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SKV Flashcards

1
Q

General
Q1. What turns on the emergency lighting system? (AOM II 1-51)

A

Loss of DC Power (DC Bus 4)

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2
Q

General
Q2. Fully charged emergency lighting batteries should provide light for how long? (AOM II 1-51)

A

15 Minutes

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3
Q

General
Q3. What is the wingspan of the B747-400? (AOM II 1-1)

A

211’5” or 64.4 meters

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4
Q

General
Q4. When are the landing lights at their max intensity? (AOM II 1-28)

A

When the Landing Gear lever is in the DOWN position

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5
Q

General
Q5. What is the purpose of the flight deck access lights? (AOM II 1-25)

A

To gain access to the flight deck with the Ground Handling Bus powered

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6
Q

General
Q6. When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT signs automatically illuminate regardless of switch position? (AOM II 1-49)

A

When the supernumerary oxygen is ON

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7
Q

General
Q7. What is the advantage of selecting LWR (lower) on the beacon light switch? (AOM II 1-29)

A

Upper Lights won’t flash during low visibility

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8
Q

General
Q8. What is the turning radius with Body Gear steering armed? (AOM II 1-2)

A

The minimum runway width for a 180* turn is 153’ or 46.6m with body gear (158’ w/out body gear)

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9
Q

General
Q9. Where is the emergency equipment located on the BCF? (AOM II 1-650

A

Bulkhead just forward of the Left Upper Deck Door

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10
Q

General
Q10. The escape rope at door L1 is located where? (AOM II 1-67)

A

In the upper door sill

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11
Q

General
Q11. Bleed Air is used in what systems? (AOM II 2-34)

A

PAWS HAD SALT
P - pressurization
A - air conditioning
W - water pressurization (Potable)
S - smoke detection (Cargo Compartment)
H - hydraulic reservoir pressurization
A - aft cargo heat
D - demand pumps (air driven hydraulics) (GE: 1&4, PW: ALL)
S - starters (engines)
A - anti-ice (wing & engines)
L - leading edge flaps
T - thrust reversers

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12
Q

General
Q12. Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? Up to what altitude? (AOM II 7-36)

A

Yes, for one pack only…up to 15000’

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13
Q

General
Q13. Turning an “Engine Bleed” switch off does what? (AOM II 2-13, 2-34)

A

Closes:
- Engine Bleed Air Valve
- Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV)(will open back up for NAI (Nacelle Anti-ice) or Thrust Reverse)
- High Pressure Valve (HP Valve)(will open back up for Thrust Reverse)

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14
Q

General
Q14. If the switch is off, is Nacelle Anti-ice still available for that engine? Thrust Reverse? (AOM II 2-35)

A

A. YES, NAI is still available, unless
- PRV failed closed
- HP bleed valve failed OPEN
- PRV closed automatically as a result of a bleed air overheat
- Engine start valve has NOT closed

B. Yes, Thrust Reverse is still available, unless
- PRV failed closed
- PRV closed automatically as a result of a bleed air overheat
- Engine start valve has NOT closed

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15
Q

General
Q15. What will illuminate the (bleed air) SYS FAULT light? (AOM II 2-12)

A
  • Bleed Air Overheat
  • Bleed Air Overpressure
  • HP Bleed valve open when commanded closed
  • PRV open when commanded closed
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16
Q

General
Q16. With the SYS FAULT light illuminated, is reversing available on landing? (AOM II 2-35)

A

Yes, unless light is on due to an overheat

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17
Q

General
Q17. What unit in the bleed air system reduces bleed air temperature? (AOM II 2-34)

A

Fan Air Pre-Cooler

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18
Q

General
Q18. With a BLEED 1,2,3,4 OVHT/PRV what systems are no longer available? (QRH 2-3, AOM II 2-39, 2-35)

A
  • Nacelle Anti-ice
  • Reverse Thrust
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19
Q

General
Q19. APU Bleed Air is supplied to which duct? (AOM II 2-37)

A

Center section of the bleed air duct

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20
Q

General
Q20. Where is the duct pressure displayed? (AOM II 2-14, 2-16)

A
  • Primary EICAS
  • ECS Synoptic
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21
Q

Anti-ice/Rain Protection
Q21. What areas receive anti-ice protection? (AOM II 3-5)

A
  • Engine Nacelle
  • Wings
  • Windshield
  • Probe Heat (AOA x 2, Pitot-Static x 4, TAT x 2)
  • Ice Detection
  • Flight deck window heat
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22
Q

Anti-ice/Rain Protection
Q22. Under what weather conditions is NAI required to be on? (AOM I L-19)

A

When the OAT (on ground) or TAT (in flight) is 10*C or below, and visible moisture is present, such as:
- clouds
- fog with visibility less than 1SM
- Rain, Snow, ice crystals
- Ramps/taxiways/runways with snow/ice/slush/standing water

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23
Q

Anti-ice/Rain Protection
Q23. Are the TAT probes heated? When? (AOM II 3-9)

A

Yes, in-flight only

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24
Q

Anti-ice/Rain Protection
Q24. What indications do we have that NAI is on? WAI? (AOM II 3-6, 3-7)

A

NAI displayed to the left of the vertical N1 display; WAI at the bottom of the N1 displays, between #1 & #2 or #3 & #4

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25
Q

Anti-ice/Rain Protection
Q25. What section of the wing is anti-iced? (AOM II 3-7)

A

The leading edge (Mid & Outboard

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26
Q

Anti-ice/Rain Protection
Q26. At Flaps 5, what portion of the leading edge is being de-iced with WAI on? (AOM II 3-7)

A

NONE, Leading edge anti-icing is INEFFECTIVE with flaps extended

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27
Q

Anti-ice/Rain Protection
Q27. Which windows provide anti-ice and anti-fogging protection? (AOM II 3-9)

A

All flight deck windows are electrically heated
- the FORWARD windows have both Exterior surface “anti-icing” and Interior surface “anti-fogging” protection
- the SIDE windows have Interior surface “anti-fogging” protection only

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28
Q

Anti-ice/Rain Protection
Q28. When is anti-fogging available to the window? (AOM II 3-9)

A

Anytime the aircraft is powered (the switch for each side is by the respective pilot’s oxygen mask)

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29
Q

Anti-ice/Rain Protection
Q29. How do we reset a windshield heat controller fault? (AOM II 3-9)

A

Turn the window heat switches off for 10 seconds, then back on

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30
Q

Anti-ice/Rain Protection
Q30. Where is the windshield washer fluid reservoir located? (AOM II 3-4, 3-9)

A

Behind the door in the book storage area, over the captain’s left shoulder

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31
Q

Communications System
Q31. What is the purpose of the OBS (Observer) Audio System switch on the overhead panel? (AOM II 5-8)

A

If Captain or FO ACP (Audio Control Panel) is inoperative, allows their audio to be controlled with the Observer’s ACP

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32
Q

Communications System
Q32. When illuminated, what does the Offside Tuning Light indicate? (AOM II 5-21)

A
  • The lighted radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this radio tuning panel
  • The radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel
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33
Q

Communications System
Q33. How many VHF radios are installed? (AOM II 5-22)

A

3 (L, C, R)

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34
Q

Communications System
Q34. With 121.5 selected on the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off? (AOM II 5-2)

A

No, (but volume can be turned all the way down)

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35
Q

Communications System
Q35. How can you monitor for an IM signal during a CAT II approach? (AOM II 5-2)

A

On ACP, select MKR and push volume knob

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36
Q

Communications System
Q36. How can we tune DATA into the C VHF? (AOM II 5-2)

A

Dial above 136.000 or below 118.000 on the big knob and select transfer

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37
Q

Communications System
Q37. How is the oxygen mask microphone operation verified during preflight? (AOM I NP-32)

A
  • Select FLT microphone on the ACP
  • Speaker ON
  • Select Push to Test on O2 panel along with EMER knob
  • Simultaneously press a PTT button (glare shield, yoke, ACP…)
  • On certain aircraft, you must also select OXY on ACP and turn back to BOOM afterwards
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38
Q

Communications System
Q38. What should be seen when pushing the cockpit voice recorder test button? (AOM I NP-25)

A

Pulsating indications on meter

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39
Q

Communications System
Q39. How many PTT switches are in the cockpit? (AOM II 5-21)

A

7-10 depending on the aircraft (glare shield x 2, yoke x 2, ACP x 3, hand mic x 3)

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40
Q

Communications System
Q40. Selecting the SERV interphone switch to ON does what? (AOM II 5-28)

A

Connects ground crew stations around the aircraft to the Flight Intercom

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41
Q

Electrical System
Q41. What does IDG stand for? (AOM II 6-10)

A

Integrated Drive Generator

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42
Q

Electrical System
Q42. How many AC Power sources are available to the aircraft? (AOM II 6-10)

A

8 (4-IDGs, 2-APU Gens, 2-External Power receptacles)

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43
Q

Electrical System
Q43. What turns on an IDG Drive light? (AOM II 6-6)

A
  • High Oil Temp
  • Low Oil Pressure
  • Uncontrolled Frequency Fault
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44
Q

Electrical System
Q44. What is the purpose of the Utility Buses? (AOM II 6-13)

A

Load shedding controlled by the Electrical Load Control Unit (ELCU)

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45
Q

Electrical System
Q45. What busses are powered with #1 and #2 external power AVAILABLE but NOT ON? (AOM II 6-14)

A
  • Ground Handling Bus (when APU 1 or EXT 1 “ON” or “AVAIL”)
  • Main Deck Cargo Handling Bus (when APU 2 or EXT 2 “ON” or “AVAIL”)
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46
Q

Electrical System
Q46. What bus normally powers the SERVICE Bus? Is there an alternate means to power the bus? (AOM II 6-12)

A
  • AC Bus 1 is normal source
  • Can be powered by Ground Handling Bus by pushing the L1 Door “Ground Service” switch
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47
Q

Electrical System
Q47. The APU and MAIN STBY buses are normally powered from which bus? (AOM II 6-12, 6-13, 6-22)

A
  • MAIN STBY BUS: AC BUS 3
  • APU STBY BUS: AC BUS 3 via CAPT TRANSFER BUS
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48
Q

Electrical System
Q48. With the loss of the #3 AC Bus, the APU STBY Bus is powered from which source? (AOM II 6-15, 6-22)

A
  • AC BUS 1 (via CAPT TRANSFER BUS)
  • APU STBY INVERTER via APU HOT BAT BUS (if both AC bus 3 and AC bus 1 fail)
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49
Q

Electrical System
Q49. How can I isolate the #4 DCIR (DC Isolation Relay)? (AOM II 6-20)

A

De-select the #4 Bus Tie switch

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50
Q

Electrical System
Q50. What will power the Main Deck Cargo Handling Bus with #2 External available and #2 APU generator available? (AOM II 6-14)

A

2 Ext Power

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51
Q

Engines/APU
Q51. What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch? (AOM I NP-30)

A

16 quarts

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52
Q

Engines/APU
Q52. If EGT limit is exceeded, what is indicated? On Takeoff? (AOM II 7-4, 7-25, 7-26)

A

A. Depends on which EGT limit has been exceeded:
- START LIMIT (red line) - EGT vertical indicator, digital value, and box turn red
- MAX CONTINUOUS LIMIT (amber line) - EGT vertical indicator, digital value, and box turn amber
- TO LIMIT (red line) - EGT vertical indicator, digital value, and box turns red

B. On Takeoff: Indication remains white during TO and GA for five minutes (after TOGA is pushed) even though continuous EGT limit is reached. For Pratts indication remains white for ten minutes (according to CPAT)

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53
Q

Engines/APU-
Q53. The amber line on the N1 indicator represents what? (AOM II 7-26)

A
  • Maximum N1; N1 overboost limit (EEC in norm)
  • The red line indicates operating limit
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54
Q

Engines/APU
Q54. What valves are controlled by the fuel control switch? (AOM II 7-18)

A

Spar and Engine Fuel Valves

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55
Q

Engines/APU
Q55. When will Standby Ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM? (AOM II 7-32)

A

With loss of AC power (Standby Ignition just ensures a standby power source to the igniters, does not turn on igniters)

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56
Q

Engines/APU
Q56. When will continuous ignition (igniters) come on automatically? (AOM II 7-32)

A

Normally Single Igniter:
- NAI select ON
- Flaps out of UP
- N2 below 50% during ground engine start

Normally Dual Igniter
- Engine Flameout/In-flight Start

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57
Q

Engines/APU
Q57. What protections are provided by the EEC? (AOM II 7-28)

A

Overspeed and Overboost

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58
Q

Engines/APU
Q58. When is approach idle active? (AOM II 7-28)

A
  • NAI selected on
  • Flaps in landing position
  • Continuous Ignition Switch selected ON

NFI

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59
Q

Engines/APU
Q59. With the APU running, turning off the APU selector does what? (AOM II 7-22)

A
  • Closes APU bleed air isolation valve
  • Initiates normal shutdown (60 second cool down cycle)
  • Resets auto shutdown fault logic (except when shutdown due to APU bleed duct leak)
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60
Q

Engines/APU
Q60. What are the five thrust references selectable from the CDU? (AOM II 7-2)

A
  • TO (take off)
  • CLB (climb)
  • CRZ (cruise)
  • CON (continuous)
  • GA (go around)
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61
Q

Fire Protection
Q61. How many fire bottles are on the BCF (Boeing Converted Freighter) or F (purpose built Freighter)? (AOM II 8-10, 8-11)

A

BCF - 2 per wing, 6 cargo and 1 APU (11)

F - 2 per wing, 4 cargo and 1 APU (9)

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62
Q

Fire Protection
Q62. After a fire test pass, what two systems are no longer being monitored by the aircraft? (AOM II 8-12)

A
  • Wheel Well
  • Leading Edge Duct

(Question means monitoring the loop for a fault - will still detect a bleed leak/wheel well fire)

63
Q

Fire Protection
Q63. With the engine fuel switch in run, can the fire switch be pulled? (AOM II 8-1)

A

The fire switch is locked with the Fuel Control Switch in Run, but it will be unlocked by:

  • Pressing the mechanical release switch
  • a fire warning signal (actual or test)
64
Q

Fire Protection
Q64. Pulling the #1 ENGINE FIRE SWITCH does what? (AOM II 8-1)

A
  • Closes Bleed Air Valve
  • Arms the Squib
  • Closes the Hydraulic Shutoff Valve
  • Depressurizes the Hydraulic Pump
  • Closes Engine and Spar Fuel Valves
  • Trips Generator Field

BAC DFG

65
Q

Fire Protection
Q65. With a main cargo fire, arming the Main Deck fire switch does what? (AOM II 8-4, 8-11)

A

Enables main deck fire suppression by turning off airflow to the main deck, and all airflow & heat into lower cargo compartments, including:

  • Turns off two packs (remaining pack goes to low flow for upper deck)
  • Configures Equipment Cooling to “CLOSED LOOP”
  • Closes Master Trim Air Valve
66
Q

Fire Protection
Q66. With a lower FWD cargo fire, pressing the cargo fire discharge switch does what? How many minutes of protection is provided? (AOM II 8-4, 8-11)

A
  • Discharges 2 bottles immediately
  • Remaining 2-4 bottles (tail dependent) begin to meter flow after 30 minutes or upon landing (whichever occurs first)
  • Gives 334 minutes of protection (180 minutes on the ERF)
67
Q

Fire Protection
Q67. Are the engine fire loops an AND or OR logic system? (AOM II 8-8)

A

AND

  • but reverts to OR when configured for single loop operation due to a fault
  • the APU fire detection loops operate on OR logic
68
Q

Fire Protection
Q68. What fire protection do we have in the wheel well? (AOM II 8-10)

A

NONE

69
Q

Fire Protection
Q69. How many overheat loops are installed for the APU? (AOM II 8-9)

A

NONE (just fire warning)

70
Q

Fire Protection
Q70. Where is the APU ground control panel located? (AOM II 8-7)

A

Right Body Gear Wheel Well

71
Q

Flight Controls
Q71. The stabilizer is powered from what hydraulic systems? (AOM II 9-16)

A

2 & 3

72
Q

Flight Controls
Q72. What is the AUTO position of the STAB Trim Cutout switch for? (AOM II 9-16)

A

Allows auto cutoff if UNSCHEDULED stab trim is detected

73
Q

Flight Controls
Q73. When are the Stab Trim switches on the control wheel inhibited? (AOM II 9-17)

A

Multiple autopilots engaged

74
Q

Flight Controls
Q74. When do the outboard ailerons unlock? (AOM II 9-18)

A

Flaps out of up OR airspeed low (lock with flaps up AND airspeed high)

75
Q

Flight Controls
Q75. With the speed brake in ARM, when do the speed brakes deploy on landing? Not Armed? (AOM II 9-22)

A

ARMED
- Thrust Levers 1 AND 3 near the CLOSED position
- Main Gear touchdown switch

NOT ARMED
- Thrust Levers 1 AND 3 near the CLOSED position
- Main Gear touchdown switch
- Reverse Levers 2 AND 4 reverse idle

76
Q

Flight Controls
Q76. What flap protection is provided in secondary mode? (AOM II 9-25)

A

TEF ASYMMETRY ONLY (not flap load relief)

77
Q

Flight Controls
Q77. What will occur if the Trailing Edge Flap (TEF) group is in the secondary mode with hydraulic pressure available? (AOM II 9-24)

A

TEF will be driven electronically instead of hydraulically (much slower). They will remain in secondary mode until fully retracted.

  • Leading Edge Flaps (LEF): Stay in secondary mode until reaching selected position
  • TEF: If in Secondary Mode due to loss of hydraulic pressure, they will switch back to primary mode as soon as hydraulic pressure is restored. But, since the question said that they were in secondary mode “with” hydraulic pressure available, it must have been some other fault
78
Q

Flight Controls
Q78. In the alternate control mode, how is flap extension sequenced? (AOM II 9-25)

A
  • All Leading and Trailing Edge Flap groups begin to extend immediately (simultaneously)
  • TEF extend to a maximum position of flaps 25
  • During retraction, all LEF groups retract after the inboard TEF are completely retracted
79
Q

Flight Controls
Q79. On Landing, why does the flap position indicator change from green to magenta? (AOM II 9-25)

A

Due to inboard and mid-span LEF retracting when reverse thrust is commanded

80
Q

Flight Controls
Q80. What is the max altitude for flap extension? (AOM I L-16)

A

FL200

81
Q

Flight Instruments
Q81. When is the pitch limit indicator displayed on the PFD and what is its purpose? (AOM II 10-5)

A

Displayed: when flaps are out of UP

Purpose: stick shaker activation point

82
Q

Flight Instruments
Q82. What is/are the input source(s) for the command speed display on the PFD? (AOMII 10-2)

A
  • Speed set on Mode Control Panel (MCP) (when window is open)
  • FMC computed speed (when window is blanked)
83
Q

Flight Instruments
Q83. What identifies the active way point on the ND? (AOM II 10-69)

A

Magenta Star

84
Q

Flight Instruments
Q84. The altitude range arc (“green arc”) displays what information? (AOMII 10-69)

A

Indicates where MCP altitude will be reached based on current vertical speed and ground speed

85
Q

Flight Instruments
Q85a. WRX on the EFIS control panel, displays what information? (AOM II 10-29)

A

WRX: powers the radar transceivers selected on the center console WX radar control panel, displays radar returns on the respective ND and deselects TERR

Modes: MAP, MAP CTR, VOR and APP

86
Q

Flight Instruments
Q85b. STA on the EFIS control panel, displays what information? (AOM II 10-29)

A

STA: Displays VORs according to range
- <=40NM - High and Low VORs
- >=80NM - High VORs only

Modes: MAP and MAP CTR

87
Q

Flight Instruments
Q85c. WPT on the EFIS control panel, displays what information? (AOM II 10-29)

A

WPT: Displays waypoints when ND range selector is 40NM or less

Modes: MAP and MAP CTR

88
Q

Flight Instruments
Q85d. ARPT on the EFIS control panel, displays what information? (AOM II 10-29)

A

ARPT: In MAP and MAP CTR modes, displays airports in all ranges (airports with runways longer than 6000’)

Modes: MAP and MAP CTR

89
Q

Flight Instruments
Q85e. DATA on the EFIS control panel, displays what information? (AOM II 10-29)

A

DATA: Displays FMC ETA and any altitude constraints at each waypoint

Modes: MAP, MAP CTR, and PLAN

90
Q

Flight Instruments
Q85f. POS on the EFIS control panel, displays what information? (AOM II 10-29)

A

POS: Displays navigational inputs, including:
- VOR: displays raw data radials from the VORs tuned on the NAVRAD page, extending from nose of airplane
1. WITH DME, radial ends at VOR
2. W/OUT DME, radial ends at VOR
- IRU: displays position of each IRU with a snowflake symbol
- GPS: displays GPS position

Modes: MAP and MAP CTR

91
Q

Flight Instruments
Q85g. TERR on the EFIS control panel, displays what information? (AOM II 10-29)

A

TERR: Displays GPWS look-ahead terrain data and deselects WX radar
- GREEN - terrain 500’ to 2000’ below aircraft altitude
- AMBER - terrian 500’ below to 2000’ above aircraft altitude
- RED - terrain > 2000’ above aircraft altitude

Modes: MAP, MAP CTR, VOR, and APP

92
Q

Flight Instruments
Q86. If the Captain’s INDB and LWR (EICAS) CRT is inoperative, how and where could the HYD synoptic information be displayed? (AOM II 10-32)

A

On First Officer’s ND by selecting EICAS on INBD CRT knob

93
Q

Flight Instruments
Q87. In what ND mode will weather radar not be displayed? (AOM II 10-29)

A

PLAN, VOR CTR and APPR CTR

94
Q

Flight Instruments
Q88. What indicates a route modification on the ND? (AOM II 10-69)

A

A white dashed line

95
Q

Flight Instruments
Q89. The standby horizon is powered from what source? (AOM II 10-51)

A

Main Battery Bus

96
Q

Flight Instruments
Q90. When will the G/S and LOC indicators/scales display and when will they fill to a solid magenta? (AOM II 10-9, 10-10)

A

Display: When signal is received (frequency tuned and identified)

Solid: When within 2 1/3 dots from center

97
Q

Fuel
Q91. What is the maximum amount of fuel we can carry (in pounds) with a fuel density of 6.7lbs per gallon? (AOM II 12-9)

A

359,414 lbs

98
Q

Fuel
Q92a. With the aircraft completely full of fuel, discuss the different fuel configurations, beginning with engine start through landing? (AOM II 12-14)

GROUND

A

AFTER ENGINE START
- CWT pumps were selected on before start because there was more than 17,000lbs in the CWT. All engines are fed from the CWT by the CWT Override/Jettison pumps through the cross-feed manifold
- The 2&3 Main Tank Override/Jettison pumps are ARMED because the CWT Override/Jettison pumps are on. All main tank boost pumps are on, but overridden by the higher pressure from the CWT

SETTIN T/O FLAPS
- Cross-feed valves 2&3 close with system logic. Engines 1&4 are fed from the CWT by the CWT Override/Jettison pumps. Engine 2&3 are fed from their respective main tanks by their respective main tank boost pumps. The Main Tank Override/Jettison pumps remain ARMED because CWT Override/Jettison pumps are on.

99
Q

Fuel
Q92b. With the aircraft completely full of fuel, discuss the different fuel configurations, beginning with engine start through landing? (AOM II 12-14)

CLIMB

A

FLAPS UP
- System logic opens 2&3 cross-feed valves. All engines are once again fed by the CWT Override/Jettison pumps out of CWT

<7000lbs in CWT During Climb
- This condition is rare and will only occur when departing with not much more than 17,000 in the CWT. The fuel pooled in the back of the CWT while the pumps are near the front, and we don’t want them to cavitate. The EICAS message >FUEL LOW CTR L/R comes on, and we turn off the CWT pumps. The ARMED main tank 2&3 Override/Jettison pumps turn on, and feed all four engines through the cross-feed manifold

100
Q

Fuel
Q92c. With the aircraft completely full of fuel, discuss the different fuel configurations, beginning with engine start through landing? (AOM II 12-14)

Cruise

A

> 4000lbs of Fuel in CWT: (if previous step was accomplished during climb) The EICAS message FUEL OVD CTR L/R displays after the aircraft levels off and accelerates (pitch <5*), directing us to turn the CWT override/jettison pumps back on.

<3000lbs of Fuel in CWT: The message >FUEL LOW CTR L/R displays on EICAS. CWT pumps must be turned back off. That 3000lbs remain in the CWT for several hours. Override/Jettison pumps from Main Tanks 2&3 feed all four engines through the cross-feed manifold. Engines 1&2 receive fuel from the #2 Main Tank and Engines 3&4 receive fuel from the #3 Main Tank (due to proximity to the pump - the two sides are not isolated from each other)

Note: FUEL FLOW messages are normal and mean the tank is running dry. FUEL PRESS messages mean something is wrong with the pump.

<40200lbs is the Inboard Main Tanks:
- Reserve Tanks 2&3 begin to transfer to Main Tanks 2&3. Transfer valves stay open for the remainder of the flight.
- The CWT scavenges pump activates to salvage the remaining 3000lbs (transferred to Main Tank #2). It will run for 120 minutes or until low pressure is sensed.

All Main Tank Quantities are Approximately Even (29000 +/-1000lbs): EICAS message >FUEL TANK/ENG displays. Select Override/Jettison pumps off and then close 1&4 crossfeed valves, in that order (the EICAS message will blank upon closing the crossfeed valves, even if you forget to turn off the Override pumps). The aircraft is in “tank-to-engine” configuration with the Main Tank Boost Pumps feeding each engine from its respective tank for the rest of the flight.

101
Q

Fuel
Q93. How do we and what happens when we jettison fuel? (QRH 12-5 AOM II 12-2)

A

A. Consideration
B. Select Jettison Controller A or B
C. Calculate desired “Fuel to Remain” and set by rotating knob
D. Raise guard and push Fuel Jettison Nozzle L/R switches on
E. During Jettison
F. Completion of Jettison

102
Q

Fuel
Q93a. How do we and what happens when we jettison fuel? (QRH 12-5 AOM II 12-2)

Considerations

A
  • Notify ATC
  • Minimum altitude for jettison is 6000’ or above (ensure no traffic below)
  • Do not jettison with flaps in transit between Flaps 1 and Flaps 5
103
Q

Fuel
Q93b. How do we and what happens when we jettison fuel? (QRH 12-5 AOM II 12-2)

Select Jettison Controller A or B

A
  • “Fuel to Remain” will replace fuel temperature on primary EICAS
  • “Time to Jettison” will display on the fuel synoptic on the secondary EICAS. This is an initial estimate.
  • If one channel fails, select the other controller.
104
Q

Fuel
Q93c. How do we and what happens when we jettison fuel? (QRH 12-5 AOM II 12-2)

Calculate desired “Fuel to Remain” and set by rotating knob

A
  • Max landing weight (652,000) minus ZFW will give you the “Fuel to Remain” for Max Landing Weight.
  • Also make sure you have enough to get to destination, approach and landing if you are not jettisoning near the airfield.
105
Q

Fuel
Q93d. How do we and what happens when we jettison fuel? (QRH 12-5 AOM II 12-2)

Raise guard and push Fuel Jettison Nozzle L/R switches on

A
  • Jettison controller will turn override/jettison pumps in all tanks containing fuel (switches must also be on). This is the only time the main tank override/jettison pumps operate while the CWT override/jettison pumps are also on.
  • A more accurate “Time to Remain” will calculate upon commencing jettison and updates after 90 seconds.
106
Q

Fuel
Q93e. How do we and what happens when we jettison fuel? (QRH 12-5 AOM II 12-2)

During Jettison

A
  • If “Time to Remain” does not display/updates on Fuel Synoptic, look it up in in-flight performance section of QRH.
    1. The table contains time to jettison with 2, 4, 6 or 8 jettison pumps operating. Without malfunctions, we use the 6 pumps (with CWT fuel) or 4 pump (main tanks only) columns.
    2. The 8 pumps column never applies to Kalitta (for 747s w/stabilizer tanks).
  • Jettison controller will maintain Main Tanks 2&3 in balance by deactivating the jettison pumps in the lower tank when required. This is the only time the fuel system does any automatic fuel balancing.
  • Will still get >FUEL LOW CTR L/R message on EICAS with <3000lbs on the CWT. Turn CWT override/jettison pumps off.
  • <40000lbs remaining in Main Tanks 2&3 (not the normal 40200lbs)
    1. Reserve transfer valves open, reserve tanks 2&3 empty into respective main tanks
    2. CWT scavenge pump activities
  • When inboard tanks <20000lbs, Main Tank Transfer Valves 1&4 open to gravity balance the main tanks (transferring from the outboards to the inboards)

NOTE: Since Main Tanks 2&3 have jettison pumps and Main Tanks 1&4 do not, the quantity of the inboards eventually will be much lower than the outboards; this will even them out.

107
Q

Fuel
Q93f. How do we and what happens when we jettison fuel? (QRH 12-5 AOM II 12-2)

Completion of Jettison

A
  • Upon reaching selected “FUEL to Remain”
    1. “Fuel to Remain” quantity on primary EICAS changes from magenta to white flashes for 5 seconds.
    2. Jettison Control System deactivates all operating override/jettison pumps.
  • Turn Jettison Control selector knob off
  • Ensure aircraft is properly configured for tank to engine (i.e., override switches/crossfeed valves)
108
Q

Fuel
Q94. What is the difference between total fuel and calculated fuel? When are the values different? (AOM II 11-131)

A

A. Total vs Calculated
- Total Fuel: is what the Fuel Quantity System is reading in the tanks (totalizer adds individual tank quantity indications together)
- Calculated Fuel: is a calculation of the fuel that SHOULD remain based on how much the engines have used (totalizer value at first engine start minus fuel used based on fuel-flow rates and time)

NOTE: Calculated Fuel is normally more accurate and used for fuel check as individual quantity indicators can fluctuate slightly with changes in pitch/acceleration and turbulence.

B. A Fuel Leak will make these values differ significantly (slight variation is normal, especially with extended operation with gear & flaps down)

109
Q

Fuel
Q95. Prior to engine start, with usable fuel in the CWT, after fuel pump configuration are the #2 & #3 Override/Jettison pumps on or armed? (AOM II 11-131)

A

ARMED (though the switches are on)

110
Q

Fuel
Q96. What is the max fuel imbalance between 1&4? 2&3? (AOM II 12-18)

A

A. EICAS message FUEL IMBALANCE 1-4 comes on at a difference of 3000lbs

B. EICAS message FUEL IMBALANCE 2-3 comes on at a difference of 6000lbs

111
Q

Fuel
Q97. What is the purpose of the #1 & #4 transfer valves? (AOM II 12-14)

A

A. Open to allow gravity transfer from outboard to inboard main tanks. Will transfer until approximately 7000lbs remain in each outboard tank
B. Automatically open during jettison when main tanks 2&3 have <20000lbs
C. Valves may be opened manually using the Fuel Transfer Main 1 & 4 switch on the overhead panel, but this is normally just a MX function to correct imbalances on the ground

112
Q

Fuel
Q98. Does the flow bar disappear in the cross feed #2 & #3 transfer valves? (AOM II 12-1)

A

No, the flow bar in the inboard cross feed switches just means that the valve is controlled by system logic, not necessarily that it is open

113
Q

Fuel
Q99. After positioning the fuel jettison selector to A or B, where does the “fuel to remain” value display? (AOM II 12-16)

A

Replaces “Fuel Temps” on primary EICAS

114
Q

Fuel
Q100. Once activated, how long will the scavenge pump operate? (AOM II 12-15)

A

120 minutes or until low pressure is sensed by the pump

115
Q

Hydraulics
Q101. What three things will illuminate the SYS FAULT light? (AOM II 13-1)

A
  • Low system PRESSURE
  • Low system QUANTITY
  • Excessive TEMPERATURE
116
Q

Hydraulics
Q102. What will turn on the #4 demand pump if the switch is in AUTO? (AOM II 13-1)

A
  • Fuel Control Switch selected off
  • Low EDP pressure
  • Flaps in transit on the ground
  • Flaps out of UP, in flight
117
Q

Hydraulics
Q103. On descent onto KLAX, the #4 hydraulic quantity goes to zero. What system will be affected for the approach and landing? (AOM II 13-6)

A
  • Wing Gear Actuation
  • Right Outboard Elevator
  • Outboard TE Flaps
  • Inboard Spoilers (numbers 5, 6, 7 and 8) (AOM II 9-23)
  • Right Outboard Aileron
  • Normal Brakes (including Autobrakes)

NOTE: very important for effect on landing roll - will cause violent pitch-up if outboard spoilers are abruptly extended

118
Q

Hydraulics
Q104. With the loss of #1 Hydraulic quantity, what systems will be affected for the approach and landing? (AOM II 13-6)

A
  • Center Autopilot
  • Nose/Body Gear Steering
  • Nose/Body Gear Actuation
  • Left Outboard Elevator
  • Inboard TE Flaps
  • Alternate Brake Source (one of two)
119
Q

Hydraulics
Q105. With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach? (AOM II 13-11)

A

Loss of Stab Trim and Elevator Feel is in a degraded mode, with input only from mechanical springs (Autopilots L/R, 8 outboard spoilers and Alternate Brake Source #2 are also lost, but not reasons for a speed additive)

120
Q

Hydraulics
Q106. On landing the Brake Source light illuminates, what does it mean? (AOM II 14-6)

A

Loss of Normal and Alternate Brakes (System 4, 1 and 2

121
Q

Hydraulics
Q107. The demand pumps are powered how? (AOM II 13-5)

A

GE
- 1 and 4 are Pneumatic
- 2 and 3 are Electric

Pratt & Whitney
- 4 are Pneumatic

122
Q

Hydraulics
Q108. The Aux Pump(s) is/are powered from which source? (AOM II 6-13)

A

Ground Handling Bus

123
Q

Hydraulics
Q109. With the #4 Aux Pump on and providing pressure, will the hydraulic SYS FAULT light be on or off? (AOM II 13-1)

A

OFF

124
Q

Hydraulics
Q110. What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch? Where do you read that value? (AOM I NP-30)

A

0.80 on the STAT page on the lower EICAS

125
Q

Landing Gear
Q111. How many tires do we have and what is their numerical order? (FRM: INTRODUCTION Page 7)

A

18, counterclockwise order

126
Q

Landing Gear
Q112. Selecting value 3 on the Auto Brake Selector does what? From which sources does the auto brake system receive deceleration inputs? (AOM II 14-14)

A
  • Maintain a fixed deceleration rate, so it will ease off the brakes when other deceleration factors, such as speed brakes and thrust reversers, kick in.
  • The IRS (to the right of the gear lever)
127
Q

Landing Gear
Q113. What does the EICAS message GEAR TILT mean? (AOM II 14-19)

A

Main Gear Trucks not in Full Tilt position after takeoff

128
Q

Landing Gear
Q114. How do we alternately extend the gear? Where are the switches located? (AOM II 14-12)

A
  • Two alternate Nose/Body and Wing Gear Switches pushed ON
  • Lower Landing Gear Panel (to the right of the gear lever)
129
Q

Landing Gear
Q115. You have a wheel well fire, what speed should you be at before extending the gear? (AOM II 14-14)

A

270 kts or 0.82 Mach

130
Q

Landing Gear
Q116. On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm? What kind of braking is provided? (QRH 8-8)

A

-85 kts.

  • Max Braking
131
Q

Landing Gear
Q117. What does a white hashed box displayed on the (expanded) gear position indicator indicate? (AOM II 14-14)

A

Gear is in transit

132
Q

Landing Gear
Q118. How long does the gear up indication remain on the EICAS? (AOM II 14-11)

A

10 seconds

133
Q

Landing Gear
Q119. At what speed does the body gear steering disarm? (AOM II 14-12)

A
  • > 20 kts on a takeoff roll
  • Rearms >15 kts on landing roll or reject
134
Q

Landing Gear
Q120. What does the brake torque limiting system do? (AOM II 14-13)

A
  • prevents excessive torque to prevent landing gear damage
  • functions just like anti-skid (and even uses the anti-skid system to release brakes), but it is for excessive torque instead of a skidding tire.
  • when excessive torque is detected by sensors, the anti-skid system will receive a signal to release brakes.
135
Q

Warning Systems
Q121. What are the three levels of EICAS alerting? (AOM II 15-17)

A

3 Types of Messages
- ALERTS: Warning/Caution/Advisory
- MEMO: Reminders to the aircrew about configurations/equipment
- STATUS: Equipment discrepancies; require MEL consultation for dispatch

136
Q

Warning Systems
Q122. Can a Warning EICAS message be canceled? (AOM II 15-18)

A

NO (neither can a memo)

137
Q

Warning Systems
Q123. When are the Fire Bell and Master Warning lights inhibited? (AOM II 15-49)

A

From V1 until 400’ AFE or 25 seconds after V1

138
Q

Warning Systems
Q124. What items will activate the Takeoff Configuration Warning? (AOM II 15-27)

A

Airplane on the Ground AND Fuel Control switches are in RUN position AND engine #2 or #3 N1 at 70% AND airspeed is less than V1 AND any one of the below:
- Flaps not in a takeoff position
OR
- Body Gear Steering not centered
OR
- Parking Brake set
OR
- Speedbrake Lever not in DN detent
OR
- Stab Trim not in Takeoff Range (green band)
- Wrong runway programmed into FMS (NG Box)

139
Q

Warning Systems
Q125. When is the Predictive Windshear System active? (AOM II 15-42)

A
  • Manually on the Ground: when WXR is selected on the EFIS control panel and the weather radar is in any mode other than TEST (radar emitting)
  • Automatically on the Ground: when takeoff thrust (60% to 70% N1) is set
  • Automatically in Flight: when below 2300’, however, cautions and warnings are generated only when the airplane is below 1200’ AGL.
140
Q

Warning Systems
Q126. In what phase of flight will you get a GPWS “DON’T SINK” warning? (AOM II 15-37)

A

Altitude Loss with Flaps and/or gear up after TAKEOFF or GO-AROUND

(A “SINK RATE, SINK RATE” warning sounds when an excessive sink rate develops, normally on approach. Two “SINK RATE, SINK RATE” calls (8 words) is a mandatory go-around)

141
Q

Warning Systems
Q127. What is the purpose of the Event Record switch? How many events can be recorded? (AOM II 15-16)

A
  • Records currently displayed engine parameters and additional MX info
  • Up to 5 events may be recorded. A sixth recording will record over the first
  • The system also automatically records out of limit parameters
142
Q

Warning Systems
Q128. What is a Status message? (AOM II 15-18)

A

Indicates equipment faults requiring MEL reference prior to dispatch

143
Q

Warning Systems
Q129. What does the TCAS alert “TRAFFIC, TRAFFIC” mean? (AOM II 15-30)

A

TRAFFIC ADVISORY (a Resolution Advisory means conflict is within 20-30 seconds, with a smaller safety bubble. Crew action is required)

  • Another aircraft is predicted to penetrate a safety bubble around our aircraft within 25-45 seconds. Attempt to visually identify conflict aircraft
144
Q

Warning Systems
Q130. What switch turns on TCAS advisories on the ND? (AOM II 10-29)

A

TFC button on EFIS control panel

NOTE: “TCAS OFF” means that it is selected ON for display, but is inoperative (due to selection of “STBY” on TCAS control panel on center console or equipment malfunction)

145
Q

Ops Limits
Q131. What is the maximum wind limit for operating the main cargo door? (AOM I L-2)

A

40 kts operating (65 kts fully open)

146
Q

Ops Limits
Q132. What is the max ZFW of the BCF’s? (AOM I L-7)

A

610,000 lbs

147
Q

Ops Limits
Q133. What is the max tailwind for takeoff and landing? (AOM I L-9)

A

15 kts

148
Q

Ops Limits
Q134. What is the max takeoff crosswind component for a dry runway? Landing? (AOM I L-9)

A

Takeoff - 40kts

Landing - 36 kts

149
Q

Ops Limits
Q135. What is the max depth of slush for landing? (AOM I L-10)

A

0.5”

150
Q

Ops Limits
Q136. What is the max landing weight of the ERF? (AOM I L-7)

A

653,000lbs

151
Q

Ops Limits
Q137. What is the minimum Crew Oxygen dispatch pressure? (AOM I L-12)

A

1400psi (if below 1400psi, reference chart in the AOM Vol I, L-21 to see if dispatch is allowed)

152
Q

Ops Limits
Q138. What is the minimum TCH (Threshold Crossing Height)? AOM I L-15)

A

40’

153
Q

Ops Limits
Q139. What is the MAX N1? (AOM I L-23)

A
  • 117.5% (GE)
  • 111.4% (P&W)
154
Q

Ops Limits
Q140. What is the Max engine start EGT? (AOM I L-23)

A
  • 750C (GE)
  • 535C (P&W)

747 (6 decks)

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