KV Skywest Airlines 2022 Flashcards

1
Q

’Why does the Emergency/Parking Brake need to be on prior to starting the external inspection?’

A

‘To check the brake wear indicators. (SOPM Preflight)’

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2
Q

1

A

‘Just because the parking brake is on, does this gu…ulic pressure to check the Brake wear indicators?’

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3
Q

2

A

‘If the hydraulic pressure is depleted for the brak…it be restored prior to the external walk around?’

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4
Q

3

A

‘On the external inspection, you notice that the ai…What would be an appropriate action by the pilot?’

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5
Q

4

A

“Provide at least one other condition that would re…eing applied to the ADSP’s during the pre-flight?”

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6
Q

5

A

‘Use the pictorial walk around - Describe the preflight action for the Nose Landing Gear.’

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7
Q

6

A

‘What unique piece of equipment resides in the righ… Describe the SOPM external preflight of the RAT.’

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8
Q

7

A

‘What does the Oxygen Discharge Indicator look like in its normal condition?’

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9
Q

8

A

‘What is the proper preflight action of the Engine Inlet according to the SOPM?’

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10
Q

9

A

‘What is the proper preflight action of the Fan Blades according to the SOPM?’

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11
Q

10

A

‘Are there Nacelle Strakes on both sides of the engine?’

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12
Q

11

A

‘How many magnetic level indicators do we have to inspect on each wing?’

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13
Q

12

A

‘Describe the Main Landing Gear inspection.’

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14
Q

13

A

‘What document would you refer to regarding missing static discharges? Where is that located?’

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15
Q

14

A

‘Give at least two atmospheric conditions that require a cold weather preflight inspection.’

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16
Q

15

A

‘What checklist must be complete prior to starting the deice/anti-ice process?’

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17
Q

16

A

‘What is used in lieu of normal procedures Checklis…ice process through the Before Takeoff Checklist?’

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18
Q

17

A

‘What is the guidance the checklist provides regarding running the APU during deicing procedures?’

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19
Q

18

A

‘Are there different deice procedures for Engines off vs Engines Running?’

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20
Q

19

A

‘Are the Deice/Anti-ice Communication Elements required? Where are they found?’

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21
Q

20

A

‘List two required communications elements from the COMMUNICATION ELEMENTS TABLE. GDPM’

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22
Q

21

A

‘When does the Holdover Time (HOT) begin?’

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23
Q

22

A

‘What does the HOT represent?’

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24
Q

23

A

‘In a HOT table what do the longer and shorter times represent?’

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25
Q

24

A

‘What should a crew use to determine precipitation …tensities in order to accurately establish a HOT?’

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26
Q

25

A

‘Can the HOT be used as the sole determinant that a…ritical surfaces are free of frozen contaminants.’

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27
Q

26

A

‘What are two factors that influence the effectiveness of deicing/anti-icing fluid?’

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28
Q

27

A

“Can parking in the proximity of another aircraft’s…ndering the HOT invalid or the fluid ineffective?”

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29
Q

28

A

‘List two precipitation types that HOTs do not exist for;’

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30
Q

29

A

‘When is a Pre-takeoff check conducted?’

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31
Q

30

A

‘What is checked as part of the pre-takeoff check?’

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32
Q

31

A

‘What should the crew do if they are unable to dete…ntative surface is free from frozen contaminants?’

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33
Q

32

A

‘When is a pre-takeoff contamination check conducted?’

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34
Q

33

A

‘Can the pre-takeoff contamination check be perform…ation other that the wings, say the tail perhaps?’

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35
Q

34

A

‘Is there ever a case where the aircraft can depart…zen contaminants on any of the critical surfaces?’

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36
Q

35

A

‘RWY ACARS LENGTH PMTOW EFP NOTES\n09 8280 7685 RT H…crew initiate the right turn to a heading of 240?’

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37
Q

36

A

‘RWY ACARS LENGTH PMTOW EFP NOTES\n09 8280 7685 RT H240\nHow long should a crew fly this heading?’

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38
Q

37

A

‘How does a Simple Special Engine Failure Takeoff Path differ from the above Standard Engine Failure?’

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39
Q

38

A

‘——— SPECIAL ENG FAIL TAKEOFF PROCEDURES ———\nRWY CL…what speed does the above procedure have you fly?’

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40
Q

39

A

‘Why is nothing listed under VIA?’

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41
Q

40

A

‘What is the engine failure turn point for 19L in KSFO?’

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42
Q

41

A

‘When reaching the OAK VOR in the above procedure, what should the crew do?’

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43
Q

42

A

‘Can a crew legally depart KSFO RW 19L if the OAK VOR is out of service?’

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44
Q

43

A

“In the FOM’s landing performance hierarchy - When … should be used to determine landing performance?”

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45
Q

44

A

‘When CCs are unavailable, what should be used to determine landing performance?’

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46
Q

45

A

‘If RwyCC values for the same runway are different,…lue is used when performing a landing assessment?’

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47
Q

46

A

‘Are RwyCCs bidirectional?’

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48
Q

47

A

‘Use the flight release METAR and planned landing w…s the MIN LDG DIST - FLAPS 5 - NO THR REV CREDIT?’

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49
Q

48

A

‘What does TALPA stand for?’

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50
Q

49

A

‘What is RCAM?’

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51
Q

50

A

‘What percentage of the runway surface needs to be covered for the runway to be contaminated?’

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52
Q

51

A

‘What does the RwyCC represent?’

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53
Q

52

A

‘What are RwyCCs used for?’

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54
Q

53

A

‘A RwyCC value of 0 represents what type of BA?’

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55
Q

54

A

‘How long can a FICON NOTAM be in effect?’

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56
Q

55

A

‘What should a pilot do when they believe a NOTAM does not accurately reflect current conditions?’

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57
Q

56

A

‘When powering-up the aircraft, what minimum voltag… you need to perform the SOPM charging procedure?’

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58
Q

57

A

‘After the EICAS is powered, how long must we wait before APU start?’

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59
Q

58

A

‘Can takeoff/landing occur with the “FUEL IMBALANCE” EICAS message?’

60
Q

59

A

“What’s the minimum fuel tank temperature?”

61
Q

60

A

‘What is the starter cranking limit for start attempts 1 and 2?’

62
Q

61

A

‘Minimum time between starts 1 and 2?’

63
Q

62

A

‘How do the starter cranking limits change in flight?’

64
Q

63

A

‘During an engine start, we must see N1 rotation by what N2?’

65
Q

64

A

“A taxiway is NOTAM’d closed to aircraft with wings…n over 100’. What is the wingspan of the ERJ-175?”

66
Q

65

A

‘For takeoff, what is the maximum brake temperature?’

67
Q

66

A

‘What is maximum tailwind component allowed for takeoff?’

68
Q

67

A

‘Are static takeoffs recommended with a crosswind component greater than 25 kts. Why?’

69
Q

68

A

‘After takeoff, when can the autopilot be engaged?’

70
Q

69

A

‘What is the minimum runway width allowable?’

71
Q

70

A

‘ATC reports moderate and possibly greater turbulen…tration speed? Is it a target or a maximum speed?’

72
Q

71

A

‘An IDG fails in flight, and the QRH instructs you …tart the APU. What is the maximum start altitude?’

73
Q

72

A

‘Minimum OAT for APU start and operation?’

74
Q

73

A

‘Maximum APU operation altitude (after start)?’

75
Q

74

A

‘What is the maximum crosswind (crew limit) for a dry runway?’

76
Q

75

A

‘What is the maximum crosswind (crew limit) for a wet runway?’

77
Q

76

A

‘What is the maximum gear extension/retraction/operation speed?’

78
Q

77

A

‘If flying a CAT II approach, what flap setting is required?’

79
Q

78

A

‘What is the maximum wiper speed?’

80
Q

79

A

‘True/False: We can use RNAV (GPS) LP minima.’

81
Q

80

A

‘When approaching flaps full, what is the go-around flaps setting?’

82
Q

81

A

‘Can you attempt a go-around after deployment of the thrust reversers?’

83
Q

82

A

‘True/False: Precision approaches are recommended, when available.’

84
Q

83

A

‘Do the controls and throttles need to be guarded d…ding when the auto-flight system is engaged? Why?’

85
Q

84

A

‘Is it permissible to turn the Landing lights off w…on an approach in IMC if they pose a distraction?’

86
Q

85

A

‘Is it recommended that the PM call out any observed deviations while on approach?’

87
Q

86

A

“What is the PF’s verbal response after immediately correcting a deviation on approach to landing?”

88
Q

87

A

“What is the PM’s deviation callout with a descent rate > 1,000 ft/min on approach to landing?”

89
Q

88

A

‘What magnitude of deviation from glide path requires a call out by the PM? What is the SOPM callout?’

90
Q

89

A

‘When are speed deviation callouts required on approach to landing? What is the callout?’

91
Q

90

A

“On an approach, what bank angle would be considered a deviation? What is the PM’s callout?”

92
Q

91

A

‘What is the responsibility of the PM if the EGPWS fails to make callouts automatically?’

93
Q

92

A

‘It is critical to a safe operation that pilots meet stabilized approach criteria by what altitude.’

94
Q

93

A

‘What is the maximum speed allowed above target on …ould the PM callout if the PF exceeds this speed?’

95
Q

94

A

‘What is the latest position on the approach to pla…s there a planned speed at this position as well?’

96
Q

95

A

“What speed is mandatory by 500’ on approach to landing? What thrust setting?”

97
Q

96

A

“If any of the planned parameters are not met on ap…or below 500’ AGL, what is the PM required to do?”

98
Q

97

A

‘When would you declare Minimum Fuel? What does a Minimum Fuel declaration communicate to ATC?’

99
Q

98

A

‘When would you declare an Emergency for Fuel? How does the Emergency effect your ATC handling?’

100
Q

99

A

‘On the white board place the crew in a hold (unanticipated threat) prior to the TOD.’

101
Q

100

A

‘Use previous white board example. The destination …affic saturated and no longer accepting arrivals.’

102
Q

101

A

“What is the planned landing fuel for today’s flight?”

103
Q

102

A

‘What can cause the FMS landing fuel calculations to be inaccurate?’

104
Q

103

A

“You’re sitting at the gate when a BATT 1 OVERTEMP …How do you verify that this action was effective?”

105
Q

104

A

“You’re starting an engine and notice that the ITT … What temperature is redline, and what do you do?”

106
Q

105

A

‘On taxi to the runway, the airplane begins veering…What might you do? (STEERING RUNAWAY memory item)’

107
Q

106

A

‘Shortly after takeoff, the cockpit starts filling … this procedure located in the QRH, what section?’

108
Q

107

A

“You’re flying in cruise at FL350 when you hear the…e CABIN ALTITUDE HI on the EICAS. What do you do?”

109
Q

108

A

“You’re flying in cruise when the autopilot disconn…ol pressure. What do you do? (PITCH TRIM RUNAWAY)”

110
Q

109

A

“You’re flying at cruise when the autopilot disconn… the aileron controls are jammed. What do you do?”

111
Q

110

A

‘What if it was the elevator (pitch) that was jammed?’

112
Q

111

A

“You’re flying in cruise when the autopilot disconn… What do you do? What if it was the aileron trim?”

113
Q

112

A

‘The majority of commercial aviation accidents have been caused by what?’

114
Q

113

A

‘What four principle CRM skills is SkyWest choosing to focus on?’

115
Q

114

A

‘List 3 of the 5 CRM issues that are included in nearly every SkyWest ASAP report.’

116
Q

115

A

‘The FOM lists 4 tools to mitigate distraction, explain two of them.’

117
Q

116

A

‘Does the FOM require briefings to include anticipa…our plan to mitigate distractions during the LOE?’

118
Q

117

A

‘What is tunneling and how does it contribute to a loss of situational awareness?’

119
Q

118

A

‘What CRM skill is severely diminished during tunneling?’

120
Q

119

A

‘What common error do pilots make during high workload situations in regard to personal ability?’

121
Q

120

A

‘Name 4 common cues of task saturation observed through ASAP, LOSA, and FOQA.’

122
Q

121

A

‘How many of the CRM issues that are included in ne…above) are a potential result of task saturation?’

123
Q

122

A

‘Name the saturation “Condition” that best describe…ised and flight path management is deteriorating.’

124
Q

123

A

‘What action should be employed when a pilot realizes they are “in the Yellow”?’

125
Q

124

A

‘What key component must be included in visual appr…hen the 10-7 contains E-GPWS Warning information?’

126
Q

125

A

‘Can the above mentioned be joined inside the final approach fix?’

127
Q

126

A

‘OTS stands for what? What color is the information bar for OTS flights?’

128
Q

127

A

‘If a discrepancy is written up in FltView while en…ld be selected, the departure or arrival airport?’

129
Q

128

A

‘Does an entry into FltView eliminate the need to call in the discrepancy?’

130
Q

129

A

“A submitted discrepancy should immediately change … doesn’t turn red immediately what should you do?”

131
Q

130

A

‘If ACARS is inoperative can a weight and balance be calculated? Can this be used for departure?’

132
Q

131

A

‘Can the Manifest Applet be used if AeroData is unavailable or if there is no connectivity?’

133
Q

132

A

‘What additional requirement does the crew have whe…ompleting an offline manifest prior to departure?’

134
Q

133

A

‘Where can instructions for completing a manifest using the applet be found?’

135
Q

134

A

‘Can Takeoff numbers be accessed via ACARS if the A/C is OTS?’

136
Q

135

A

‘Have you ever read the Fliteview user guide?’

137
Q

136

A

‘The PIC reports mechanical irregularities to maintenance how?’

138
Q

137

A

‘When a mechanical irregularity is discovered after… is authorized to continue under what conditions?’

139
Q

138

A

‘When the PDC says climb via SID and the SIDs top a…what altitude do you set in the altitude alerter?’

140
Q

139

A

‘What does the SOPM require crews do prior to the d…ture briefing with regard to the flight plan/FMS?’

141
Q

140

A

‘Is it acceptable to accomplish the above individually?’

142
Q

141

A

‘I wonder if this will be a point of emphasis on your CQ LOE.’

143
Q

142

A

‘Does a checklist need to be started over from the beginning when interrupted?’

144
Q

143

A

‘What altitude above touchdown-zone requires the AC…Vap, as well as on lateral and vertical profiles?’

145
Q

144

A

“Considering the above question, isn’t okay to cont…ong as everything is done and stable by 500’ HAT?”