Skywest CRJ Oral Study Guide Flashcards
’What are the dimensions’
Nose to tail, 87'10". Wing span, 69'8". Height, 20'8"
1
‘What is the track distance between the main wheels’
2
‘What is the minimum width required for a 180° turn’
3
‘What is the purpose of the winglets’
4
‘What are the APU and radar hazard areas’
5
‘How are the emergency lights powered’
6
‘When does the OXY LO PRESS caution come on’
7
‘How many PBEs are onboard’
8
‘When will WINDSHEAR messages appear’
9
‘How are TCAS RAs presented’
10
‘How long is the emergency escape rope’
11
‘Which overhead lights are illuminated with just the battery master on’
12
‘How can the passenger door be verified closed in addition to the EICAS indication’
13
‘What is the maximum load on the passenger door’
14
‘How many emergency exits are there in the cabin’
15
‘How many oxygen systems does the CRJ have’
16
‘Where is the flight compartment PBE located’
17
‘What is the source of oxygen for the passengers’
18
‘Do the oxygen generators activate when the oxygen masks drop’
19
‘When will the emergency lights illuminate automatically’
20
‘How are the emergency lights charged’
21
‘How long will emergency lights last once activated’
22
‘The AUTO function of the passenger signs will turn the seat beat sign on when’
23
‘Why is there a minimum ops weight.. Minimum flight weight’
24
‘How do you know if the masks have dropped’
25
‘Is Vb / Mb a target or limitation’
26
‘What happens if the EICAS Control Panel (ECP) fails’
27
‘What happens if ED1 fails’
28
‘When will T/O Config warnings occur’
29
‘When are non-critical EICAS messages inhibited’
30
‘How are EICAS caution messages boxed.. Status’
31
‘How are terrain warnings displayed’
32
‘What is the only pressure door not displayed on the Doors synoptic page’
33
‘The APU control system gives priority to what’
34
‘What are VGDs’
35
‘What supplies pressurized fuel to the APU’
36
‘What will cause the APU to shutdown in flight.. Ground’
37
‘The APU LCV interlock is predicated on what.. What does it do’
38
‘How will the 10th stage bleed shutoff valves fail …losed).. 14th.. APU LCV.. 10th and 14th isolation’
39
‘What happens when the APU PWR/FUEL switchlight is pressed in’
40
‘What are the APU intake door indications’
41
‘APU pneumatic output is controlled by modulating what valve’
42
‘What is the start sequence of the APU’
43
‘What ways can the APU be manually shutdown’
44
‘What speed is the APU starter de-energized’
45
‘During an engine start on a single-engine taxi, why do we need N2 < 70%’
46
‘Why start the second engine during a single-engine taxi with the APU’
47
‘What is the rated thrust of the CF34-3B1 engine.. With APR’
48
‘Describe the design of the CF34 engine’
49
‘What PSI is required for a crossbleed start’
50
‘How many igniters does the engine have.. What are their power sources’
51
‘How many valves open when the ENG START switchlight is pressed in’
52
‘Pressing the ENG STOP switchlight does what’
53
‘What items are driven by the N2 accessory drive’
54
‘What does the L or R ENG START message indicate’
55
‘How many horsepower is the Air Turbine Starter (ATS)’
56
‘When does the engine starter cut out’
57
‘How are the ignition systems powered’
58
‘At low power settings, what type of speed control is in effect.. High power settings’
59
‘What happens to the N2 indicator when wing anti-ice is on’
60
‘A failure of the high pressure engine driven fuel pump will result in what’
61
‘What is 7th stage bleed air used for.. 10th.. 14th’
62
‘What is APR, When is it armed When is it activated, What does it do’
63
“What are the N1 bugs’ colors and shape”
64
‘How many fuel nozzles are there for each engine’
65
‘How does N2 vibration indications get displayed’
66
‘What indication will be given if the APR fails’
67
‘What are the “bare essentials” for an engine start’
68
‘What cools the engine oil’
69
‘During climbout, your lunch box falls and turns of…switches. What can you expect, and what do you do’
70
‘If N2 speed control is used for takeoff, is APR thrust available’
71
‘If ignition is left armed during a subsequent engi… failure, will the ignition automatically come on’
72
‘What is necessary for thrust reverse to operate’
73
‘When do we use CONT IGNITION’
74
‘During start on a cold day, what N1 is necessary before fuel is introduced’
75
‘What does an amber REV on the N1 gauge mean, Green’
76
‘What does the EMER STOW switchlight do, What will EICAS display’
77
‘What do you check during the start sequence’
78
‘What are some of the systems that are armed/checked when N1 > 79%’
79
‘How do you do the FFOD fuel feed check valve test and Why are we checking this’
80
“What do you do if you don’t get the R/L FUEL LO PRESS right away”
81
‘Would you use the APU to try an engine restart in flight’
82
‘What does NO STRTR CUTOUT mean’
83
‘Without checking the N2 gauges, how could you tell if they were NOT within 2% of each other’
84
‘When the thrust levers are placed in shutoff, specifically how does the engine stop getting fuel’
85
‘Which valves fail open and Closed and Why’
86
‘What are the ratings of the Lead Acid batteries’
87
‘Why is the APU battery bigger’
88
‘What busses power the battery chargers’
89
‘What does the green AC AVAIL light indicate’
90
‘What does the battery master do’
91
‘What happens to the DC system when AC power is established’
92
‘Which busses are powered with external AC connected and the AC SERV Config. switch on’
93
‘What does the DC SERV switch do’
94
‘What is the generator/bus priority’
95
‘What causes the IDG to automatically disconnect’
96
‘What causes an IDG FAULT’
97
‘If AC BUS 1 loses power, how many TRUs lose power’
98
‘When do the AC UTIL busses shed’
99
‘Which bus ties are automatic and Manual’
100
‘When will the APU and MAIN BATT DIR busses power the DC ESS bus through the DC BATT bus’
101
‘When does the AC ESS XFER ALTN light illuminate’
102
‘What does the AUTO XFER FAIL light indicate What is the purpose of the switchlight’
103
‘How do you isolate AC BUS 1’
104
‘When does the DC EMER bus appear on the DC synoptic page’
105
‘What does the DC EMER bus power’
106
‘How is the DC EMER bus powered’
107
‘How is AC converted to DC’
108
‘How many TRUs are on the airplane Rating Location’
109
‘Why are they in the nose compartment’
110
‘A TRU FAIL message will appear when’
111
‘What does the ADG power’
112
‘After ADG deployment, how is normal power returned to the AC ESS bus’
113
‘When will the ADG automatically deploy’
114
‘How many kVA is the ADG’
115
‘If the SERV TRU is powering DC BUS 1 and 2, what precautions must be taken’
116
‘In looking at the electric DC synoptic page, if th…1 fails, what should you do (besides look at QRH)’
117
‘If the ESS TRU 2 fails, what should you do’
118
‘How many circuit breaker panels are there Locations’
119
‘What is a Permanent Magnet Generator (PMG) and what does it do’
120
‘What situation exists where both batteries are connected to each other’
121
‘What RPMs will the constant speed drives provide to the generator’
122
‘With the ADG deployed and not operating, what is powering the DC ESS bus’
123
‘With just the battery master on, will the ALTN light illuminate’
124
‘When will we get a white IDG DISC light’
125
‘Can an IDG be reconnected in flight On the ground’
126
‘If an IDG has been disconnected and deferred, why do we NOT get the light at the gate’
127
‘What is the difference between AUTO XFER FAIL and OFF’
128
‘Where is the AC external receptacle located’
129
‘You show up to the airplane and the battery is dea…an you immediately disconnect the DC external Why’
130
‘What airspeed does the ADG produce maximum power Lose power’
131
‘What does the ADG handle control’
132
‘What happens when you lose AC BUS 1’
133
‘Does DC external charge the batteries’
134
‘When does generator overload occur When is it taken offline’
135
‘If you select AUTO XFER OFF on the left side and G…hat TRUs do you lose and which busses do you lose’
136
‘so all TRUs are still being powered. This is sort … would prevent GEN 2 / APU from powering AC BUS 1’
137
‘Will the PA system work with only DC power’
138
“If during an electrical smoke/fire you’ve exhauste…ate most busses yet keep a decent level of safety”
139
‘How is the DC ESS and DC BATT powered in flight Ground’
140
‘Where, physically on the airplane, are AC BUS 1 and 2, DC BUS 1 and 2 and AC ESS bus located’
141
‘If the AC ESS bus shorts, what have you lost and what can you do about it’
142
‘In the CRJ700-900 you can also pull CB1S2 to disco…ators to power their respective AC busses. CRJ200’
143
‘In automatic mode, what rate does the cabin climb/descend’
144
‘Which display and ARINC cooling fans operate on the ground In flight’
145
‘How do we switch pressure controllers’
146
‘The pressure controller pre-pressurizes the cabin to what value’
147
‘When do you use the manual pressure controller’
148
‘When is pressurization information displayed on PRI, STAT and ECS pages’
149
‘In flight, what supplies cooling air to the pack heat exchangers .. On the ground’
150
‘What happens if a pack experiences an over-pressure condition.. Over-temp’
151
‘How do you tell if the pack valve (PRSOV) is open or closed’
152
‘When may ram air be used for ventilation’
153
‘What happens when the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed in’
154
‘On the ground, what pneumatic sources are available to operate the ECS system’
155
‘What causes a pack to automatically shutdown’
156
‘How many outflow valves are provided for pressurization outflow.. How are they controlled’
157
‘In the manual pressurization mode, what does the m…-position of the manual pressurization control do’
158
‘If emergency depressurization switch is pushed at FL350, what happens’
159
‘What side does the ram air come in on’
160
‘When does pre-pressurization occur’
161
‘What are the temperature knobs on the air-conditioning panel designed to do.. How do they work’
162
‘When do you use manual temperature control’
163
‘What does the ram air scoop do’
164
‘What is the purpose of the 14th stage isolation valve’
165
‘To test the 14th stage isolation valve, what must be on’
166
‘What does the ICE caution message indicate’
167
‘An ANTI-ICE DUCT warning message indicates what problem’
168
‘What happens to the anti-ice system during thrust reverse deployment’
169
‘When the windshield heat is selected to HI, what temperature setting are the side windows’
170
‘What happens when the wing anti-ice switch is in STBY’
171
‘What does the ANTI ICE SENSOR message indicate’
172
‘What does the BLEED MISCONFIG message indicate’
173
‘What indications should you receive when wing anti-ice is in NORM’
174
‘Will the TAT sensor provide accurate ambient temperatures on the ground’
175
‘At what temperatures can the cowl anti-ice be turned off’
176
‘How many ice detector probes are on the CRJ’
177
‘What is the purpose of the probe heat switches’
178
‘Down to AC ESS power, which windshields/windows are powered’
179
‘Will the 14th stage isolation valve open if selected with the anti-ice system off.. Why’
180
“What’s the difference between STBY and NORM for wing anti-ice”
181
‘What is cold soaked’
182
‘When do we do a pre-takeoff check’
183
‘When do we do a pre-takeoff contamination check’
184
‘What does L/R COWL A/ICE caution mean’
185
‘When do we use ice protection’
186
‘How many hydraulic pumps are on the airplane.. What are their power sources’
187
‘What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the CRJ.. Color’
188
‘Will the “B” pumps come on automatically when the …essure is below 1800 PSI (See following question)’
189
‘With the hydraulic pumps in AUTO, when do the ACMPs come on’
190
‘What ACMP is directly powered by the ADG’
191
‘What is the main purpose of the hydraulic accumulators’
192
‘How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized’
193
‘Where are the service points for the hydraulic systems’
194
‘What electric hydraulic pump normally operates continuously’
195
‘How are systems 1 and 2 cooled.. System 3’
196
‘Explain IDG logic and its relationship to hydraulic pumps’
197
‘You lose the right engine. Which hydraulic pumps are unavailable’
198
‘What hydraulic systems are used to extend and retract the landing gear’
199
‘When are the gear and flap indications displayed.. Not displayed’
200
‘During gear retraction, how are the main wheels rotation stopped’
201
‘The manual gear extension handle has how many detents’
202
‘What occurs when the manual gear extension handle is pulled’
203
‘With a complete hydraulic failure, what emergency braking is available’
204
‘What are the BTMS colors.. What does the BTMS reset switch do’
205
‘When is the anti-skid system operative.. Disabled’
206
‘When do the wheel fuse plugs blow out’
207
‘Why is a single-engine taxi always on the right engine’
208
‘If the landing gear solenoid prevents retraction, …l if the weight on/off wheels system is operating’
209
‘Are there associated problems with extending the gear at 250 KIAS’
210
‘Why do we taxi on the right engine during single-engine taxi’
211
‘Why do we taxi on the right engine when taxiing si….. Is it ever acceptable to taxi on the left only’
212
‘What message appears when one channel of the Flaps Electronic Control Unit (FECU) fails’
213
‘What happens if one channel of the Horizontal Stab Trim Control Unit (HSTCU) fails’
214
‘What is the control priority of the HSTCU’
215
‘How many positions does the flight spoiler lever have’
216
‘What controls all spoilers’
217
‘How is a spoiler failure or spoiler position indicator failure displayed’
218
‘How is the stick pusher momentarily disconnected.. Permanently’
219
‘How is a stick shaker deactivated’
220
‘For the stall pusher to be armed, what switches must be on’
221
‘What is the duty cycle of the stall stick shaker motor’
222
‘What is the purpose of the aileron bungee breakout switch’
223
‘What happens when the ROLL DISC handle is pulled’
224
‘When does the amber ROLL SELECT switchlight illuminate’
225
‘What moves the flaps’
226
“Will both pilots’ rudder pedals still operate if t…em anti-jam (spring tension breakout) is required”
227
‘How is the stabilizer trimmed’
228
‘At what mach speed is mach trim used’
229
‘What is PCU runaway.. How is it fixed’
230
‘How is an aileron jam different than a PCU runaway’
231
‘Why do some airplanes have 25° of rudder travel, and some have 33°’
232
‘What are BUTE doors’
233
‘When are the GLDs deployed.. When are they stowed’
234
‘How are the collector tanks kept full’
235
‘How is fuel balanced’
236
‘How is fuel transferred from the collector tanks to the engines’
237
‘Where are the main ejectors physically located’
238
‘What is the purpose of the electric boost pumps’
239
‘How many gallons do the fuel tanks hold’
240
‘How is automatic fuel balancing achieved’
241
‘When is fuel transferred automatically from the center tank to the main’
242
‘When are the boost pumps energized’
243
‘How are the boost pumps powered’
244
‘Provided the associated boost pump is armed, what will the fuel crossfeed line allow’
245
‘During refueling is XFLOW inhibited’
246
‘When does the AUTO XFLOW INHIBIT status message appear’
247
‘What prevents over pressure during pressure refueling if the normal vent system is blocked’
248
‘If the main fuel gravity caps are removed with the main tanks full, what will happen’
249
‘On the ground, how may the fuel level be manually checked’
250
‘How may fuel be cutoff to the engines..APU’
251
‘What does the fail light on the gravity XFLOW switchlight indicate’
252
‘Where are the fuel temps taken (bulk, engine, etc.)’
253
‘How many ejector pumps do we have.. What types’
254
‘When would you see an amber fuel flow line on the fuel synoptic page.. Red’
255
‘What does the INOP indication on the fuel boost pump mean’
256
‘What scenario would have both fuel pumps armed, but only one operating’
257
‘If the left main ejector fails and the left boost …armed, will the right boost pump come on if armed’
258
‘If both the left and right main ejector fails, and…has been deselected, what will the boost pumps do’
259
‘If the left transfer ejector fails open, and both wing tanks are 100% full, what happens’
260
‘Fire/heat detection is provided where.. Extinguishing’
261
‘When happens when the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pressed in’
262
‘How is the firebell silenced’
263
‘How is fire detection provided for the APU, engine and jetpipe’
264
‘How is fire detection provided for the MLG bay’
265
‘If one of the two fire detection loops has a short, what happens’
266
‘An APU fire on the ground results in what’
267
‘How is the lavatory bottled discharged’
268
‘When a fire is detected in the cargo department, what happens’
269
‘The CARGO FIREX bottles provide a quick discharge of Halon followed by what’
270
‘How many smoke detectors are located in the cargo compartment.. How do they interact’
271
‘During normal loop operations, what indications wi…a normal condition and loop B is detecting a fire’
272
‘Loop A is shorted, and loop B is detecting fire’
273
‘How would you isolate a L ENG open fire loop’
274
‘Describe the cargo fire protection system’
275
‘Describe the lavatory fire protection system’
276
‘Why does APU FIRE FAIL matter when performing a fire warning test prior to APU start’
277
‘Which busses power the fire detection.. Protection’
278
‘What radios can be tuned with the backup tuning unit (BTU)’
279
‘When EMERG is selected on the Audio Control Panel (ACP), what happens.. When would you use it’
280
‘If an RTU fails, how can its respective COM be tuned’
281
‘What are the inputs to the CVR’
282
‘How many static discharge wicks are on the airplane’
283
‘What happens when the RTU 1 INHIB switchlight is pressed in’
284
‘During a PA, who has priority (flightcrew or flight attendant)’
285
‘How is radio interference reduced’
286
‘If on DC power only, how do you tune radios’
287
‘How does ACARS communicate’
288
‘What does the Voice Data guarded switch next to the landing gear lever do’
289
‘Above 30,000 feet cabin altitude, what type of the flow goes to the crew O2 masks’
290
‘Passenger oxygen generators provide what duration of oxygen’
291
‘What happens if CPAM fails’
292
‘What does the yellow cross on the oxygen blinker indicate’
293
‘What does the white flag in view on the oxygen mask container indicate’
294
‘How much crew O2 pressure is required for dispatch.. Why do we need 1650 for Canada’
295
‘How long after AC power is lost will the AHRS provide information’
296
‘When does the radar altimeter readout appear’
297
‘What does the airspeed trend vector indicate’
298
‘Where do the PFDs and MFDs normally receive air data and AHRS information’
299
‘Which pitot/static source do the standby instruments use’
300
‘If AHRS #1 failed, how would the pilot regain attitude information on his PFD’
301
‘How long after a complete power failure will the standby attitude indicator provide information’
302
‘Windshear aural will take priority over all aural alerts except’
303
‘A navaid is disabled on the FMS because it is NOTA…er-down and power-up will the navaid be available’
304
‘What do the mach transducers do’
305
‘When will cyan preview needles appear on the PFD’
306
‘When is the missed approach procedure displayed on the MFD’
307
‘How does ACARS communicate.. Can we override it’
308
‘What is TAT used for’
309
‘Which flight controls are the autopilot servos connected to’
310
‘How many yaw dampers are required for the autopilot to function’
311
“What is the primary means of determining the flight director’s mode of operation”
312
‘What is the green line on the airspeed tape.. When is it accurate’
313
‘At what altitude is ½ bank automatically selected.. De-selected’
314
‘At what altitude does Mach replace IAS’
315
‘At what airspeed does Mach appear and disappear on the PFD’
316
‘If one FCC fails, what happens to the autopilot’
317
‘When is the flight director sync button disabled.. What does it do’
318
‘What happens when the ALT button is pressed on the FCP’
319
‘What do the witness lights indicate’
320
‘What happens when a new flight director mode becomes active on the FMA’
321
‘How many flight control computers are there’
322
‘Will the autopilot be operational during a go-around when the TOGA switches are activated’
323
‘The go-around mode provides what pitch.. Single-engine’
324
‘How can the autopilot be manually disengaged’
325
‘What are the three modes of the FCC SPEED button’
326
‘In the FMA, what line is considered lateral mode.. Vertical mode.. Which side is active.. Armed’
327
‘When do the flight control computers act independently’
328
‘What do we need to make the autopilot work’
329
‘Can we go with 600/600/500.. 600/600/600’
330
‘Can we go with 4000/1000/500’
331
‘RVR at Denver is 600, 600, 600, 500. Can you depart’
332
‘If 1200/600/600 do we need a takeoff alternate’
333
‘How do you reduce Cat II from 1600 to 1200 RVR’
334
‘Can we still shoot a Cat II with 1200/0/0’
335
‘How do you determine legal autopilot altitude minimums’
336
‘What is necessary for a visual approach’
337
‘What is the only thing a Captain can write in the “Corrective Action” block in the maintenance log’
338
‘What items are required on the load manifest.. Release’
339
‘What constitutes an aborted takeoff.. When is an IOR required.. When must it be submitted’
340
‘When is a release required’
341
‘How is an airplane proven airworthy’
342
‘How soon after departing an airport in uncontrolled airspace must you enter controlled airspace’
343
‘Based on temperature, how far you do you clear a thunderstorm’
344
‘How do you detect windshear’
345
‘What are the separation requirements for takeoff and landing behind a heavy’
346
‘What is the maximum distance for a takeoff alternate in the CRJ’
347
‘If you depart VFR, when must you obtain an IFR clearance’
348
‘What is marginal weather for the destination airport.. Alternate’
349
‘What is exemption 3585’
350
‘Can anything be called ballast’
351
‘What does the shaded area on the weight and balance form mean.. Why 4000lbs’
352
‘What are the CG limits.. What are the lines that extend past the shaded areas’
353
‘Can we depart after only using Type I’
354
‘What colors are deice fluids’
355
“Why don’t you see type II in the United States”
356
‘After you deice with type IV and are performing a pre-takeoff check, what are you looking for’
357
‘After you deice with type IV you see some ice accumulation. Can you simply get more type IV’
358
‘After deicing, we takeoff with fluid adhering to t…ice fluid sticking to the wing but not loose snow’
359
‘Is the fluid hot or cold’
360
‘Can type IV be heated’
361
‘Why is each area of the holdover time have a range instead of just a time’
362
‘What are the variables that affect the holdover times’
363
‘What is the mixture of the fluids and can they be diluted’
364
‘What are the four elements that we must be given from the deicer’
365
‘Do we have to hear all four elements’
366
‘What is the representative surface and where is it normally’
367
‘Can the deicer start somewhere other than the left wing’
368
‘How does the weather service know if snow is light, moderate or heavy’
369
‘Can we depart after a holdover time’
370
‘What defines a contaminated runway’
371
‘What determines the level of contamination’
372
‘What is TAT, and why is it generally warmer than SAT’
373
“Why don’t we worry about ice when SAT is below -40°C”
374
‘Why do we turn cowls on at 10°C instead of at freezing level’
375
‘Can we taxi on a single-engine if ramps are not co…ed and temperature is 5°C and visibility is 1/4sm’
376
‘When do you need an alternate’
377
‘When do you need a second alternate.. What is marginal weather’
378
‘What is the amount of fuel on board where you must declare an emergency’
379
‘You have flown the CRJ as SIC for 500 hours and yo…ed to fly with an FO fresh off IOE. Is this legal’
380
‘You are a high mins Captain, and are scheduled to …ather is currently 002OVC and 1sm. Can you depart’
381
‘What are the limitations for a high mins FO’
382
‘What is the maximum crosswind for a regular FO’
383
‘Can we do circling approaches in the CRJ’
384
‘You are doing a circling approach into IDA. You ar…. Same scenario in LAX. Can you accept the visual’
385
‘How do we get MTOW (max takeoff weight).. Where is…. What is MINTO (minimum takeoff fuel) determined’
386
“You’re 150lbs overweight, what do you do”
387
‘When is a new release required’
388
‘What is the difference between obstacle and climb on takeoff data’
389
‘When is reduced thrust prohibited’
390
‘Why do we set trim for takeoff’
391
‘If the reduced thrust hash mark (slash) is not dep… Aerodata block is reduced thrust still available’
