Skywest CRJ Oral Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
’What are the dimensions’
A
Nose to tail, 87'10". Wing span, 69'8". Height, 20'8"
2
Q
1
A
‘What is the track distance between the main wheels’
3
Q
2
A
‘What is the minimum width required for a 180° turn’
4
Q
3
A
‘What is the purpose of the winglets’
5
Q
4
A
‘What are the APU and radar hazard areas’
6
Q
5
A
‘How are the emergency lights powered’
7
Q
6
A
‘When does the OXY LO PRESS caution come on’
8
Q
7
A
‘How many PBEs are onboard’
9
Q
8
A
‘When will WINDSHEAR messages appear’
10
Q
9
A
‘How are TCAS RAs presented’
11
Q
10
A
‘How long is the emergency escape rope’
12
Q
11
A
‘Which overhead lights are illuminated with just the battery master on’
13
Q
12
A
‘How can the passenger door be verified closed in addition to the EICAS indication’
14
Q
13
A
‘What is the maximum load on the passenger door’
15
Q
14
A
‘How many emergency exits are there in the cabin’
16
Q
15
A
‘How many oxygen systems does the CRJ have’
17
Q
16
A
‘Where is the flight compartment PBE located’
18
Q
17
A
‘What is the source of oxygen for the passengers’
19
Q
18
A
‘Do the oxygen generators activate when the oxygen masks drop’
20
Q
19
A
‘When will the emergency lights illuminate automatically’
21
Q
20
A
‘How are the emergency lights charged’
22
Q
21
A
‘How long will emergency lights last once activated’
23
Q
22
A
‘The AUTO function of the passenger signs will turn the seat beat sign on when’
24
Q
23
A
‘Why is there a minimum ops weight.. Minimum flight weight’
25
24
'How do you know if the masks have dropped'
26
25
'Is Vb / Mb a target or limitation'
27
26
'What happens if the EICAS Control Panel (ECP) fails'
28
27
'What happens if ED1 fails'
29
28
'When will T/O Config warnings occur'
30
29
'When are non-critical EICAS messages inhibited'
31
30
'How are EICAS caution messages boxed.. Status'
32
31
'How are terrain warnings displayed'
33
32
'What is the only pressure door not displayed on the Doors synoptic page'
34
33
'The APU control system gives priority to what'
35
34
'What are VGDs'
36
35
'What supplies pressurized fuel to the APU'
37
36
'What will cause the APU to shutdown in flight.. Ground'
38
37
'The APU LCV interlock is predicated on what.. What does it do'
39
38
'How will the 10th stage bleed shutoff valves fail …losed).. 14th.. APU LCV.. 10th and 14th isolation'
40
39
'What happens when the APU PWR/FUEL switchlight is pressed in'
41
40
'What are the APU intake door indications'
42
41
'APU pneumatic output is controlled by modulating what valve'
43
42
'What is the start sequence of the APU'
44
43
'What ways can the APU be manually shutdown'
45
44
'What speed is the APU starter de-energized'
46
45
'During an engine start on a single-engine taxi, why do we need N2 < 70%'
47
46
'Why start the second engine during a single-engine taxi with the APU'
48
47
'What is the rated thrust of the CF34-3B1 engine.. With APR'
49
48
'Describe the design of the CF34 engine'
50
49
'What PSI is required for a crossbleed start'
51
50
'How many igniters does the engine have.. What are their power sources'
52
51
'How many valves open when the ENG START switchlight is pressed in'
53
52
'Pressing the ENG STOP switchlight does what'
54
53
'What items are driven by the N2 accessory drive'
55
54
'What does the L or R ENG START message indicate'
56
55
'How many horsepower is the Air Turbine Starter (ATS)'
57
56
'When does the engine starter cut out'
58
57
'How are the ignition systems powered'
59
58
'At low power settings, what type of speed control is in effect.. High power settings'
60
59
'What happens to the N2 indicator when wing anti-ice is on'
61
60
'A failure of the high pressure engine driven fuel pump will result in what'
62
61
'What is 7th stage bleed air used for.. 10th.. 14th'
63
62
'What is APR, When is it armed When is it activated, What does it do'
64
63
"What are the N1 bugs' colors and shape"
65
64
'How many fuel nozzles are there for each engine'
66
65
'How does N2 vibration indications get displayed'
67
66
'What indication will be given if the APR fails'
68
67
'What are the "bare essentials" for an engine start'
69
68
'What cools the engine oil'
70
69
'During climbout, your lunch box falls and turns of…switches. What can you expect, and what do you do'
71
70
'If N2 speed control is used for takeoff, is APR thrust available'
72
71
'If ignition is left armed during a subsequent engi… failure, will the ignition automatically come on'
73
72
'What is necessary for thrust reverse to operate'
74
73
'When do we use CONT IGNITION'
75
74
'During start on a cold day, what N1 is necessary before fuel is introduced'
76
75
'What does an amber REV on the N1 gauge mean, Green'
77
76
'What does the EMER STOW switchlight do, What will EICAS display'
78
77
'What do you check during the start sequence'
79
78
'What are some of the systems that are armed/checked when N1 > 79%'
80
79
'How do you do the FFOD fuel feed check valve test and Why are we checking this'
81
80
"What do you do if you don't get the R/L FUEL LO PRESS right away"
82
81
'Would you use the APU to try an engine restart in flight'
83
82
'What does NO STRTR CUTOUT mean'
84
83
'Without checking the N2 gauges, how could you tell if they were NOT within 2% of each other'
85
84
'When the thrust levers are placed in shutoff, specifically how does the engine stop getting fuel'
86
85
'Which valves fail open and Closed and Why'
87
86
'What are the ratings of the Lead Acid batteries'
88
87
'Why is the APU battery bigger'
89
88
'What busses power the battery chargers'
90
89
'What does the green AC AVAIL light indicate'
91
90
'What does the battery master do'
92
91
'What happens to the DC system when AC power is established'
93
92
'Which busses are powered with external AC connected and the AC SERV Config. switch on'
94
93
'What does the DC SERV switch do'
95
94
'What is the generator/bus priority'
96
95
'What causes the IDG to automatically disconnect'
97
96
'What causes an IDG FAULT'
98
97
'If AC BUS 1 loses power, how many TRUs lose power'
99
98
'When do the AC UTIL busses shed'
100
99
'Which bus ties are automatic and Manual'
101
100
'When will the APU and MAIN BATT DIR busses power the DC ESS bus through the DC BATT bus'
102
101
'When does the AC ESS XFER ALTN light illuminate'
103
102
'What does the AUTO XFER FAIL light indicate What is the purpose of the switchlight'
104
103
'How do you isolate AC BUS 1'
105
104
'When does the DC EMER bus appear on the DC synoptic page'
106
105
'What does the DC EMER bus power'
107
106
'How is the DC EMER bus powered'
108
107
'How is AC converted to DC'
109
108
'How many TRUs are on the airplane Rating Location'
110
109
'Why are they in the nose compartment'
111
110
'A TRU FAIL message will appear when'
112
111
'What does the ADG power'
113
112
'After ADG deployment, how is normal power returned to the AC ESS bus'
114
113
'When will the ADG automatically deploy'
115
114
'How many kVA is the ADG'
116
115
'If the SERV TRU is powering DC BUS 1 and 2, what precautions must be taken'
117
116
'In looking at the electric DC synoptic page, if th…1 fails, what should you do (besides look at QRH)'
118
117
'If the ESS TRU 2 fails, what should you do'
119
118
'How many circuit breaker panels are there Locations'
120
119
'What is a Permanent Magnet Generator (PMG) and what does it do'
121
120
'What situation exists where both batteries are connected to each other'
122
121
'What RPMs will the constant speed drives provide to the generator'
123
122
'With the ADG deployed and not operating, what is powering the DC ESS bus'
124
123
'With just the battery master on, will the ALTN light illuminate'
125
124
'When will we get a white IDG DISC light'
126
125
'Can an IDG be reconnected in flight On the ground'
127
126
'If an IDG has been disconnected and deferred, why do we NOT get the light at the gate'
128
127
'What is the difference between AUTO XFER FAIL and OFF'
129
128
'Where is the AC external receptacle located'
130
129
'You show up to the airplane and the battery is dea…an you immediately disconnect the DC external Why'
131
130
'What airspeed does the ADG produce maximum power Lose power'
132
131
'What does the ADG handle control'
133
132
'What happens when you lose AC BUS 1'
134
133
'Does DC external charge the batteries'
135
134
'When does generator overload occur When is it taken offline'
136
135
'If you select AUTO XFER OFF on the left side and G…hat TRUs do you lose and which busses do you lose'
137
136
'so all TRUs are still being powered. This is sort … would prevent GEN 2 / APU from powering AC BUS 1'
138
137
'Will the PA system work with only DC power'
139
138
"If during an electrical smoke/fire you've exhauste…ate most busses yet keep a decent level of safety"
140
139
'How is the DC ESS and DC BATT powered in flight Ground'
141
140
'Where, physically on the airplane, are AC BUS 1 and 2, DC BUS 1 and 2 and AC ESS bus located'
142
141
'If the AC ESS bus shorts, what have you lost and what can you do about it'
143
142
'In the CRJ700-900 you can also pull CB1S2 to disco…ators to power their respective AC busses. CRJ200'
144
143
'In automatic mode, what rate does the cabin climb/descend'
145
144
'Which display and ARINC cooling fans operate on the ground In flight'
146
145
'How do we switch pressure controllers'
147
146
'The pressure controller pre-pressurizes the cabin to what value'
148
147
'When do you use the manual pressure controller'
149
148
'When is pressurization information displayed on PRI, STAT and ECS pages'
150
149
'In flight, what supplies cooling air to the pack heat exchangers .. On the ground'
151
150
'What happens if a pack experiences an over-pressure condition.. Over-temp'
152
151
'How do you tell if the pack valve (PRSOV) is open or closed'
153
152
'When may ram air be used for ventilation'
154
153
'What happens when the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed in'
155
154
'On the ground, what pneumatic sources are available to operate the ECS system'
156
155
'What causes a pack to automatically shutdown'
157
156
'How many outflow valves are provided for pressurization outflow.. How are they controlled'
158
157
'In the manual pressurization mode, what does the m…-position of the manual pressurization control do'
159
158
'If emergency depressurization switch is pushed at FL350, what happens'
160
159
'What side does the ram air come in on'
161
160
'When does pre-pressurization occur'
162
161
'What are the temperature knobs on the air-conditioning panel designed to do.. How do they work'
163
162
'When do you use manual temperature control'
164
163
'What does the ram air scoop do'
165
164
'What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve'
166
165
'To test the 14th stage isolation valve, what must be on'
167
166
'What does the ICE caution message indicate'
168
167
'An ANTI-ICE DUCT warning message indicates what problem'
169
168
'What happens to the anti-ice system during thrust reverse deployment'
170
169
'When the windshield heat is selected to HI, what temperature setting are the side windows'
171
170
'What happens when the wing anti-ice switch is in STBY'
172
171
'What does the ANTI ICE SENSOR message indicate'
173
172
'What does the BLEED MISCONFIG message indicate'
174
173
'What indications should you receive when wing anti-ice is in NORM'
175
174
'Will the TAT sensor provide accurate ambient temperatures on the ground'
176
175
'At what temperatures can the cowl anti-ice be turned off'
177
176
'How many ice detector probes are on the CRJ'
178
177
'What is the purpose of the probe heat switches'
179
178
'Down to AC ESS power, which windshields/windows are powered'
180
179
'Will the 14th stage isolation valve open if selected with the anti-ice system off.. Why'
181
180
"What's the difference between STBY and NORM for wing anti-ice"
182
181
'What is cold soaked'
183
182
'When do we do a pre-takeoff check'
184
183
'When do we do a pre-takeoff contamination check'
185
184
'What does L/R COWL A/ICE caution mean'
186
185
'When do we use ice protection'
187
186
'How many hydraulic pumps are on the airplane.. What are their power sources'
188
187
'What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the CRJ.. Color'
189
188
'Will the "B" pumps come on automatically when the …essure is below 1800 PSI (See following question)'
190
189
'With the hydraulic pumps in AUTO, when do the ACMPs come on'
191
190
'What ACMP is directly powered by the ADG'
192
191
'What is the main purpose of the hydraulic accumulators'
193
192
'How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized'
194
193
'Where are the service points for the hydraulic systems'
195
194
'What electric hydraulic pump normally operates continuously'
196
195
'How are systems 1 and 2 cooled.. System 3'
197
196
'Explain IDG logic and its relationship to hydraulic pumps'
198
197
'You lose the right engine. Which hydraulic pumps are unavailable'
199
198
'What hydraulic systems are used to extend and retract the landing gear'
200
199
'When are the gear and flap indications displayed.. Not displayed'
201
200
'During gear retraction, how are the main wheels rotation stopped'
202
201
'The manual gear extension handle has how many detents'
203
202
'What occurs when the manual gear extension handle is pulled'
204
203
'With a complete hydraulic failure, what emergency braking is available'
205
204
'What are the BTMS colors.. What does the BTMS reset switch do'
206
205
'When is the anti-skid system operative.. Disabled'
207
206
'When do the wheel fuse plugs blow out'
208
207
'Why is a single-engine taxi always on the right engine'
209
208
'If the landing gear solenoid prevents retraction, …l if the weight on/off wheels system is operating'
210
209
'Are there associated problems with extending the gear at 250 KIAS'
211
210
'Why do we taxi on the right engine during single-engine taxi'
212
211
'Why do we taxi on the right engine when taxiing si….. Is it ever acceptable to taxi on the left only'
213
212
'What message appears when one channel of the Flaps Electronic Control Unit (FECU) fails'
214
213
'What happens if one channel of the Horizontal Stab Trim Control Unit (HSTCU) fails'
215
214
'What is the control priority of the HSTCU'
216
215
'How many positions does the flight spoiler lever have'
217
216
'What controls all spoilers'
218
217
'How is a spoiler failure or spoiler position indicator failure displayed'
219
218
'How is the stick pusher momentarily disconnected.. Permanently'
220
219
'How is a stick shaker deactivated'
221
220
'For the stall pusher to be armed, what switches must be on'
222
221
'What is the duty cycle of the stall stick shaker motor'
223
222
'What is the purpose of the aileron bungee breakout switch'
224
223
'What happens when the ROLL DISC handle is pulled'
225
224
'When does the amber ROLL SELECT switchlight illuminate'
226
225
'What moves the flaps'
227
226
"Will both pilots' rudder pedals still operate if t…em anti-jam (spring tension breakout) is required"
228
227
'How is the stabilizer trimmed'
229
228
'At what mach speed is mach trim used'
230
229
'What is PCU runaway.. How is it fixed'
231
230
'How is an aileron jam different than a PCU runaway'
232
231
'Why do some airplanes have 25° of rudder travel, and some have 33°'
233
232
'What are BUTE doors'
234
233
'When are the GLDs deployed.. When are they stowed'
235
234
'How are the collector tanks kept full'
236
235
'How is fuel balanced'
237
236
'How is fuel transferred from the collector tanks to the engines'
238
237
'Where are the main ejectors physically located'
239
238
'What is the purpose of the electric boost pumps'
240
239
'How many gallons do the fuel tanks hold'
241
240
'How is automatic fuel balancing achieved'
242
241
'When is fuel transferred automatically from the center tank to the main'
243
242
'When are the boost pumps energized'
244
243
'How are the boost pumps powered'
245
244
'Provided the associated boost pump is armed, what will the fuel crossfeed line allow'
246
245
'During refueling is XFLOW inhibited'
247
246
'When does the AUTO XFLOW INHIBIT status message appear'
248
247
'What prevents over pressure during pressure refueling if the normal vent system is blocked'
249
248
'If the main fuel gravity caps are removed with the main tanks full, what will happen'
250
249
'On the ground, how may the fuel level be manually checked'
251
250
'How may fuel be cutoff to the engines..APU'
252
251
'What does the fail light on the gravity XFLOW switchlight indicate'
253
252
'Where are the fuel temps taken (bulk, engine, etc.)'
254
253
'How many ejector pumps do we have.. What types'
255
254
'When would you see an amber fuel flow line on the fuel synoptic page.. Red'
256
255
'What does the INOP indication on the fuel boost pump mean'
257
256
'What scenario would have both fuel pumps armed, but only one operating'
258
257
'If the left main ejector fails and the left boost …armed, will the right boost pump come on if armed'
259
258
'If both the left and right main ejector fails, and…has been deselected, what will the boost pumps do'
260
259
'If the left transfer ejector fails open, and both wing tanks are 100% full, what happens'
261
260
'Fire/heat detection is provided where.. Extinguishing'
262
261
'When happens when the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed in'
263
262
'How is the firebell silenced'
264
263
'How is fire detection provided for the APU, engine and jetpipe'
265
264
'How is fire detection provided for the MLG bay'
266
265
'If one of the two fire detection loops has a short, what happens'
267
266
'An APU fire on the ground results in what'
268
267
'How is the lavatory bottled discharged'
269
268
'When a fire is detected in the cargo department, what happens'
270
269
'The CARGO FIREX bottles provide a quick discharge of Halon followed by what'
271
270
'How many smoke detectors are located in the cargo compartment.. How do they interact'
272
271
'During normal loop operations, what indications wi…a normal condition and loop B is detecting a fire'
273
272
'Loop A is shorted, and loop B is detecting fire'
274
273
'How would you isolate a L ENG open fire loop'
275
274
'Describe the cargo fire protection system'
276
275
'Describe the lavatory fire protection system'
277
276
'Why does APU FIRE FAIL matter when performing a fire warning test prior to APU start'
278
277
'Which busses power the fire detection.. Protection'
279
278
'What radios can be tuned with the backup tuning unit (BTU)'
280
279
'When EMERG is selected on the Audio Control Panel (ACP), what happens.. When would you use it'
281
280
'If an RTU fails, how can its respective COM be tuned'
282
281
'What are the inputs to the CVR'
283
282
'How many static discharge wicks are on the airplane'
284
283
'What happens when the RTU 1 INHIB switchlight is pressed in'
285
284
'During a PA, who has priority (flightcrew or flight attendant)'
286
285
'How is radio interference reduced'
287
286
'If on DC power only, how do you tune radios'
288
287
'How does ACARS communicate'
289
288
'What does the Voice Data guarded switch next to the landing gear lever do'
290
289
'Above 30,000 feet cabin altitude, what type of the flow goes to the crew O2 masks'
291
290
'Passenger oxygen generators provide what duration of oxygen'
292
291
'What happens if CPAM fails'
293
292
'What does the yellow cross on the oxygen blinker indicate'
294
293
'What does the white flag in view on the oxygen mask container indicate'
295
294
'How much crew O2 pressure is required for dispatch.. Why do we need 1650 for Canada'
296
295
'How long after AC power is lost will the AHRS provide information'
297
296
'When does the radar altimeter readout appear'
298
297
'What does the airspeed trend vector indicate'
299
298
'Where do the PFDs and MFDs normally receive air data and AHRS information'
300
299
'Which pitot/static source do the standby instruments use'
301
300
'If AHRS #1 failed, how would the pilot regain attitude information on his PFD'
302
301
'How long after a complete power failure will the standby attitude indicator provide information'
303
302
'Windshear aural will take priority over all aural alerts except'
304
303
'A navaid is disabled on the FMS because it is NOTA…er-down and power-up will the navaid be available'
305
304
'What do the mach transducers do'
306
305
'When will cyan preview needles appear on the PFD'
307
306
'When is the missed approach procedure displayed on the MFD'
308
307
'How does ACARS communicate.. Can we override it'
309
308
'What is TAT used for'
310
309
'Which flight controls are the autopilot servos connected to'
311
310
'How many yaw dampers are required for the autopilot to function'
312
311
"What is the primary means of determining the flight director's mode of operation"
313
312
'What is the green line on the airspeed tape.. When is it accurate'
314
313
'At what altitude is ½ bank automatically selected.. De-selected'
315
314
'At what altitude does Mach replace IAS'
316
315
'At what airspeed does Mach appear and disappear on the PFD'
317
316
'If one FCC fails, what happens to the autopilot'
318
317
'When is the flight director sync button disabled.. What does it do'
319
318
'What happens when the ALT button is pressed on the FCP'
320
319
'What do the witness lights indicate'
321
320
'What happens when a new flight director mode becomes active on the FMA'
322
321
'How many flight control computers are there'
323
322
'Will the autopilot be operational during a go-around when the TOGA switches are activated'
324
323
'The go-around mode provides what pitch.. Single-engine'
325
324
'How can the autopilot be manually disengaged'
326
325
'What are the three modes of the FCC SPEED button'
327
326
'In the FMA, what line is considered lateral mode.. Vertical mode.. Which side is active.. Armed'
328
327
'When do the flight control computers act independently'
329
328
'What do we need to make the autopilot work'
330
329
'Can we go with 600/600/500.. 600/600/600'
331
330
'Can we go with 4000/1000/500'
332
331
'RVR at Denver is 600, 600, 600, 500. Can you depart'
333
332
'If 1200/600/600 do we need a takeoff alternate'
334
333
'How do you reduce Cat II from 1600 to 1200 RVR'
335
334
'Can we still shoot a Cat II with 1200/0/0'
336
335
'How do you determine legal autopilot altitude minimums'
337
336
'What is necessary for a visual approach'
338
337
'What is the only thing a Captain can write in the "Corrective Action" block in the maintenance log'
339
338
'What items are required on the load manifest.. Release'
340
339
'What constitutes an aborted takeoff.. When is an IOR required.. When must it be submitted'
341
340
'When is a release required'
342
341
'How is an airplane proven airworthy'
343
342
'How soon after departing an airport in uncontrolled airspace must you enter controlled airspace'
344
343
'Based on temperature, how far you do you clear a thunderstorm'
345
344
'How do you detect windshear'
346
345
'What are the separation requirements for takeoff and landing behind a heavy'
347
346
'What is the maximum distance for a takeoff alternate in the CRJ'
348
347
'If you depart VFR, when must you obtain an IFR clearance'
349
348
'What is marginal weather for the destination airport.. Alternate'
350
349
'What is exemption 3585'
351
350
'Can anything be called ballast'
352
351
'What does the shaded area on the weight and balance form mean.. Why 4000lbs'
353
352
'What are the CG limits.. What are the lines that extend past the shaded areas'
354
353
'Can we depart after only using Type I'
355
354
'What colors are deice fluids'
356
355
"Why don't you see type II in the United States"
357
356
'After you deice with type IV and are performing a pre-takeoff check, what are you looking for'
358
357
'After you deice with type IV you see some ice accumulation. Can you simply get more type IV'
359
358
'After deicing, we takeoff with fluid adhering to t…ice fluid sticking to the wing but not loose snow'
360
359
'Is the fluid hot or cold'
361
360
'Can type IV be heated'
362
361
'Why is each area of the holdover time have a range instead of just a time'
363
362
'What are the variables that affect the holdover times'
364
363
'What is the mixture of the fluids and can they be diluted'
365
364
'What are the four elements that we must be given from the deicer'
366
365
'Do we have to hear all four elements'
367
366
'What is the representative surface and where is it normally'
368
367
'Can the deicer start somewhere other than the left wing'
369
368
'How does the weather service know if snow is light, moderate or heavy'
370
369
'Can we depart after a holdover time'
371
370
'What defines a contaminated runway'
372
371
'What determines the level of contamination'
373
372
'What is TAT, and why is it generally warmer than SAT'
374
373
"Why don't we worry about ice when SAT is below -40°C"
375
374
'Why do we turn cowls on at 10°C instead of at freezing level'
376
375
'Can we taxi on a single-engine if ramps are not co…ed and temperature is 5°C and visibility is 1/4sm'
377
376
'When do you need an alternate'
378
377
'When do you need a second alternate.. What is marginal weather'
379
378
'What is the amount of fuel on board where you must declare an emergency'
380
379
'You have flown the CRJ as SIC for 500 hours and yo…ed to fly with an FO fresh off IOE. Is this legal'
381
380
'You are a high mins Captain, and are scheduled to …ather is currently 002OVC and 1sm. Can you depart'
382
381
'What are the limitations for a high mins FO'
383
382
'What is the maximum crosswind for a regular FO'
384
383
'Can we do circling approaches in the CRJ'
385
384
'You are doing a circling approach into IDA. You ar…. Same scenario in LAX. Can you accept the visual'
386
385
'How do we get MTOW (max takeoff weight).. Where is…. What is MINTO (minimum takeoff fuel) determined'
387
386
"You're 150lbs overweight, what do you do"
388
387
'When is a new release required'
389
388
'What is the difference between obstacle and climb on takeoff data'
390
389
'When is reduced thrust prohibited'
391
390
'Why do we set trim for takeoff'
392
391
'If the reduced thrust hash mark (slash) is not dep… Aerodata block is reduced thrust still available'
