Skywest CRJ Oral Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

’What are the dimensions’

A

Nose to tail, 87'10". Wing span, 69'8". Height, 20'8"

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2
Q

1

A

‘What is the track distance between the main wheels’

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3
Q

2

A

‘What is the minimum width required for a 180° turn’

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4
Q

3

A

‘What is the purpose of the winglets’

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5
Q

4

A

‘What are the APU and radar hazard areas’

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6
Q

5

A

‘How are the emergency lights powered’

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7
Q

6

A

‘When does the OXY LO PRESS caution come on’

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8
Q

7

A

‘How many PBEs are onboard’

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9
Q

8

A

‘When will WINDSHEAR messages appear’

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10
Q

9

A

‘How are TCAS RAs presented’

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11
Q

10

A

‘How long is the emergency escape rope’

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12
Q

11

A

‘Which overhead lights are illuminated with just the battery master on’

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13
Q

12

A

‘How can the passenger door be verified closed in addition to the EICAS indication’

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14
Q

13

A

‘What is the maximum load on the passenger door’

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15
Q

14

A

‘How many emergency exits are there in the cabin’

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16
Q

15

A

‘How many oxygen systems does the CRJ have’

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17
Q

16

A

‘Where is the flight compartment PBE located’

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18
Q

17

A

‘What is the source of oxygen for the passengers’

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19
Q

18

A

‘Do the oxygen generators activate when the oxygen masks drop’

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20
Q

19

A

‘When will the emergency lights illuminate automatically’

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21
Q

20

A

‘How are the emergency lights charged’

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22
Q

21

A

‘How long will emergency lights last once activated’

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23
Q

22

A

‘The AUTO function of the passenger signs will turn the seat beat sign on when’

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24
Q

23

A

‘Why is there a minimum ops weight.. Minimum flight weight’

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25
Q

24

A

‘How do you know if the masks have dropped’

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26
Q

25

A

‘Is Vb / Mb a target or limitation’

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27
Q

26

A

‘What happens if the EICAS Control Panel (ECP) fails’

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28
Q

27

A

‘What happens if ED1 fails’

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29
Q

28

A

‘When will T/O Config warnings occur’

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30
Q

29

A

‘When are non-critical EICAS messages inhibited’

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31
Q

30

A

‘How are EICAS caution messages boxed.. Status’

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32
Q

31

A

‘How are terrain warnings displayed’

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33
Q

32

A

‘What is the only pressure door not displayed on the Doors synoptic page’

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34
Q

33

A

‘The APU control system gives priority to what’

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35
Q

34

A

‘What are VGDs’

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36
Q

35

A

‘What supplies pressurized fuel to the APU’

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37
Q

36

A

‘What will cause the APU to shutdown in flight.. Ground’

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38
Q

37

A

‘The APU LCV interlock is predicated on what.. What does it do’

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39
Q

38

A

‘How will the 10th stage bleed shutoff valves fail …losed).. 14th.. APU LCV.. 10th and 14th isolation’

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40
Q

39

A

‘What happens when the APU PWR/FUEL switchlight is pressed in’

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41
Q

40

A

‘What are the APU intake door indications’

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42
Q

41

A

‘APU pneumatic output is controlled by modulating what valve’

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43
Q

42

A

‘What is the start sequence of the APU’

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44
Q

43

A

‘What ways can the APU be manually shutdown’

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45
Q

44

A

‘What speed is the APU starter de-energized’

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46
Q

45

A

‘During an engine start on a single-engine taxi, why do we need N2 < 70%’

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47
Q

46

A

‘Why start the second engine during a single-engine taxi with the APU’

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48
Q

47

A

‘What is the rated thrust of the CF34-3B1 engine.. With APR’

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49
Q

48

A

‘Describe the design of the CF34 engine’

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50
Q

49

A

‘What PSI is required for a crossbleed start’

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51
Q

50

A

‘How many igniters does the engine have.. What are their power sources’

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52
Q

51

A

‘How many valves open when the ENG START switchlight is pressed in’

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53
Q

52

A

‘Pressing the ENG STOP switchlight does what’

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54
Q

53

A

‘What items are driven by the N2 accessory drive’

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55
Q

54

A

‘What does the L or R ENG START message indicate’

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56
Q

55

A

‘How many horsepower is the Air Turbine Starter (ATS)’

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57
Q

56

A

‘When does the engine starter cut out’

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58
Q

57

A

‘How are the ignition systems powered’

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59
Q

58

A

‘At low power settings, what type of speed control is in effect.. High power settings’

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60
Q

59

A

‘What happens to the N2 indicator when wing anti-ice is on’

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61
Q

60

A

‘A failure of the high pressure engine driven fuel pump will result in what’

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62
Q

61

A

‘What is 7th stage bleed air used for.. 10th.. 14th’

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63
Q

62

A

‘What is APR, When is it armed When is it activated, What does it do’

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64
Q

63

A

“What are the N1 bugs’ colors and shape”

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65
Q

64

A

‘How many fuel nozzles are there for each engine’

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66
Q

65

A

‘How does N2 vibration indications get displayed’

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67
Q

66

A

‘What indication will be given if the APR fails’

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68
Q

67

A

‘What are the “bare essentials” for an engine start’

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69
Q

68

A

‘What cools the engine oil’

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70
Q

69

A

‘During climbout, your lunch box falls and turns of…switches. What can you expect, and what do you do’

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71
Q

70

A

‘If N2 speed control is used for takeoff, is APR thrust available’

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72
Q

71

A

‘If ignition is left armed during a subsequent engi… failure, will the ignition automatically come on’

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73
Q

72

A

‘What is necessary for thrust reverse to operate’

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74
Q

73

A

‘When do we use CONT IGNITION’

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75
Q

74

A

‘During start on a cold day, what N1 is necessary before fuel is introduced’

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76
Q

75

A

‘What does an amber REV on the N1 gauge mean, Green’

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77
Q

76

A

‘What does the EMER STOW switchlight do, What will EICAS display’

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78
Q

77

A

‘What do you check during the start sequence’

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79
Q

78

A

‘What are some of the systems that are armed/checked when N1 > 79%’

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80
Q

79

A

‘How do you do the FFOD fuel feed check valve test and Why are we checking this’

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81
Q

80

A

“What do you do if you don’t get the R/L FUEL LO PRESS right away”

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82
Q

81

A

‘Would you use the APU to try an engine restart in flight’

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83
Q

82

A

‘What does NO STRTR CUTOUT mean’

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84
Q

83

A

‘Without checking the N2 gauges, how could you tell if they were NOT within 2% of each other’

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85
Q

84

A

‘When the thrust levers are placed in shutoff, specifically how does the engine stop getting fuel’

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86
Q

85

A

‘Which valves fail open and Closed and Why’

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87
Q

86

A

‘What are the ratings of the Lead Acid batteries’

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88
Q

87

A

‘Why is the APU battery bigger’

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89
Q

88

A

‘What busses power the battery chargers’

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90
Q

89

A

‘What does the green AC AVAIL light indicate’

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91
Q

90

A

‘What does the battery master do’

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92
Q

91

A

‘What happens to the DC system when AC power is established’

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93
Q

92

A

‘Which busses are powered with external AC connected and the AC SERV Config. switch on’

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94
Q

93

A

‘What does the DC SERV switch do’

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95
Q

94

A

‘What is the generator/bus priority’

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96
Q

95

A

‘What causes the IDG to automatically disconnect’

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97
Q

96

A

‘What causes an IDG FAULT’

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98
Q

97

A

‘If AC BUS 1 loses power, how many TRUs lose power’

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99
Q

98

A

‘When do the AC UTIL busses shed’

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100
Q

99

A

‘Which bus ties are automatic and Manual’

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101
Q

100

A

‘When will the APU and MAIN BATT DIR busses power the DC ESS bus through the DC BATT bus’

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102
Q

101

A

‘When does the AC ESS XFER ALTN light illuminate’

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103
Q

102

A

‘What does the AUTO XFER FAIL light indicate What is the purpose of the switchlight’

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104
Q

103

A

‘How do you isolate AC BUS 1’

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105
Q

104

A

‘When does the DC EMER bus appear on the DC synoptic page’

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106
Q

105

A

‘What does the DC EMER bus power’

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107
Q

106

A

‘How is the DC EMER bus powered’

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108
Q

107

A

‘How is AC converted to DC’

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109
Q

108

A

‘How many TRUs are on the airplane Rating Location’

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110
Q

109

A

‘Why are they in the nose compartment’

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111
Q

110

A

‘A TRU FAIL message will appear when’

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112
Q

111

A

‘What does the ADG power’

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113
Q

112

A

‘After ADG deployment, how is normal power returned to the AC ESS bus’

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114
Q

113

A

‘When will the ADG automatically deploy’

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115
Q

114

A

‘How many kVA is the ADG’

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116
Q

115

A

‘If the SERV TRU is powering DC BUS 1 and 2, what precautions must be taken’

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117
Q

116

A

‘In looking at the electric DC synoptic page, if th…1 fails, what should you do (besides look at QRH)’

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118
Q

117

A

‘If the ESS TRU 2 fails, what should you do’

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119
Q

118

A

‘How many circuit breaker panels are there Locations’

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120
Q

119

A

‘What is a Permanent Magnet Generator (PMG) and what does it do’

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121
Q

120

A

‘What situation exists where both batteries are connected to each other’

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122
Q

121

A

‘What RPMs will the constant speed drives provide to the generator’

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123
Q

122

A

‘With the ADG deployed and not operating, what is powering the DC ESS bus’

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124
Q

123

A

‘With just the battery master on, will the ALTN light illuminate’

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125
Q

124

A

‘When will we get a white IDG DISC light’

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126
Q

125

A

‘Can an IDG be reconnected in flight On the ground’

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127
Q

126

A

‘If an IDG has been disconnected and deferred, why do we NOT get the light at the gate’

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128
Q

127

A

‘What is the difference between AUTO XFER FAIL and OFF’

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129
Q

128

A

‘Where is the AC external receptacle located’

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130
Q

129

A

‘You show up to the airplane and the battery is dea…an you immediately disconnect the DC external Why’

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131
Q

130

A

‘What airspeed does the ADG produce maximum power Lose power’

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132
Q

131

A

‘What does the ADG handle control’

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133
Q

132

A

‘What happens when you lose AC BUS 1’

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134
Q

133

A

‘Does DC external charge the batteries’

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135
Q

134

A

‘When does generator overload occur When is it taken offline’

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136
Q

135

A

‘If you select AUTO XFER OFF on the left side and G…hat TRUs do you lose and which busses do you lose’

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137
Q

136

A

‘so all TRUs are still being powered. This is sort … would prevent GEN 2 / APU from powering AC BUS 1’

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138
Q

137

A

‘Will the PA system work with only DC power’

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139
Q

138

A

“If during an electrical smoke/fire you’ve exhauste…ate most busses yet keep a decent level of safety”

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140
Q

139

A

‘How is the DC ESS and DC BATT powered in flight Ground’

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141
Q

140

A

‘Where, physically on the airplane, are AC BUS 1 and 2, DC BUS 1 and 2 and AC ESS bus located’

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142
Q

141

A

‘If the AC ESS bus shorts, what have you lost and what can you do about it’

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143
Q

142

A

‘In the CRJ700-900 you can also pull CB1S2 to disco…ators to power their respective AC busses. CRJ200’

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144
Q

143

A

‘In automatic mode, what rate does the cabin climb/descend’

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145
Q

144

A

‘Which display and ARINC cooling fans operate on the ground In flight’

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146
Q

145

A

‘How do we switch pressure controllers’

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147
Q

146

A

‘The pressure controller pre-pressurizes the cabin to what value’

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148
Q

147

A

‘When do you use the manual pressure controller’

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149
Q

148

A

‘When is pressurization information displayed on PRI, STAT and ECS pages’

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150
Q

149

A

‘In flight, what supplies cooling air to the pack heat exchangers .. On the ground’

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151
Q

150

A

‘What happens if a pack experiences an over-pressure condition.. Over-temp’

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152
Q

151

A

‘How do you tell if the pack valve (PRSOV) is open or closed’

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153
Q

152

A

‘When may ram air be used for ventilation’

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154
Q

153

A

‘What happens when the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed in’

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155
Q

154

A

‘On the ground, what pneumatic sources are available to operate the ECS system’

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156
Q

155

A

‘What causes a pack to automatically shutdown’

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157
Q

156

A

‘How many outflow valves are provided for pressurization outflow.. How are they controlled’

158
Q

157

A

‘In the manual pressurization mode, what does the m…-position of the manual pressurization control do’

159
Q

158

A

‘If emergency depressurization switch is pushed at FL350, what happens’

160
Q

159

A

‘What side does the ram air come in on’

161
Q

160

A

‘When does pre-pressurization occur’

162
Q

161

A

‘What are the temperature knobs on the air-conditioning panel designed to do.. How do they work’

163
Q

162

A

‘When do you use manual temperature control’

164
Q

163

A

‘What does the ram air scoop do’

165
Q

164

A

‘What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve’

166
Q

165

A

‘To test the 14th stage isolation valve, what must be on’

167
Q

166

A

‘What does the ICE caution message indicate’

168
Q

167

A

‘An ANTI-ICE DUCT warning message indicates what problem’

169
Q

168

A

‘What happens to the anti-ice system during thrust reverse deployment’

170
Q

169

A

‘When the windshield heat is selected to HI, what temperature setting are the side windows’

171
Q

170

A

‘What happens when the wing anti-ice switch is in STBY’

172
Q

171

A

‘What does the ANTI ICE SENSOR message indicate’

173
Q

172

A

‘What does the BLEED MISCONFIG message indicate’

174
Q

173

A

‘What indications should you receive when wing anti-ice is in NORM’

175
Q

174

A

‘Will the TAT sensor provide accurate ambient temperatures on the ground’

176
Q

175

A

‘At what temperatures can the cowl anti-ice be turned off’

177
Q

176

A

‘How many ice detector probes are on the CRJ’

178
Q

177

A

‘What is the purpose of the probe heat switches’

179
Q

178

A

‘Down to AC ESS power, which windshields/windows are powered’

180
Q

179

A

‘Will the 14th stage isolation valve open if selected with the anti-ice system off.. Why’

181
Q

180

A

“What’s the difference between STBY and NORM for wing anti-ice”

182
Q

181

A

‘What is cold soaked’

183
Q

182

A

‘When do we do a pre-takeoff check’

184
Q

183

A

‘When do we do a pre-takeoff contamination check’

185
Q

184

A

‘What does L/R COWL A/ICE caution mean’

186
Q

185

A

‘When do we use ice protection’

187
Q

186

A

‘How many hydraulic pumps are on the airplane.. What are their power sources’

188
Q

187

A

‘What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the CRJ.. Color’

189
Q

188

A

‘Will the “B” pumps come on automatically when the …essure is below 1800 PSI (See following question)’

190
Q

189

A

‘With the hydraulic pumps in AUTO, when do the ACMPs come on’

191
Q

190

A

‘What ACMP is directly powered by the ADG’

192
Q

191

A

‘What is the main purpose of the hydraulic accumulators’

193
Q

192

A

‘How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized’

194
Q

193

A

‘Where are the service points for the hydraulic systems’

195
Q

194

A

‘What electric hydraulic pump normally operates continuously’

196
Q

195

A

‘How are systems 1 and 2 cooled.. System 3’

197
Q

196

A

‘Explain IDG logic and its relationship to hydraulic pumps’

198
Q

197

A

‘You lose the right engine. Which hydraulic pumps are unavailable’

199
Q

198

A

‘What hydraulic systems are used to extend and retract the landing gear’

200
Q

199

A

‘When are the gear and flap indications displayed.. Not displayed’

201
Q

200

A

‘During gear retraction, how are the main wheels rotation stopped’

202
Q

201

A

‘The manual gear extension handle has how many detents’

203
Q

202

A

‘What occurs when the manual gear extension handle is pulled’

204
Q

203

A

‘With a complete hydraulic failure, what emergency braking is available’

205
Q

204

A

‘What are the BTMS colors.. What does the BTMS reset switch do’

206
Q

205

A

‘When is the anti-skid system operative.. Disabled’

207
Q

206

A

‘When do the wheel fuse plugs blow out’

208
Q

207

A

‘Why is a single-engine taxi always on the right engine’

209
Q

208

A

‘If the landing gear solenoid prevents retraction, …l if the weight on/off wheels system is operating’

210
Q

209

A

‘Are there associated problems with extending the gear at 250 KIAS’

211
Q

210

A

‘Why do we taxi on the right engine during single-engine taxi’

212
Q

211

A

‘Why do we taxi on the right engine when taxiing si….. Is it ever acceptable to taxi on the left only’

213
Q

212

A

‘What message appears when one channel of the Flaps Electronic Control Unit (FECU) fails’

214
Q

213

A

‘What happens if one channel of the Horizontal Stab Trim Control Unit (HSTCU) fails’

215
Q

214

A

‘What is the control priority of the HSTCU’

216
Q

215

A

‘How many positions does the flight spoiler lever have’

217
Q

216

A

‘What controls all spoilers’

218
Q

217

A

‘How is a spoiler failure or spoiler position indicator failure displayed’

219
Q

218

A

‘How is the stick pusher momentarily disconnected.. Permanently’

220
Q

219

A

‘How is a stick shaker deactivated’

221
Q

220

A

‘For the stall pusher to be armed, what switches must be on’

222
Q

221

A

‘What is the duty cycle of the stall stick shaker motor’

223
Q

222

A

‘What is the purpose of the aileron bungee breakout switch’

224
Q

223

A

‘What happens when the ROLL DISC handle is pulled’

225
Q

224

A

‘When does the amber ROLL SELECT switchlight illuminate’

226
Q

225

A

‘What moves the flaps’

227
Q

226

A

“Will both pilots’ rudder pedals still operate if t…em anti-jam (spring tension breakout) is required”

228
Q

227

A

‘How is the stabilizer trimmed’

229
Q

228

A

‘At what mach speed is mach trim used’

230
Q

229

A

‘What is PCU runaway.. How is it fixed’

231
Q

230

A

‘How is an aileron jam different than a PCU runaway’

232
Q

231

A

‘Why do some airplanes have 25° of rudder travel, and some have 33°’

233
Q

232

A

‘What are BUTE doors’

234
Q

233

A

‘When are the GLDs deployed.. When are they stowed’

235
Q

234

A

‘How are the collector tanks kept full’

236
Q

235

A

‘How is fuel balanced’

237
Q

236

A

‘How is fuel transferred from the collector tanks to the engines’

238
Q

237

A

‘Where are the main ejectors physically located’

239
Q

238

A

‘What is the purpose of the electric boost pumps’

240
Q

239

A

‘How many gallons do the fuel tanks hold’

241
Q

240

A

‘How is automatic fuel balancing achieved’

242
Q

241

A

‘When is fuel transferred automatically from the center tank to the main’

243
Q

242

A

‘When are the boost pumps energized’

244
Q

243

A

‘How are the boost pumps powered’

245
Q

244

A

‘Provided the associated boost pump is armed, what will the fuel crossfeed line allow’

246
Q

245

A

‘During refueling is XFLOW inhibited’

247
Q

246

A

‘When does the AUTO XFLOW INHIBIT status message appear’

248
Q

247

A

‘What prevents over pressure during pressure refueling if the normal vent system is blocked’

249
Q

248

A

‘If the main fuel gravity caps are removed with the main tanks full, what will happen’

250
Q

249

A

‘On the ground, how may the fuel level be manually checked’

251
Q

250

A

‘How may fuel be cutoff to the engines..APU’

252
Q

251

A

‘What does the fail light on the gravity XFLOW switchlight indicate’

253
Q

252

A

‘Where are the fuel temps taken (bulk, engine, etc.)’

254
Q

253

A

‘How many ejector pumps do we have.. What types’

255
Q

254

A

‘When would you see an amber fuel flow line on the fuel synoptic page.. Red’

256
Q

255

A

‘What does the INOP indication on the fuel boost pump mean’

257
Q

256

A

‘What scenario would have both fuel pumps armed, but only one operating’

258
Q

257

A

‘If the left main ejector fails and the left boost …armed, will the right boost pump come on if armed’

259
Q

258

A

‘If both the left and right main ejector fails, and…has been deselected, what will the boost pumps do’

260
Q

259

A

‘If the left transfer ejector fails open, and both wing tanks are 100% full, what happens’

261
Q

260

A

‘Fire/heat detection is provided where.. Extinguishing’

262
Q

261

A

‘When happens when the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed in’

263
Q

262

A

‘How is the firebell silenced’

264
Q

263

A

‘How is fire detection provided for the APU, engine and jetpipe’

265
Q

264

A

‘How is fire detection provided for the MLG bay’

266
Q

265

A

‘If one of the two fire detection loops has a short, what happens’

267
Q

266

A

‘An APU fire on the ground results in what’

268
Q

267

A

‘How is the lavatory bottled discharged’

269
Q

268

A

‘When a fire is detected in the cargo department, what happens’

270
Q

269

A

‘The CARGO FIREX bottles provide a quick discharge of Halon followed by what’

271
Q

270

A

‘How many smoke detectors are located in the cargo compartment.. How do they interact’

272
Q

271

A

‘During normal loop operations, what indications wi…a normal condition and loop B is detecting a fire’

273
Q

272

A

‘Loop A is shorted, and loop B is detecting fire’

274
Q

273

A

‘How would you isolate a L ENG open fire loop’

275
Q

274

A

‘Describe the cargo fire protection system’

276
Q

275

A

‘Describe the lavatory fire protection system’

277
Q

276

A

‘Why does APU FIRE FAIL matter when performing a fire warning test prior to APU start’

278
Q

277

A

‘Which busses power the fire detection.. Protection’

279
Q

278

A

‘What radios can be tuned with the backup tuning unit (BTU)’

280
Q

279

A

‘When EMERG is selected on the Audio Control Panel (ACP), what happens.. When would you use it’

281
Q

280

A

‘If an RTU fails, how can its respective COM be tuned’

282
Q

281

A

‘What are the inputs to the CVR’

283
Q

282

A

‘How many static discharge wicks are on the airplane’

284
Q

283

A

‘What happens when the RTU 1 INHIB switchlight is pressed in’

285
Q

284

A

‘During a PA, who has priority (flightcrew or flight attendant)’

286
Q

285

A

‘How is radio interference reduced’

287
Q

286

A

‘If on DC power only, how do you tune radios’

288
Q

287

A

‘How does ACARS communicate’

289
Q

288

A

‘What does the Voice Data guarded switch next to the landing gear lever do’

290
Q

289

A

‘Above 30,000 feet cabin altitude, what type of the flow goes to the crew O2 masks’

291
Q

290

A

‘Passenger oxygen generators provide what duration of oxygen’

292
Q

291

A

‘What happens if CPAM fails’

293
Q

292

A

‘What does the yellow cross on the oxygen blinker indicate’

294
Q

293

A

‘What does the white flag in view on the oxygen mask container indicate’

295
Q

294

A

‘How much crew O2 pressure is required for dispatch.. Why do we need 1650 for Canada’

296
Q

295

A

‘How long after AC power is lost will the AHRS provide information’

297
Q

296

A

‘When does the radar altimeter readout appear’

298
Q

297

A

‘What does the airspeed trend vector indicate’

299
Q

298

A

‘Where do the PFDs and MFDs normally receive air data and AHRS information’

300
Q

299

A

‘Which pitot/static source do the standby instruments use’

301
Q

300

A

‘If AHRS #1 failed, how would the pilot regain attitude information on his PFD’

302
Q

301

A

‘How long after a complete power failure will the standby attitude indicator provide information’

303
Q

302

A

‘Windshear aural will take priority over all aural alerts except’

304
Q

303

A

‘A navaid is disabled on the FMS because it is NOTA…er-down and power-up will the navaid be available’

305
Q

304

A

‘What do the mach transducers do’

306
Q

305

A

‘When will cyan preview needles appear on the PFD’

307
Q

306

A

‘When is the missed approach procedure displayed on the MFD’

308
Q

307

A

‘How does ACARS communicate.. Can we override it’

309
Q

308

A

‘What is TAT used for’

310
Q

309

A

‘Which flight controls are the autopilot servos connected to’

311
Q

310

A

‘How many yaw dampers are required for the autopilot to function’

312
Q

311

A

“What is the primary means of determining the flight director’s mode of operation”

313
Q

312

A

‘What is the green line on the airspeed tape.. When is it accurate’

314
Q

313

A

‘At what altitude is ½ bank automatically selected.. De-selected’

315
Q

314

A

‘At what altitude does Mach replace IAS’

316
Q

315

A

‘At what airspeed does Mach appear and disappear on the PFD’

317
Q

316

A

‘If one FCC fails, what happens to the autopilot’

318
Q

317

A

‘When is the flight director sync button disabled.. What does it do’

319
Q

318

A

‘What happens when the ALT button is pressed on the FCP’

320
Q

319

A

‘What do the witness lights indicate’

321
Q

320

A

‘What happens when a new flight director mode becomes active on the FMA’

322
Q

321

A

‘How many flight control computers are there’

323
Q

322

A

‘Will the autopilot be operational during a go-around when the TOGA switches are activated’

324
Q

323

A

‘The go-around mode provides what pitch.. Single-engine’

325
Q

324

A

‘How can the autopilot be manually disengaged’

326
Q

325

A

‘What are the three modes of the FCC SPEED button’

327
Q

326

A

‘In the FMA, what line is considered lateral mode.. Vertical mode.. Which side is active.. Armed’

328
Q

327

A

‘When do the flight control computers act independently’

329
Q

328

A

‘What do we need to make the autopilot work’

330
Q

329

A

‘Can we go with 600/600/500.. 600/600/600’

331
Q

330

A

‘Can we go with 4000/1000/500’

332
Q

331

A

‘RVR at Denver is 600, 600, 600, 500. Can you depart’

333
Q

332

A

‘If 1200/600/600 do we need a takeoff alternate’

334
Q

333

A

‘How do you reduce Cat II from 1600 to 1200 RVR’

335
Q

334

A

‘Can we still shoot a Cat II with 1200/0/0’

336
Q

335

A

‘How do you determine legal autopilot altitude minimums’

337
Q

336

A

‘What is necessary for a visual approach’

338
Q

337

A

‘What is the only thing a Captain can write in the “Corrective Action” block in the maintenance log’

339
Q

338

A

‘What items are required on the load manifest.. Release’

340
Q

339

A

‘What constitutes an aborted takeoff.. When is an IOR required.. When must it be submitted’

341
Q

340

A

‘When is a release required’

342
Q

341

A

‘How is an airplane proven airworthy’

343
Q

342

A

‘How soon after departing an airport in uncontrolled airspace must you enter controlled airspace’

344
Q

343

A

‘Based on temperature, how far you do you clear a thunderstorm’

345
Q

344

A

‘How do you detect windshear’

346
Q

345

A

‘What are the separation requirements for takeoff and landing behind a heavy’

347
Q

346

A

‘What is the maximum distance for a takeoff alternate in the CRJ’

348
Q

347

A

‘If you depart VFR, when must you obtain an IFR clearance’

349
Q

348

A

‘What is marginal weather for the destination airport.. Alternate’

350
Q

349

A

‘What is exemption 3585’

351
Q

350

A

‘Can anything be called ballast’

352
Q

351

A

‘What does the shaded area on the weight and balance form mean.. Why 4000lbs’

353
Q

352

A

‘What are the CG limits.. What are the lines that extend past the shaded areas’

354
Q

353

A

‘Can we depart after only using Type I’

355
Q

354

A

‘What colors are deice fluids’

356
Q

355

A

“Why don’t you see type II in the United States”

357
Q

356

A

‘After you deice with type IV and are performing a pre-takeoff check, what are you looking for’

358
Q

357

A

‘After you deice with type IV you see some ice accumulation. Can you simply get more type IV’

359
Q

358

A

‘After deicing, we takeoff with fluid adhering to t…ice fluid sticking to the wing but not loose snow’

360
Q

359

A

‘Is the fluid hot or cold’

361
Q

360

A

‘Can type IV be heated’

362
Q

361

A

‘Why is each area of the holdover time have a range instead of just a time’

363
Q

362

A

‘What are the variables that affect the holdover times’

364
Q

363

A

‘What is the mixture of the fluids and can they be diluted’

365
Q

364

A

‘What are the four elements that we must be given from the deicer’

366
Q

365

A

‘Do we have to hear all four elements’

367
Q

366

A

‘What is the representative surface and where is it normally’

368
Q

367

A

‘Can the deicer start somewhere other than the left wing’

369
Q

368

A

‘How does the weather service know if snow is light, moderate or heavy’

370
Q

369

A

‘Can we depart after a holdover time’

371
Q

370

A

‘What defines a contaminated runway’

372
Q

371

A

‘What determines the level of contamination’

373
Q

372

A

‘What is TAT, and why is it generally warmer than SAT’

374
Q

373

A

“Why don’t we worry about ice when SAT is below -40°C”

375
Q

374

A

‘Why do we turn cowls on at 10°C instead of at freezing level’

376
Q

375

A

‘Can we taxi on a single-engine if ramps are not co…ed and temperature is 5°C and visibility is 1/4sm’

377
Q

376

A

‘When do you need an alternate’

378
Q

377

A

‘When do you need a second alternate.. What is marginal weather’

379
Q

378

A

‘What is the amount of fuel on board where you must declare an emergency’

380
Q

379

A

‘You have flown the CRJ as SIC for 500 hours and yo…ed to fly with an FO fresh off IOE. Is this legal’

381
Q

380

A

‘You are a high mins Captain, and are scheduled to …ather is currently 002OVC and 1sm. Can you depart’

382
Q

381

A

‘What are the limitations for a high mins FO’

383
Q

382

A

‘What is the maximum crosswind for a regular FO’

384
Q

383

A

‘Can we do circling approaches in the CRJ’

385
Q

384

A

‘You are doing a circling approach into IDA. You ar…. Same scenario in LAX. Can you accept the visual’

386
Q

385

A

‘How do we get MTOW (max takeoff weight).. Where is…. What is MINTO (minimum takeoff fuel) determined’

387
Q

386

A

“You’re 150lbs overweight, what do you do”

388
Q

387

A

‘When is a new release required’

389
Q

388

A

‘What is the difference between obstacle and climb on takeoff data’

390
Q

389

A

‘When is reduced thrust prohibited’

391
Q

390

A

‘Why do we set trim for takeoff’

392
Q

391

A

‘If the reduced thrust hash mark (slash) is not dep… Aerodata block is reduced thrust still available’