red meat + 7°C
  • Fresh offals +3°C
  • Frozen meat -12°C
35
Q

Who regulates/enforces (abattoirs)?

A
  • Food standards agency
  • Food standards Scotland
  • Agriculture and rural development (Ireland)
36
Q

Who enforces on site?

A
  • Meat hygiene inspectors

- Veterinarian

37
Q

Who is responsible for the premises?

A

Food Business Operator (FBO) means the natural or legal persons responsible for ensuring that the requirements of food law are met within the food business under their control

38
Q

What are the actions of the FAS on site?

A
- Auditing of FBO responsibilities inc:
• Good hygiene practices
• HACCP-based procedures, i.e. the FBOs food safety management system. 
- Welfare - if not FBO related: record & report
- Ante-mortem inspection
- Meat inspection
- Residue sampling
- Enforcement when necessary
39
Q

Who regulates/enforces off site?

A
  • APHA (Animal and Plant health authority)
  • LA (Local authority)
  • Trading standards (TS) department
  • Producers supplying small quantities of meat from poultry and lagomorphs slaughtered on farm directly to the final consumer
40
Q

What are the two categories of pain?

A
  • Acute: lasts for second to days and follows nociceptive stimulation or minor trauma and goes following healing.
  • Chronic: lasts for weeks or even years and is seen in chronic disease states or after major trauma