CQ (500) 2020

Question 1

1. On a Cat III approach, to continue below AH, what conditions must be met? (GOM 5)

Answer 1

• No Auto throttle faults
• TRIPLE or LAND 3 must be displayed on the flight mode annunciator

Question 2

2. Where is the DOD Flight Information Publication (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft? (GOM 7)

Answer 2

• Stowage compartment on the First Observers Sidewall Console (right side of flight deck)

Question 3

3. Can a flight be released to an airport without an available TAF? (GOM 5)

Answer 3

• Yes, the METAR must show that the weather is at or above minimums and a reasonable trend shows that the weather will remain so

Question 4

4. The First Officer is PF and has yet to complete consolidation. ATIS is reporting the visibility as 1100 meters. What must be considered? (GOM 5) (AOM Vol I, NP)

Answer 4

• Autobrakes 3 or greater must be used
• The First Officer may not conduct the approach and landing

Question 5

5. If the Director of Operations delegates the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting, and terminating flights to the flight following personnel, does flight following also bear the responsibility of those functions? (GOM 5)

Answer 5

• The Director of Operations shall NOT delegate responsibility for those functions

Question 6

6. What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of a trip? (GOM 5)

Answer 6

• Flight Release/Flight Plan
• Weight and Balance Form
• Aircraft Loading Checklist
• Hazmat Form
• Ground Security Form
• Aircraft Log (yellow and pink copies)
• Fuel Receipts
• All Receipts and Invoices (excluding hotel)
• Engine Monitoring Data Form

Question 7

7. Minimum (fuel) required calculations are based on what 4 factors? (GOM 5)

Answer 7

• Destination Fuel
• Alternate Fuel
• Reserve Fuel
• Additional Fuel

Question 8

8. What minimum climb gradient must be maintained when conducting a departure procedure designed under TERPS criteria when no gradient is specified? (GOM 5)

Answer 8

• 200 feet per nautical mile

Question 9

9. When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which 3 weight limits must be considered? (GOM 5)

Answer 9

The Captain must determine that the weight of the aircraft at the start of the takeoff roll is at or below all of the following weights:
- Maximum structure Takeoff Gross Weight (TOGW)
- TOGW limited by takeoff performance under the conditions existing at the time of takeoff
- TOGW considering the anticipated fuel burn before landing which will permit a landing at or below the maximum Landing Gross Weight (LGW)

Question 10

10. When is a new TLR required prior to departure? (AOM Vol I, PERF)

Answer 10

TLR is void when:
- the actual QNH is more than .10” (3.4hPa) below the planned QNH
- the actual OAT is greater than the Maximum Temperature (MT) for the takeoff runway
- the actual OAT is more than 10* less than the planned OAT
- the actual takeoff weight is greater than the weight listed in the PTOW PLUS table
- the actual takeoff weight is more than 10,000 lbs below the planned takeoff weight
- a performance limiting MEL exists that is not shown in the RMKS section

Question 11

11. When requesting a “Live” calculation, what must be provided to flight following? (AOM VOL I, PERF)

Answer 11

• Desired Runway
• Runway Surface Condition
• ZFW
• ATIS
• Fuel on board
• TOGW CG

(RC ZAFT)

Question 12

12. Your TLR has a notation “SLUSH-LEVEL 2” in the remarks section. What depth of slush has been planned by the flight follower? (AOM VOL I, PERF)

Answer 12

• More than 1/8 inch - up to 1/4 inch

Question 13

13. After entering the Thrust Limit from AERODATA, there are dashed lines present on the Takeoff Page. What do you do? (AOM VOL I, PERF)

Answer 13

• The presence of dashes in place of reference speeds in the CDU is an indication that the FMS cannot generate speeds for the entered THRUST LIMIT, ZFW and FLAP setting. All data entries should stop and the crew should reconfirm all performance data entries

Question 14

14. Who may perform the Exterior Safety check? (AOM Vol I, NP)

Answer 14

• The FO will accomplish the exterior safety check. However, the IRP may accomplish the check. If crew members arrive separately, the first crew members to arrive at the aircraft will complete the exterior and interior safety checks and establish electrical power if not already established.

Question 15

15. When is the exterior safety check accomplished? (AOM Vol I, NP)

Answer 15

• The Exterior Safety Check is performed on every flight before entering the airplane to ascertain that no obvious unsafe condition exists.

Question 16

16. What is the maximum misalignment permitted on the pylon alignment stripe when conducting the Exterior Inspection? (AOM Vol I, NP) (Walk Around Power Point)

Answer 16

• 1/2 the stripe

Question 17

17. What is the minimum amount of brake wear pin that can be visible when conducting the Exterior Inspection? (AOM Vol I, NP) (Walk Around Power Point)

Answer 17

• Checking the brake wear pins is not part of the Exterior Inspection

Question 18

18. When conducting an Exterior Inspection, must a flashlight be carried during daylight hours? (AOM Vol I, NP)

Answer 18

• Yes

Question 19

19. For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk-around? (AOM Vol I, NP)

Answer 19

• The Loadmaster shall assume responsibility for accomplishing the final walk-around to ensure that all of the cargo doors are closed and secured and that there is no damage around the cargo door area, which may have been caused by the loaders and may not have been visible when the IRP did his initial walk-around inspection. DOES NOT CHECK FUEL DOORS.

Question 20

20. What are the memory items for ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND? (QRH BC)

Answer 20

ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND

FUEL CTRL switch (affected engine) - CUTOFF
(Warning: Do Not Proceed Until Engine Has Shutdown)

If FIRE indication persists after shutdown:
ENG FIRE switch (affected engine) - PULL
ENG FIRE switch (affected engine) - ROTATE

After a momentary delay:
ENG FIRE switch (affected engine) - ROTATE (other direction)

Question 21

21. What are the memory items for a multiple engine failure in flight? (QRH 7)

Answer 21

ENG 1,2,3,4 FAIL (TWO or MORE ENGINES)
Condition: one of these occurs on two or more engines
- engine flameout/indications are unusual/indications out of limits/unusual engine noises/no response to thrust lever movement
Objective: attempt a rapid relight
CAUTION: Shutdown of more than 1 engine will cause the AUTO-THROTTLES to be Inoperative

FUEL CTRL switches (affected engines) - CONFIRM, CUTOFF, then RUN
EGT - MONITOR
- If EGT rapidly approaches the takeoff EGT limit, repeat step 1 as necessary

NOTE:
- EGT indication will turn red if EGT exceeds the ground/single engine in-flight start limit; however, for the multi-engine in-flight start, the start EGT limit reverts to the takeoff limit
- If high speed buffet occurs during the maneuver, relax pitch force as necessary to reduce buffet, but continue the maneuver

Question 22

22. You have arrived on stand. Parking brake is set, engines 1, 2, 3 are shut down and engine 4 is running as you wait the connection of ground power. Suddenly, the Marshaller gives you the signal for a fire on engine 4. With no Master Fire Warning illuminated, what recall items should be accomplished? (QRH 8)

Answer 22

FIRE ENGINE TAILPIPE
Cond: An engine tailpipe fire occurs on the ground with no engine fire warning

FUEL CTRL switch - CUTOFF

Question 23

23. A hung start occurs after starter cutout, as indicated by the engine failing to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run. What recall item should be accomplished? (QRH 7)

Answer 23

HUNG START (AUTOSTART AFTER STARTER CUTOUT)
Cond: N2 below 50% or engine fails to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run

FUEL CTRL switch - CUTOFF

Question 24

24. An engine has failed in flight. N1 rotation and oil pressure are indicated. The EICAS message ENG 1 FAIL appears. What recall items should be accomplished? (QRH 7)

Answer 24

• NONE
• There are no recall items associated with an engine failure. The appropriate QRH should be called for by the PF

Question 25

25. What are the memory items for EICAS message “ENG 1 AUTOSTART”? (QRH 7)

Answer 25

ENG 1,2,3,4 AUTOSTART (ABORTED ENGINE START)
Cond: During a ground start, an abort start condition occurs
Obj: To shut down the engine and motor it.

FUEL CTRL switch - CUTOFF

Question 26

26. What are the memory items for the ENGINE LIMIT/SURGE/STALL condition? (QRH 7)

Answer 26

ENGINE LIMIT/SURGE/STALL
Cond: one or more of these
- Engine indications are unusual
- Engine indications are rapidly approaching or exceeding limits
- Unusual engine noises are heard
- There is no response to thrust lever movement
Obj: To attempt to recover normal engine operation or shutdown the engine if recovery is not possible

THRUST LEVER (affected engine) - RETARD
- Retard until indications stay within normal limits or return to normal or the thrust lever is closed.

Question 27

27. What are the memory items for the EICAS message “FIRE MAIN DECK”? (QRH 8)

Answer 27

FIRE MAIN DECK FIRE MN DK AFT, FWD, MID
Cond: Smoke is detected in the main deck cargo area(s)

1 Don O2 masks
2 Establish crew communications

Question 28

28. What are the memory items for the EICAS message “CABIN ALTITUDE”? (QRH 8)

Answer 28

CABIN ALTITUDE
Cond: Cabin altitude masks

1 Don O2 masks
2 Establish crew communications

Question 29

29 What are the memory items for EICAS message “FIRE WHEEL WELL”? (QRH 8)

Answer 29

FIRE WHEEL WELL
Cond: Fire is detected in a main wheel well
NOTE: When extending or retracting the landing gear, do not exceed the gear EXTEND limit speed - 270Kts/.82M

LANDING GEAR LEVER - DN
- This attempts to remove and extinguish the fire source

Question 30

30. Who is responsible for notifying the FAA when a PIC utilizes his emergency authority? (GOM 8)

Answer 30

The Director of Operations

Question 31

31. What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of urgency? (GOM 8)

Answer 31

PAN, PAN, PAN

Question 32

32. What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of distress? (GOM 8)

Answer 32

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

Question 33

33. What are some indications that you have encountered volcanic ash in flight? (GOM 8)

Answer 33

• Notice a Smokey or acrid odor that can smell like electrical smoke, burned dust or sulfur
• See a haze develop within the airplane…dust can settle on surfaces
• Experience changing engine conditions…surging, torching from the tail pipe, and flameouts can occur…engine temps can change unexpectedly and a white glow can appear at the engine inlets
• Experience a decrease or erratically fluctuation indicated airspeed
• Experience changes in cabin pressure, including loss of cabin pressure
• See a phenomenon similar to St Elmo’s fire or glow…in these instances, blue-colored sparks can appear to flow up the outside of the windshield or a white glow can appear at the edges of the wings or at the front of the engine inlets
• Landing lights will cast sharp, distinct shadows

Question 34

34. What must a person consider before using Halon fire extinguisher in an enclosed area? (GOM 8)

Answer 34

• A PBE must be donned prior to discharging a Halon fire extinguisher in a confined space

Question 35

35. What is the time of useful consciousness at 35000’ without using supplemental oxygen? (GOM 8)

Answer 35

• 30 to 60 seconds

Question 36

36. What must be entered into the logbook following an overweight landing? (GOM 8)

Answer 36

• Aircraft weight
• Rate of descent at touchdown

Question 37

37. Should supernumerary oxygen be deployed for smoke in the cabin? (GOM 8)

Answer 37

• NO, unless the cabin altitude is greater than 14000’

Question 38

38. You have been assigned to a basic crew twice within a particular 30-day period. What is the maximum number of hours that you may fly in that 30-day period? (GOM 5)

Answer 38

• 100 hours

Question 39

39. To whom can the Director of Operations delegate his responsibility for initiation, operation, diversion and termination of a flight? (GOM 5)

Answer 39

• He cannot delegate his responsibility

Question 40

40. When operating outside of the United States, International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standard procedures apply, except where a country files a Statement of Differences with the ICAO. Where can these differences be found? (GOM 6)

Answer 40

• Jeppesen FD Pro program under “Air Traffic Control, State Rules and Procedures” tab for that country

Question 41

41. What are the B-44 fuel requirements? (GOM 6)

Answer 41

The flight must be planned with enough fuel to:
- Fly to airport to which was released
- + 10% of the total time from rerelease point to the rerelease destination airport
- Fly and land at the most distant alternate airport specified in the flight release
- + 30 minutes holding speed at 1500’ above the alternate airport under standard temperature conditions

Question 42

42. What are B-43 fuel requirements? (GOM 6)

Answer 42

The flight must be planned with enough fuel to:
- Fly to and land at the airport to which it was released
- + 10% of total period in Class 2 Airspace (where aircraft’s position cannot be “reliably fixed” at least once each hour)
- Fly to and land to the most distant Alternate in the release (if required)
- + 45 mins at normal cruising fuel consumption

Question 43

43. May a flight be released under the rules for No Suitable Alternate if there is an alternate available within two hours that is unusable because of weather forecast? (GOM 6)

Answer 43

• NO

Question 44

44. Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following? (GOM 6)

Answer 44

• ETA exceeds 15 min beyond flight plan ETA
• Deviate more than 100 NM from flight plan route
• More than 4000’ from flight plan altitude

Question 45

45. When are you considered “established” on course? (GOM 6)

Answer 45

• “Established” is considered as being within HALF OF FULL-SCALE DEFLECTION for the ILS and VOR or within +-5* of the required bearing for the NDB

Question 46

46. Who is responsible for determining the entry requirements for a particular country? (GOM 6)

Answer 46

• PIC

Question 47

47. Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc) for a particular host country be found? (GOM 6)

Answer 47

• Most relevant information is found in the ENTRY SECTION of the appropriate Jeppesen Text Manual. More detailed information can be obtained from Operations Control Center (OCC) personnel

Question 48

48. When do you need a permit to proceed? (GOM 6)

Answer 48

• The Permit to Proceed is used by US Customs officials to allow aircraft to TECH STOP (change crew, fuel, etc) at a US airport without meeting the full inspection requirements of a normal entry. The detailed entry inspection requirements for the cargo will be completed at the final destination.

Question 49

49. How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country? (GOM 6)

Answer 49

• The only way to determine the appropriate holding speeds for a particular country is to FIRST CHECK THE ATC SECTIONS OF THE JEPPESEN TEXT documents found in FD Pro D and find the “HOLDING” SECTION FOR A PARTICULAR COUNTRY. The Holding section will reference a table of speeds, found in the 200 series pages of the Air Traffic Control section of the Jeppesen General Manual

Question 50

50. When operating outside the US and cleared to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by the flight crew? (GOM 6)

Answer 50

• Clarify the routing or if cleared direct, use specific phraseology indicating “CLEARED PRESENT POSITION direct to ____” (GOM 6-19)

Question 51

51. When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of Class II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights? (GOM 6)

Answer 51

• Verify that the computer Flight Plan coordinates agree with the actual coordinates from Jeppesen HI/LO charts or the NAT Track message, as appropriate

Question 52

52. List three examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATS. (GOM 6)

Answer 52

• Moderate Turbulence
• Severe Turbulence
• Moderate Icing
• Severe Icing
• Severe Mountain Wave
• Thunderstorms without or with hail
• Heavy Dust or Sandstorm
• Volcanic Ash Cloud
• Pre-Eruption Volcanic Activity or Volcanic Eruption

Question 53

53. When would you NOT use CMV (converted meteorological visibility)? (GOM 5)

Answer 53

• When reported RVR is available
• For calculating takeoff minima
• For other RVR minima less than 800m

Question 54

54. What does the term “NOSIG” mean when found in a METAR? (GOM 5)

Answer 54

NO SIGnificant change in the next 2 hours

Question 55

55. Can a flight be released based on a METAR? (GOM 5)

Answer 55

• YES, when weather conditions forecast in a TAF prevent the release of a flight, but the METAR indicates current weather conditions are at or above minimums, a flight may be released provided the METAR history shows a reasonable trend of weather conditions at or above the minimums required. The flight must be coordinated with flight following to ensure the takeoff, approach and landing can be accomplished prior to issuance of the next normally scheduled METAR report.

Question 56

56. You are unable to see the required visual cues at decision height on an approach. Are you obligated to proceed to your filed alternate? (GOM 5,6)

Answer 56

• NO, As with any listed alternate, the destination alternate is just a planning exercise to ensure that you have available fuel to divert to a suitable airport.

Question 57

57. You have used CPDLC to request a weather deviation and have yet to receive an ATC response. Based on analysis of the radar returns you elect to deviate 20 miles south of track. What do you do? (GOM 6)

Answer 57

Maintain your altitude until 5 miles south of track. Then, climb to 300’ above your assigned cruising level

Question 58

58. You are unable to maintain your altitude while in oceanic airspace and cannot obtain a clearance for a lower altitude. What do you do? (GOM 6, AOM Vol II 11)

Answer 58

• Turn at least 30 degrees off track
• Maintain altitude as long as possible
• Watch for traffic
• Turn on all available lighting
• Broadcast on 121.5 and 123.45
• Establish 5NM Offset Track
• Descend to an altitude offset by 500’ in RVSM airspace
• Consider descent below FL290, offset by 500’
• Select <ENG OUT on the FMS Cruise Page
• Continue to attempt contact with ATC

Question 59

59. You are at your re-release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-release when dispatched under B044, what do you do? (GOM 5)

Answer 59

Divert to your released airport (intermediate airport), after coordinating with ATC

Question 60

60. In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regard to vertical and lateral maneuvering? (GOM 6)

Answer 60

It is expected that the pilot will normally proceed to the missed approach point and then follow the missed approach procedure in order to remain within the protected airspace This does not preclude flying over the MAP at an altitude/height greater than that required by the procedure.

Question 61

61. Unless otherwise listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IFR turning departures is _____, with a minimum bank angle of _____ * (GOM 6)

Answer 61

Departures are only protected for turn radius of 290 knots or less, with a minimum bank angle of 15*

Question 62

62. Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew? (GOM 6)

Answer 62

The flight crew shall write down the clearance on the Flight Plan, along with the time it was received and the controlling frequency. When a re-route is necessary, the flight crew shall clearly cross-out old waypoints and enter the new waypoints in their place

Question 63

63. Certain locations in the world have been identified by IATA as having less than reliable air traffic control services. Is there any additional procedure required? (GOM 6)

Answer 63

The IATA Inflight Broadcast Procedures should be followed at each Mandatory reporting point

Question 64

64. Describe the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this check? (GOM 6)

Answer 64

• Approximately ten minutes after passing each waypoint, the steering LRN unit position should be plotted and all LRN units checked against each other to ensure there are no significant deviations
• Record the time (UTC)
• Verify on-course tracking
• The check is designed to ensure that the proper coordinates are inserted in the ‘NEXT’ position and that the aircraft is tracking to that position. The check does NOT verify the aircraft is in the proper position

Question 65

65. In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEAs for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such a route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain…(GOM 6)

Answer 65

The aircraft must be capable of meeting obstacle clearance requirements along a particular route with an engine inoperative. If diversion procedures or “escape routes” are not available or defined, these routes should not be flown, unless weights are reduced to allow compliance with en-route obstruction clearance criteria as described in GOM6-41, FAR 121.191 and FAR 121.193.

Question 66

66. While flying in less developed areas and after receiving a “direct via” off airway routing, what altitude should be consulted on the en-route chart to ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met? What type of terrain clearance does that altitude afford? (GOM 6)

Answer 66

• Special attention must be paid to the grid Minimum Off-Route Altitude (MORA). Grid MORAs provide a minimum of 1000’ obstacle clearance or 2000’ in mountainous terrain

Question 67

67. What is the Engine Failure Procedure in VMC if an engine fails after V1? (GOM 6, AOM Vol I PERF)

Answer 67

In VMC, you must fly the runway heading to 1000’ then maneuver as necessary, unless a Special Engine Failure procedure dictates otherwise

Question 68

68. Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as “by ATC”. Although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level?

Answer 68

The flight crew may know they have been cleared through the transition level, (descending) when cleared to maintain an altitude instead of a flight level. Additionally, a flight should be given an altimeter setting when cleared through the transition level.

Question 69

69. When conducting a course reversal procedure outside of the United States, what must be done to assure obstruction clearance? (GOM 6)

Answer 69

Unlike the United States, where a holding pattern can be used as a course reversal, the course reversal procedure must be flown exactly as depicted

Question 70

70. Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch.6 be applied? What altitudes should not be corrected? (GOM 6)

Answer 70

• Apply corrections to all published minimum departure, en-route and approach altitudes according to the table in GOM Ch.6
• ATC-assigned altitudes or flight levels should not be adjusted for temperature

Question 71

71. According to GOM Ch.6, what are some of the effects of operating at the high-than-normal true airspeeds associated with high-altitude airport operations? (GOM 6)

Answer 71

• Greater turn radius
• Higher landing and takeoff speeds
• Potential for hot brakes
• Missed approach climb capability problems
• Aircraft may seem fast visually
• Higher rates of descent (near the GPWS “sink rate” warning activation)
• Pressurization scheduling may differ from normal

Question 72

72. What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit? (QRH 12)

Answer 72

• 3* C above the fuel freeze point
• Increase speed, change altitude or deviate to a warmer air mass or all 3 to achieve a TAT equal to or higher than the fuel temp limit

Question 73

73. How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used? (AOM Vol I L, QRH 12)

Answer 73

Consult the fuel freeze tables in Chapter L or the QRH Chapter 12

Question 74

74. Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire (GOM 6)

Answer 74

Rapid horizontal figure 8 motion with either arm pointing at the source of the fire

Question 75

75. If a SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant listening watch? (GOM 6)

Answer 75

• Verify proper SELCAL code
• Verify that the SELCAL VHF/HF selectors are set to HF
• Verify that the HF squelch is set to MIN or OFF
• Verify the HF Gain set to MAX or INCR
• Request a new test (if necessary)

Question 76

76. In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the US, what four recommendations should be used by crew members in order to avoid miscommunication? (GOM 6)

Answer 76

• Use proper ICAO Phraseology
• Speak slowly and clearly and spell identifiers using the phonetic alphabet (if necessary)
• Anticipate the controller: For example, be aware of the names of the fixes along the route, review possible SID and STAR names so that they will be familiar when heard
• Obtain assistance, ask other crew members to monitor communication, even ACMs (or others), especially if they speak the local language. If unsure of what has been said, insist on verification, no matter how many times it takes
• If necessary, practice sterile cockpit techniques from the top of descent until parked at the ramp

Question 77

77. After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PNF should? (AOM Vol I SP)

Answer 77

• Print the ATC UPLINK page and place the printout where both pilots can see it until the clearance has been complied with
• Leave the ATC UPLINK page displayed until the clearance has been complied with

Question 78

78. What is the correct response to a “Cleared Route Clearance” uplink? (AOM Vol I SP)

Answer 78

• Send a “Standby” downlink message
• Print the uplink message
• After review of the message, accept or reject the clearance
• If accepted, load the FMS

Question 79

79. Except on the North Atlantic, what is required at the ASTU boundary when using ADS-C? (QRH CPDLC, CPDLC Presentation)

Answer 79

Manually send one ATC position report at the boundary to initiate ADS-C services

Question 80

80. Under what condition would you select ADS OFF? (AOM Vol I SP)

Answer 80

Unless ATC has requested you to select it off, it is Kalitta Air policy not to select ADS OFF

Question 81

81. When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints? (CPDLC Presentation)

Answer 81

Although physically possible, it is not permitted

Question 82

82. What does ADS-B stand for? (GOM 5)

Answer 82

Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast

Question 83

83. How do you turn ADS-B off? (GOM 5)

Answer 83

Select the transponder to STBY

Question 84

84. What must supernumeraries be briefed on and who must brief them? (AOM Vol I NP)

Answer 84

Supernumeraries must be briefed by flight crew member on use of cabin emergency equipment and emergency escape provisions

Question 85

85. What will cause the Main Deck Signaling System to activate automatically? (AOM Vol II 1)

Answer 85

• Depressurization event
• Main deck cargo smoke/fire

Question 86

86. What must a supernumerary do prior to entering the main deck? (AOM Vol I NP)

Answer 86

• Carry a portable oxygen bottle with a smoke combat mask
• Notify the operating crew upon returning

Question 87

87. What is indicated by the EICAS message >EMER LIGHTS? (AOM Vol II 1)

Answer 87

• The emergency lights switch is not armed
• The emergency lights switch is armed and the lights have activated

Question 88

88. What are the wind limits when operating the Main Cargo Door? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 88

• Door operating 40kts
• Door open 65kts

Question 89

89. When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch position? (AOM Vol II 1)

Answer 89

When Oxygen is on

Question 90

90. What is the Max. Differential Pressure (Relief Valve), Takeoff and Landing? (AOM Vol I 1)

Answer 90

MAX: 9.4psi
T/O & Land: 0.11psi

Question 91

91. The AFT CARGO HT switch TEMP legend is illuminated. Is aft cargo heat available? (AOM Vol II 2)

Answer 91

Yes, it will cycle at a higher temperature

Question 92

92. Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? If so, up to what altitude? (AOM Vol II 2)

Answer 92

Yes, for one pack up to 15000’

Question 93

93. What will cause an engine bleed air SYS FAULT light to illuminate? (AOM Vol II 2)

Answer 93

• Bleed Overheat
• Bleed Overpressure
• HP Bleed open when commanded closed
• PRV open when commanded closed

Question 94

94. What will cause the cabin altitude indicator on the primary EICAS to turn amber? (AOM Vol II 2)

Answer 94

Cabin altitude in the caution range

Question 95

95. The LLCAFR switch is in FWD LOW and the customer has requested a temperature of 4C to 8C for perishable cargo. What is the condition of the equipment cooling system? (AOM Vol II 2)

Answer 95

Closed Loop

Question 96

96. What systems are available with the engine bleed valve closed and no fault is detected? (AOM Vol II 2)

Answer 96

• Reversing
• Nacelle Anti-Ice

Question 97

97. Under what condition may the #1 or #2 window heat be inoperative? (MEL 30)

Answer 97

• Provide operation is not predicated on flights onto known or forecast icing conditions
• Windshield Air (Anti-Fogging) Systems are operative and remaining #1 and #2 window heaters are operative

Question 98

98. While in flight, Nacelle Anti-Ice must be on when? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 98

• When icing conditions are anticipated except when OAT is below -40*C
• When TAT is 10*C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals)
• Prior to reduce thrust for descent when TAT is 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals), even when OAT is below -40C

Question 99

99. While in flight, Wing Anti-Ice must be on when? (AOM Vol I L

Answer 99

• In flight, when in icing conditions (ice is actually accumulating) and the leading edge flaps are not extended
• When TAT is 10*C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, sleet or ice crystals), the leading edge flaps are not extended and the aircraft is below 22,000’

Question 100

100. Where is the windshield washer reservoir located? (AOM Vol II 3)

Answer 100

In the left sidewall, behind the captain’s seat

Question 101

101. When are the 4 pitot-static probes heated? (AOM Vol II 3)

Answer 101

When any engine is operating

Question 102

102. Are the TAT probes heated? When? (AOM Vol II 3)

Answer 102

Yes, in flight only

Question 103

103. When can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 103

Not below 400’

Question 104

104. VNAV is armed for takeoff, at 400’ AFE, the autothrottle mode changes to THR REF. What change occurs to the N1 indicators on the primary EICAS? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM Vol II 7)

Answer 104

The reference N1 line changes from green to magenta

Question 105

105. When the pitch mode is VNAV PTH, what changes will occur to the autothrottle and pitch modes when speed speed intervene is selected with the Legacy FMC? With the NG FMC? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM Vol II 16F)

Answer 105

• Legacy FMC: will change the pitch mode to VNAV SPD and autothrottle will go to IDLE, then HOLD

-NG FMC: will remain in VNAV PTH and SPD

Question 106

106. Will aileron trim operate with an autopilot engaged? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM Vol I L)

Answer 106

Yes, but it is prohibited

Question 107

107. What are the minimum and maximum: GLIDESLOPE & GLIDE PATH angle? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 107

• GLIDESLOPE: 2.5* to 3.25*
• GLIDE PATH: 2.75* to 3.5*

Question 108

108. What will occur in cruise flight with an autopilot engaged and the PM inadvertently touches the trim switch instead of the push to talk switch? (AOM Vol II 4)

Answer 108

The autopilot will disengage

Question 109

109. When using FLCH SPD as the pitch mode on takeoff (VNAV did not capture), is it necessary to push the THR button to select climb thrust? (AOM Vol II 4, AOM VOL II 7, AOM Vol II 11)

Answer 109

No, the change will occur at the specified point (flaps or altitude) programmed on the Takeoff Page of the FMC

Question 110

110. If VNAV is armed for takeoff, what would be the indicated FMA pitch mode change at 400’ AFE? (AOM Vol II 4)

Answer 110

VNAV SPD

Question 111

111. If LNAV is armed in flight, at what cross track distance will it become active? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 111

2.5 NM

Question 112

112. What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 112

The center VHF radio is not approved for ATC voice communications

Question 113

113. When is an ACARS in range report required to be manually sent? (AOM Vol I SP)

Answer 113

• 30 minutes prior to arrival when unable to contact the ground station on an AMC charter flight
• 30 minutes prior to arrival when a maintenance item is or will be entered in the logbook

Question 114

114. When should HF radios not be used? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 114

During Refueling

Question 115

115. How would you verify that the ACARS state is BEGIN or WAIT? (AOM Vol I SP)

Answer 115

• ACARS 2/2, DISCRETE, verify BEGIN/WAIT
• TO FIX:
  • Close the L1 door
  • Set the parking brake
  • Open the L1 door
  • Select RETURN IN
  • Select PROCEED WITH RETURN IN

Question 116

116. What must be done to communicate directly with the mechanic who is operating the start valve for a manual (wrench) start? (AOM Vol II 5)

Answer 116

• The mechanic must plug into the headset jacks at the nacelle. Service Interphone must be selected on
• FLT must be selected on the audio panel

Question 117

117. With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off? (AOM Vol II 5)

Answer 117

No

Question 118

118. What is indicated by the EICAS advisory >RADIO TRANSMIT? (AOM Vol II 5)

Answer 118

A VHF or HF radio has been continuously keyed for 30 seconds

Question 119

119. How can we tune DATA into the C VHF? (AOM Vol II 5)

Answer 119

Dial past 136.000 or below 118.000 and select transfer switch

Question 120

120. What buses are powered with #1 & #2 external power available but not on? (AOM Vol II 6)

Answer 120

• Ground Handling
• Main Deck Cargo Handling

Question 121

121. The battery switch is on and the standby power selector is in AUTO. No external power is available. You are starting the APU. Is the APU standby bus powered? (AOM Vol II 6, AOM Vol II 7)

Answer 121

No, starting the APU removes power from the APU standby bus

Question 122

122. What battery is required to start the APU? (AOM Vol II 6)

Answer 122

Both batteries are required to start the APU

Question 123

123. How can a DCIR be opened? (AOM Vol II 6)

Answer 123

By opening the AC Bus Tie switch

Question 124

124. While conducting the interior preflight, you notice that the #2 generator FIELD OFF light is illuminated. How can you reset it? (AOM Vol II 6)

Answer 124

• Cycle the Generator Control switch off and then on
• Turn off the Generator Control switch and then use the guarded field switch on the Overhead Maintenance panel to close the field

Question 125

125. What electrical bus isolation occurs during auto land? (AOM Vol II 6)

Answer 125

AC buses 1, 2, and 3 are isolated. AC bus 4 powers the sync bus

Question 126

126. The number 4 generator is deferred. Can a Category III approach be conducted? (AOM Vol II 6, QRH AP)

Answer 126

Yes

Question 127

127. The #1 APU generator is inoperative. External power is not available. What must be done to power the refueling panel? (AOM Vol II 6, AOM Vol II 7)

Answer 127

The refueling panel cannot be powered. The Ground Handling bus is required

Question 128

128. Before starting engines with the #1 APU generator inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system? (MEL 24, AOM Vol II 6, AOM Vol II 13)

Answer 128

Turn on the # 4 Demand Pump

Question 129

129. When must continuous ignition be used? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 129

• Heavy Rain
• Severe Turbulence
• Volcanic Ash
• Icing Conditions
• Standing water or slush on the runway

Question 130

130. With an EEC in Alternate Mode (ALTN), when should takeoff thrust be set? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 130

After brake release

Question 131

131. What does the EICAS Memo message APU RUNNING mean? (AOM Vol II 7)

Answer 131

• APU is at 95% RPM
• Electrical and Pneumatics are available

Question 132

132. With the auto ignition selector in SINGLE (GE), what happens on the ground? (AOM Vol II 7)

Answer 132

The EEC will alternate igniters 1 & 2 after every second engine start

Question 133

133. With the auto ignition selector in SINGLE (GE), what happens in flight? (AOM Vol II 7)

Answer 133

• Both igniters will activate when N2 drops below 50% in the affected engine
• Both igniters will activate in all engines when the flaps are out of up

Question 134

134. When will standby ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM? (AOM Vol II, 7)

Answer 134

• With a loss of AC Power
• Power is supplied to both igniters continuously

Question 135

135. Under what conditions should a start attempt be aborted (P&W)? (NO AUTO ATART-*) (AOM Vol II 16PW)

Answer 135

• No N2
• No oil pressure
• No EGT rise within 10 seconds
• Rapidly rising EGT
• No N1 by idle N2
• No acceleration after 90 seconds
• • EICAS/display interruption
• • Pneumatic disruption
• • Tailpipe fire

Question 136

136. If the Maximum Continuous EGT limit is exceeded, what is indicated? On Takeoff? (AOM Vol II 7)

Answer 136

• Entire EGT gage turns amber
• Inhibited for 5 minutes after TOGA is pushed

Question 137

137. With a main cargo fire, arming the Main Deck fire switch does what? (AOM Vol II 8)

Answer 137

• Enables main deck fire suppression
• Turns off 2 packs
• Configures equipment cooling to closed loop and turns off all airflow to main deck and airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
• Closes master trim air valve

Question 138

138. Is the engine fire detection system AND logic or OR logic? (AOM Vol II 8)

Answer 138

AND logic

Question 139

139. What event will cause the engine fire detection system to configure itself in OR logic? Is there a cockpit indication? (AOM Vol II 8)

Answer 139

• Failure of one of the detection loops during the self test (STATUS cue on the primary EICAS)
• FIRE DET LOOP status message

Question 140

140. What does the EICAS message >DET FIRE/OHT 1 mean? (AOM Vol II 8)

Answer 140

Both loop A and loop B for engine 1 have failed

Question 141

141. Describe what occurs when an engine fire switch is pulled? (AOM Vol II 8)

Answer 141

• Closes the engine Bleed Air Valve
• Arms the Squib (fire extinguishers)
• Closes the Hydraulic Shutoff Valve
• Depressurizes the Hydraulic Pump
• Closes the Engine and Spar Fuel Valves
• Trips off the related engine generator

BAC DFT

Question 142

142. What conditions will unlock the engine fire switch? (AOM Vol II 8)

Answer 142

• Pressing the unlock button on the fire panel
• System senses a fire
• Fuel switch in cutoff
• Fire test in progress

Question 143

143. After a fire test pass, what 2 systems are no longer being monitored by the AC? (AOM Vol II 8)

Answer 143

• Wheel Well
• Leading Edge Duct

Question 144

144. How many overheat loops are installed for the APU? (AOM Vol II 8)

Answer 144

None

Question 145

145. If the outboard ailerons fail to “unlock” during approach, are there any restrictions on landing? (QRH 9)

Answer 145

20 knot crosswind limit

Question 146

146. What causes the outboard ailerons to unlock? (AOM Vol II 9)

Answer 146

Low Airspeed

Question 147

147. How would you select flaps 1 using the alternate flap system? (AOM Vol II 9)

Answer 147

You cannot select flaps 1 with the alternate system. All leading edge flaps extend at the same time.

Question 148

148. Moving the flap handle to a selected position will cause the flaps to move as long as either hydraulic (primary mode) or electric (secondary mode) power is available to the aircraft. Having said that, why is there an alternate flap system?

Answer 148

In the event that the flap handle fails or all three Flap Control Computers FCCs are failed

Question 149

149. What does the EICAS message >SPEEDBRAKES EXT mean?

Answer 149

Speed brake lever aft of arm and

• RA between 800 and 15’
  Or
• Flaps in the landing configuration
  Or
• Two or more thrust levers forward of the idle position

Question 150

150. What occurs when the speedbrake lever is extended to the flight detent position? (AOM Vol II 9)

Answer 150

• Two inboard spoilers on each wing extended to the mid position
• Two middle spoilers on each wing extend fully

Question 151

151. The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 151

20,000’

Question 152

152. When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited? (AOM Vol II 9)

Answer 152

Multiple Autopilots engaged

Question 153

153. What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captain’s and FO’s altitude display for RVSM operations? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 153

200’

Question 154

154. In addition to altitude and vertical speed information, what does the IRU selected by the captain provide? (AOM Vol II 10)

Answer 154

Reference information to the autobrake system

Question 155

155. On what range on the ND can you display all airports, all waypoints and all VORs? (AOM Vol II 10)

Answer 155

40 miles

Question 156

156. Which of the instrument source selectors will automatically transfer? (AOM Vol II 10)

Answer 156

EIU

Question 157

157. Selecting the ARPT button on the EFIS control panel does what? (AOM Vol II 10, 11, 16F)

Answer 157

• With the legacy FMC installed, displays all airports within the selected range that have at least 1 hard surfaced runway 7500’ long or greater
• With the NG FMC installed, displays all airports within the selected range that have at least 1 hard surfaced runway 6000’ long or greater

Question 158

158. For all aircraft, except N782CK, what is the up orientation of each ND mode? (AOM Vol II 10)

Answer 158

• MAP is track up
• PLAN is True North up (VOR is heading up
• APP is heading up

Question 159

159. What is the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for operations in RVSM? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 159

• Sea Level to 5000’ -
  
  • 35’ between CA and FO
  • 75’ between CA or FO and field elevation
• 10000’ -
  
  • 40’ between CA and FO
  • 75’ between CA or FO and field elevation

Question 160

160. Operations for using QFE are? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 160

Prohibited

Question 161

161. What pages are available on the CDU with a dual FMC failure? (AOM Vol II 11)

Answer 161

• PROG
• LEGS
• NAV RAD

Question 162

162. Weather radar information can be displayed on all ND modes, except? (AOM Vol II 11)

Answer 162

• Plan
• VOR centered
• APP centered

Question 163

163. The NG FMC has a field on the VNAV CRZ page with the title RECMD. What does it display? (AOM Vol II 16F, NG FMS Pilot’s Guide)

Answer 163

The most economical altitude to fly for the next 500 miles based on gross weight, selected speed option and constant altitude based on entered winds and forecast temperature

Question 164

164. You have been given a clearance to fly a heading of 090* to intercept J121 to HTO. Procedurally, what will you enter in the FMC? (AOM VolI 11)

Answer 164

• On RTE page 2: put J121 at L1
• On RTE page 2: put HTO on R1
• Verify route on LEGS 1 page
• Push EXEC

Question 165

165. When does the FMC have Approach Logic? (AOM Vol II 11)

Answer 165

• After passing the first waypoint in the IAP
• Within 25 miles when the runway is the waypoint displayed at L1

Question 166

166. What safeguard is applied when the FMC has approach logic and the pitch mode is VNAV PTH? (AOM Vol II 11)

Answer 166

Loss of the path will cause the aircraft to do a level fly off

Question 167

167. Can Class II Navigation be conducted with a dual FMC failure? (AOM Vol II 11)

Answer 167

Yes

Question 168

168. When programming the NG FMC prior to departure, on what page can the update sources be viewed and, it desired, disabled or enabled? (AOM Vol II 16F)

Answer 168

The NAV OPTIONS page

Question 169

169. When programming the NG FMC prior to departure, what airports are entered on the ALTN Page? (AOM Vol II 16F)

Answer 169

• ETP airports
• If no ETP airports, the destination alternate

Question 170

170. External power is connected, but not selected on. The fueler comes upon to you and asks if he can fuel since power is not on. Can he? (AOM Vol II 12, 6)

Answer 170

Yes, the fueling panel receives power from the Ground Handling Bus

Question 171

171.When must the CWT override/jettison pumps be switched off? (AOM Vol II 12, QRH 12)

Answer 171

• If the FUEL LOW CTR L/R message is displayed
• If the FUEL PRESS CTR L/R message is displayed

Question 172

172. Can you reset a tripped fuel pump Circuit Breaker? (QRH 12)

Answer 172

No, do not reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker

Question 173

173. What is the fuel freeze point of Jet A? (QRH 12)

Answer 173

-40*C (most restrictive of the fuel types used)

Question 174

174. How can you verify that the fueling panel door is closed from the cockpit? (AOM Vol II 12)

Answer 174

The preselect fuel value will no longer appear on the fuel synoptic

Question 175

175. What is the Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 175

53,000lbs

Question 176

176. What is the Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast) (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 176

72,000lbs

Question 177

177. When is the only time that the fuel system will automatically balance the fuel tanks? (AOM Vol II 12)

Answer 177

During fuel jettison

Question 178

178. On aircraft equipped with an electric scavenge pump, what causes the pump to activate? (AOM Vol II 12)

Answer 178

The pump activates when the 2 and 3 reserve tanks transfer to their respective main tanks

Question 179

179. Once activated, how long will an electric scavenge pump operate? (AOM Vol II 12)

Answer 179

120 minutes or until CTR Tank is empty

Question 180

180. With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach? (AOM Vol II 13, QRH 13)

Answer 180

• Loss of Stabilizer Trim
• Increased ability to flare

Question 181

181. What will cause a #2 or #3 demand pump to operate when the switch is in the AUTO? (AOM Vol II 13)

Answer 181

• Low pressure output from the EDP
• Respective fuel control switch in cutoff

Question 182

182. What will cause a #1 or #4 demand pump to operate when the switch is in AUTO? (AOM Vol II 13)

Answer 182

• Low pressure output from the EDP
• Respective fuel control switch in cutoff
• Flaps are in transit on the ground
• Flaps are out of up in flight

Question 183

183. Does unlatching the EDP switch close its respective shut off valve? (AOM Vol II 13)

Answer 183

No

Question 184

184. The hydraulic quantity on the STATUS page shows 0.00. The EICAS message HYD PRESS ENG is displayed. The SYS FAULT light is not illuminated. Do you have any hydraulic pressure from the system available? Why? (AOM Vol II 13)

Answer 184

• Yes
• The hydraulic quantity indication disregards the fluid in the standpipe which is available to the EDP

Question 185

185. What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch? (AOM Vol I L)

Answer 185

0.80

Question 186

186. Where can you confirm the hydraulic quantity? (AOM Vol II 13)

Answer 186

Status and Hydraulic Synoptic page

Question 187

187. What does the EICAS message “HYD CONTROL” mean? (AOM Vol II 13, QRH 13)

Answer 187

• The affected system’s demand pump may not operate under high demand situations
• The affected system’s demand pump must be placed to ON in order to ensure system pressure will be available during high demand situations

Question 188

188. With the #4 AUX pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS fault light be off or on? (AOM Vol II 13)

Answer 188

Off

Question 189

189. What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with gear extended? (AOM Vol I L

Answer 189

720,000 lbs

Question 190

190. On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm? (AOM Vol II 14)

Answer 190

85kts

Question 191

191. Autobrakes operate using which brake control system? (AOM Vol II 14)

Answer 191

Normal brake system

Question 192

192. RTO braking will provide what deceleration rate? (AOM Vol II 14)

Answer 192

RTO is not rate based…MAX Braking

Question 193

193. At what tiller angle will the body gear begin to aid in turning the aircraft? (AOM Vol II 14)

Answer 193

At 20* of tiller angle

Question 194

194. Where can you read alternate brake pressure? (AOM Vol II 14)

Answer 194

Alternate brake system pressure cannot be read

Question 195

195. The #4 hydraulic system is inoperative. How can the parking brake be held until chocks are in place? (AOM Vol II 14)

Answer 195

Pressurize Hydraulic System 1 with the ADP or AUX pump if installed

Question 196

196. What does the brake torque limiting system do? (AOM Vol II 14)

Answer 196

The sensors detect excessive torque during braking to prevent damage to the landing gear. When excessive torque is detected, a signal is sent to the anti-skid valve to release the brake pressure to that wheel.

Question 197

197. From engine start to shutdown, what is the primary means of alerting crews to non-normal conditions or improper configurations? (AOM Vol II 15)

Answer 197

EICAS Alert Messages (Warning, Cautions and Advisory)

Question 198

198. With multiple EICAS messages present, what will assure that all memo messages are displayed? (AOM Vol II 15)

Answer 198

Pushing the CANC button when the last page of EICAS Alert Messages is displayed

Question 199

199. When are the Fire Bell and Master Warning Lights inhibited? (AOM Vol II 15)

Answer 199

V1 till 400’ RA or 25 seconds after V1

Question 200

200. When does the takeoff configuration warning activate? (AOM Vol II 15)

Answer 200

• Either #2 or #3 N1 is 70% or more
• Airspeed is less than V1 and:
  
  • Body gear not centered
  • Flaps not in the takeoff range
  • Parking brake set
  • Speed brake lever not down
  • Stabilizer trim not in the selected green band

Question 201

201. In what phase of flight would you receive the GPWS alert “DON’T SINK”? (AOM Vol II 15)

Answer 201

• Takeoff
• Go Around

Question 202

202. When is the Windshear Alert System (not PWS) active? (AOM Vol II 15)

Answer 202

VR to 1500’

Question 203

203. What will cause the EICAS message CONFIG GEAR to display? (AOM Vol II 15)

Answer 203

The airplane is in flight:
- Any gear is not down and locked
- Any thrust lever is closed and radio altitude is less than 800’
- Flap lever is in a landing position (25 or 30)

Question 204

204. What range must be selected to use the TAWS - Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system for navigation? (AOM Vol II 15)

Answer 204

Use of the terrain display for navigation is prohibited

Question 205

205. When carrying Class 1 explosive material on a DOD flight, the captain must ensure what information is included in the remarks on the flight plan? (GOM 7)

Answer 205

• Proper shipping name
• Classification
• Net explosive weight

Question 206

206. Where is the DOD Flight Information Publication (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft? (GOM 7)

Answer 206

Stowage compartment on the First Observers Sidewall Console (right side of flight deck)

Question 207

207. Who is the final authority when conducting simultaneous fueling and cargo loading at military installations? (GOM 7)

Answer 207

Wing or Base Commander

Question 208

208. When operating an AMC contracted flight, when must the destination airfield be notified? (GOM 7)

Answer 208

30 minutes out

Question 209

209. When operating an AMC contracted flight, where is the appropriate facility and frequency for contact prior to arrival found? (GOM 7)

Answer 209

Flight Plan

Question 210

210 blank

Answer 210

Blank

Question 211

211. Under Operating Fundamentals of Kalitta Air, flight operations will be conducted in a manner that ensures what 4 things? (GOM CH 3 3-23)

Answer 211

• Maximum safety for personnel, cargo and equipment
• Schedule integrity and reliability
• Maximum customer satisfaction
• Maximum efficiency economy

Question 212

212. Prior to each departure, the PIC must obtain adequate knowledge of the following subjects? (GOM 4-21)

Answer 212

• Weather characteristics appropriate to the season
• Navigation Facilities
• Communication procedures, including airports visual aids
• Kinds of terrain and obstructions
• Minimum safe flight levels
• Pertinent air traffic control procedures, including terminal areas, arrival, departure, holding and all types of instrument approach procedures
• Congested areas and the physical layout of each airport in which he/she will operate
• All relative NOTAMS

Question 213

213. Blank

Answer 213

Blank

Question 214

214. Who may determine whether a Pre-departure Briefing for a special airport is needed? (GOM CH5 5-17)

Answer 214

• The Director of Operations or Assistant Director of Operations
• The Chief Pilot or Assistant Chief Pilot
• The Director of Safety

Question 215

215. When is a loading checklist required? (ROM 10-6)

Answer 215

The checklist is required where there is a Loadmaster or Special representative assigned to the flight

Question 216

216. Where must Cargo Aircraft Only (CAO) dangerous goods be loaded? (GOM App H H-26)

Answer 216

Cargo Aircraft Only (CAO) dangerous goods must be loaded so that they are accessible. As discussed above, a crew member (or other authorized person) must be able to access, handle, and (when size and weight permit) separate such packages from other cargo during flight

Question 217

217. When operating under Special Permit 7573 or 9551 who may be onboard? (GOM J-16)

Answer 217

If a flight is conducted under either of these special permits, persons authorized to be onboard during flight are limited to:
- 1. Required flight crew members
- 2. An FAA Inspector
- 3. The shipper or consignee of the cargo or representative of the shipper or consignee (designated in writing)
- 4. A person necessary for handling the cargo

Question 218

218. After loading the final numbers in the CDU, you get an EICAS message >STAB GREENBAND, what are some reasons for this? (AOM Vol II Ch 9-15)

Answer 218

Nose gear pressure sensor disagrees with calculated stabilizer green band. A nose gear oleo pressure switch provides a cross check to ensure the correct green band has been selected

Question 219

219. Can we depart before our ETD? For DHL? (GOM Ch7 7-11, DHL Guide)

Answer 219

If the aircraft is ready for departure more than 20 minutes early, Company aircrews shall request early departure. For DHL, PIC shall contact the Flight Follower for authorization. The Flight Follower shall check that such a departure will not negatively impact customer arrival times, slot, curfew, crew duty time or any other factors. Should an early departure be approved, the PIC shall record this approval on the Flight Release.

Question 220

220. Are there any limitations for taxiing out with 3-engines? 2-engines? (FTM 2-11)

Answer 220

Delayed engine start should be used when operationally possible. The following weights are for guidance only:
- Less than approximately 726,000 lbs, start engines 4, 1 and 2
- Less than approximately 660,000 lbs, start engines 4 and 1

If the engine has been shut down for several hours, it is desirable to operate at as low a thrust setting as practical for several minutes prior to takeoff.
- Taxiing with two engines at high gross weight is not recommended for normal operation because of the noise and blast damage from higher than normal thrust requirements

Question 221

221. Can you be dispatched with less than 72,000 lbs of fuel? (AOL Vol I L-18)

Answer 221

• Yes, Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (excluding ballast)………. 53,000 lbs
• Requires approval from DO, Cheif Pilot or designee

Question 222

222. If a PIC uses his emergency authority and is requested to submit a report to the requesting ATC facility, when must this be completed? (GOM Ch 5)

Answer 222

When requested, the PIC must submit a detailed report (separate from the Event Log), within 48 hours to the requesting ATC facility

Question 223

223. Are Hazmat shipping labels required to be seen on ULD’s? (GOM)

Answer 223

Often, the placement of the ULD Tag on a ULD will, once loaded on the aircraft, not be visible to anyone viewing the ULD. The tag is verified by the Loadmaster/Station Representative when the cargo is loaded onboard and need not be verified after loading

Question 224

224. When inspecting the PBE, what color is the indicator when it is no longer serviceable? (AOM 1-63)

Answer 224

The PBE is considered to be unserviceable when the paper indicator clearly turns pink

Question 225

225. Who is responsible for ensuring the doors page synoptic is displayed during preflight? (AOM Vol I NP)

Answer 225

First Officer (FO Cockpit Prep)
- Doors Display Switch (after Captain’s status check)………. PUSH

Question 226

226. When conducting a preflight, when will the Yaw Damper switch INOP light extinguish? (AOM Vol I NP CA Cockpit Prep)

Answer 226

INOP lights remain illuminated until first IRU aligns

Question 227

227. The MDSS TURB switch remains illuminated for how long after being pushed? (AOM Vol I NP)

Answer 227

Remains illuminated for approximately 90 seconds

Question 228

228. What should you see during the STBY PWR check? (AOM Vol I NP)

Answer 228

STBY POWER SELECTOR to BAT
Verify BAT DISCHARGE MAIN and BAT DISCH APU display on EICAS
Verify PFD, ND, L CDU (+primary EICAS) remain on, SOME PLANES DO NOT HAVE APU standby bus
STBY POWER SELECTOR to AUTO

• Verify BAT DISCH MAIN and BAT DISCH APU messages no longer display

Question 229

229. What is the procedure for all EFIS/EICAS screens going blank? (QRH p0-2)

Answer 229

Follow QRH procedure for: EFIS/EICAS SCREENS BLANK
- This directs you to reset circuit breakers

Question 230

229. What is the procedure for all EFIS/EICAS screens going blank? (QRH p0-2)

Answer 230

Follow QRH procedure for: EFIS/EICAS SCREENS BLANK
- This directs you to reset circuit breakers

Question 231

230. When must the PIC declare a fuel emergency to ATC? (GOM Ch 5)

Answer 231

If the PIC determines that he must have traffic priority, he should declare an emergency due to low fuel and provide ATC with minutes of fuel remaining

Question 232

231. If a PIC rejects for a non-mechanical reason, is a logbook entry required? (GOM 5-114)

Answer 232

If the rejected takeoff is due to a non-mechanical issue, the crew is required to note the rejected takeoff in the “Remarks” section of the aircraft log

Question 233

232. What is ICAO emergency fuel? (GOM Ch 5)

Answer 233

The PIC shall declare a situation of fuel emergency by broadcasting, “MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY FUEL”, when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned fuel reserve fuel

Question 234

233. What is the difference between Distress and Urgency? (GOM Ch 8)

Answer 234

• DISTRESS is defined as a condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger requiring immediate assistance. Distress messages have the highest priority.
• URGENCY is defined as a condition concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle, or of some person on board or within sight, but which does not require immediate assistance. Urgency messages are second in priority only to distress messages

Question 235

234. What is the pilot response to a “CAUTION OBSTACLE” or “CAUTION TERRAIN”? (QRH 16-6)

Answer 235

Pilot Flying…Correct flight path or aircraft condition

Question 236

235. GPWS alerts are provided for what 7 categories of events? (AOL Vol II 15-35)

Answer 236

GPWS alerts are provided for the following:
- altitude loss after takeoff or go-around
- excessive and severe descent rate
- excessive terrain closing rate
- unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration
- excessive deviation below an ILS glide slope
- altitude advisories
- windshear

Question 237

236. When directed by the QRH, pushing the Ground Proximity (GND PROX) Flap Override (OVRD) switch does what? (AOM Vol II 15-11)

Answer 237

Push (OVRD illuminated) - inhibits TOO LOW FLAPS alert

Question 238

237. TAWS, GREEN indicates what altitude? AMBER? RED? (AOM Vol II 15-13)

Answer 238

• DOTTED GREEN - terrain from 2,000’ below to 500’ (250’ with gear down) below airplane altitude
• DOTTED AMBER - terrain 500’ (250’ with gear down) below to 2000’ above airplane altitude
• DOTTED RED - terrain more than 2000’ above airplane altitude

Question 239

238. Can crew members accept another carrier’s NOTOC form? (GOM H-35)

Answer 239

Kalitta Air crew members may accept another air carrier’s (or freight forwarder’s) Pilot-In-Command Notification Form provided that form contains at least the same information as the KA Form

Question 240

239. How much dry ice is allowed to be carried onboard? (GOM APP H H-30)

Answer 240

** See charts on H-30**

Quantity will vary based upon sublimation rate and A/C configuration

Question 241

240. What is the minimum RVR allowed for takeoff? How many centerline lights should you see at 500 RVR?

Answer 241

500 RVR - 10 lights (50’ apart)

Question 242

241. Under low visibility conditions, how would you determine when you have 2000’ of runway remaining? (AOM Vol I App A A.2.6)

Answer 242

• High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL)
• On the rollout end, the last 2000’ of lights are amber

Question 243

242. Where can you find the complex special engine fail procedure for GAU/MGGT RUNWAY 02, if you wanted to study it before receiving the TLR? (AOM Vol I Perf-100)

Answer 243

A caret (>) to the right of any runway length indicates the presence of additional information, such as NOTAMs or notes that can be displayed by selecting the caret

Question 244

243. With PACKS in HI FLOW, how much extra fuel burn will you have? (MEL 21-76)

Answer 244

Approximately 1%

Question 245

244. Why is it important to check fields 10 and 18 on the flight plan strip? (GOM 9-51)

Answer 245

• Crew members need to be aware of these qualifiers should they be queried by ATC
• Must verify the accuracy of these fields by checking DMIs that render the equipment listed in Fields 10a, 10b, and 18 inoperable

Question 246

245. Who is responsible for determining aircraft disinfection procedures prior to entering a country? (GOM 6-7)

Answer 246

Cargo Services

Question 247

246. Can you dispose of the insecticide canisters prior to landing, if needed? (GOM 6-7, JepPro)

Answer 247

NO, must be retained for quarantine officer if needed

Question 248

247. What code should never be put in the transponder? (GOM 5-120)

Answer 248

Under no circumstances should a pilot of a civil aircraft operate the transponder on Code 7777. This code is reserved for military interceptor operations

Question 249

248. Can we do circling approaches? (FTM 5-41)

Answer 249

Kalitta Air is not authorized to perform Circling Approaches.

Circling maneuvers from authorized approaches are permitted.

The WX minimums to perform a circling maneuver are the higher of the published circling minimums or 1000’ HAA and 3 miles visibility.

The Circling Maneuver must be performed at or above the higher of the published circling MDA or 1000’ HAA

Question 250

249. How close to the destination airport does one need to be to accept a visual approach? (GOM 5-138)

Answer 250

Within 35 miles

Question 251

250. Where do we find authorized geographic areas of en-route operations? (GOM 6-2)

Answer 251

Authorized geographic areas of en-route operations are contained in OpSpec B050

Question 252

251. Can we operate in “No FIR” areas? (GOM 6-10)

Answer 252

KA is NOT authorized to operate in “No FIR” areas. The authority to operate is granted by OpSpec B050 - Authorized Areas of En-route Operation, Limitations and Provisions

Question 253

252. What are some considerations when operating in NON-WGS 84 compliant areas? (FCTM 1-27)

Answer 253

The positions of runways, airports, waypoints, navaids, etc., may not be as accurate as depicted on the map display and may not agree with the GPS position

Question 254

253. Can we operate on Performance Based Communications and Surveillance (PBCS) tracks? (GOM 6-55)

Answer 254

KA aircraft are NOT permitted to operate on the PBCS tracks that are designated in the NAT Track Message

Question 255

254. After coast-out and radar service terminated, at what point do we squawk 2000? (Reg/Sup Ops pg 13)

Answer 255

30 minutes after entry into NAT airspace

Question 256

255. When operating out of VHHH and using runways 7L and 7R, can we use a NADP-2 departure?

Answer 256

No

Question 257

256. How do we derive alternate airport weather minimums? (GOM 5-79)

Answer 257

Alternate airport weather minimums are calculated using either of the following conditions:
- 1 NAVAID (Approach) - add 400’ and 1 mile
- 2 NAVAIDS (Approaches) - add 200’ and 1/2 mile
- CAT II Approach - requires 300’ HAT @ 3/4 miles visibility
- CAT III Approach - requires 200’ HAT @ 1/2 miles visibility

Question 258

257. For purposes of condition reporting and airplane performance, a runway is considered contaminated when? (AOM Vol Perf 11)

Answer 258

A runway where more than 25% of the runway length, within the width being used, is covered by standing water (more than 1/8”), slush or snow

Question 259

258. What is a minimum weather for a circling maneuver? (FTM 5-41)

Answer 259

The weather minimums to perform a circling maneuver are the higher of the published circling minimums or 1000’ HAA and 3 miles visibility

Question 260

259. What must be considered before an approach below 3/4 mile or RVR 4000? (AOM Vol I Ap A 4-1)

Answer 260

• During low weather conditions (3/4 mile visibility/RVR 4000), OpSpec C054 requires actual landing length plus 15% be compared to the fully factored landing distance
• Also consider Autobrakes 3 or 4. Quicker stop for low visibility

Question 261

260. If mid and rollout RVR reports unavailable for a CAT II approach, what is the minimum RVR requirement? (OpSpec 60-4)

Answer 261

If the mid and rollout RVR reports are unavailable, the TDZ report must be at least 1400 RVR

Question 262

261. On a CAT III Approach with far end RVR reporting, is far end RVR controlling? (GOM 5-110)

Answer 262

All available RVR reports are controlling, except a far-end RVR report, which is advisory only

Question 263

262. In an ICAO country, if the PIC declares “Minimum Fuel”, can they expect priority handling? (GOM 5-130)

Answer 263

Pilots should not expect any form of priority handling as a result of declaring “Minimum Fuel”. However, ATC will advise the flight crew of any additional expected delays and will coordinate with other ATC units when transferring control of the airplane to ensure they are aware of the flight’s fuel state

Question 264

263. What do we need for Alternate IFR Weather Minimums? (GOM 5-79)

Answer 264

Alternate airport WX minimums are calculated using either of the following conditions:
- 1 NAVAID (Approach) - add 400’ and 1 mile
- 2 NAVAID (Approaches) - add 200’ and 1/2 mile
- CAT II Approach - requires 300’ HAT @ 3/4 miles visibility
- CAT III Approach - requires 200’ HAT @ 1/2 miles visibility

Question 265

264. Where can we use a single Long-Range Navigation System (LRNS)? (OpSpec B-054, C)

Answer 265

Detailed in OpSpec B054

Question 266

265. ICAO route codes A, B, G and R are used for what type of ATS routes? (GOM 6-37)

Answer 266

Used for routes which form part of the regional networks of ATS routes and are not area navigation routes

Question 267

266.The letter “U” used as route designator “UPPER” is normally in conjunction with what type of airspace? (GOM 6-37)

Answer 267

The use of a supplementary letter “U” means the route is designated as an upper airway, normally in conjunction with Class A airspace at or above the transition level. The U is spoken as “Upper”.

Question 268

267. Enroute we must be able to maintain how many feet of obstacle clearance? (GOM 6-48)

Answer 268

Maintain 1000’ above all obstacles within 5 statute miles on each side of the route or the aircraft can continue to an airport where a landing can be made while clearing all terrain by 2000’.

Question 269

268. When selecting a transition for an approach procedure, what is an important consideration regarding altitude constraints on the transition

Answer 269

?? See flight ops bulletin, LAX, approach transition higher than arrival, you’ll jack up the arrival

Question 270

269. Can we operate in areas where barometric pressure is missing or above 31.00”? (GOM 5-11)

Answer 270

Flights to and from those airports are restricted to VFR weather conditions

Question 271

270. If ATC has modified the filed flight plan, you will receive a “CLEARED ROUTE CLEARANCE“ or “CLEARED TO [position] VIA ROUTE CLEARANCE”, are there any restrictions after loading the DCL? (AOM SP-66)

Answer 271

The only way to view the complete Route Uplink Message is to either print or, if printing is unavailable, load the uplink

Question 272

271. What is the minimum battery charge on your IPad EFB when reporting for duty? (GOM Ch5)

Answer 272

Pilots will report for duty with the EFB indicating a minimum 80% battery charge

Question 273

272. When will the Runway Turnoff lights extinguish with the switch selected ON? (AOM Vol II 1-47)

Answer 273

Lights extinguish when air/ground sensing system in air mode

Question 274

273. In AUTO the FASTEN SEAT BELTS sign will illuminate when? (AOM Vol II 1-49)

Answer 274

• Landing gear not up and locked
• Flap lever not up
• Airplane altitude below 10,300’
• Cabin altitude above 10,000’
• Supernumerary oxygen on

Question 275

274. If DC power fails, Emergency Lights are powered by what battery source? (AOM Vol II 1-51)

Answer 275

The emergency lighting system is powered by remote batteries. Battery charge is maintained by DC bus 4. A fully charged battery provides at least 15 minutes of operation

Question 276

275. The PBE has an operation duration of _____ and can be used to an altitude of _____?

Answer 276

• 15 minutes
• 40,000’

Question 277

276. When is the MDSS automatically activated? (AOM 1-50)

Answer 277

In case of a depressurization event, or cargo compartment smoke/fire, an automatically activated aural alert (siren) and visual alert (red strobe lights) is provided

Question 278

277. Once activated, how long will the MDSS remain active? (AOM 1-50)

Answer 278

• Depressurization or Smoke/Fire: The aural and visual alerts will remain active until the triggering condition is corrected
• Turbulence: The visual alert will remain active for a period of 90 seconds, then automatically cease

Question 279

278. What is the width of the wing gear? (AOM 1-1)

Answer 279

36’ 1”

Question 280

279. What is the minimum taxi width?

Answer 280

50’ ??

Question 281

280. How do you make a 180* turn on a 153’ runway? (FTM 2-8)

Answer 281

Taxi the airplane so that the wing gear tires are close to the runway edge. Stop the airplane completely with the thrust at idle. Hold the tiller to the maximum steering angle, release the brakes, then add thrust on the engines on the outboard side. Light intermittent braking on the inside main gear helps decrease turn radius

Question 282

281. How many escape descent devices (reels) are there on a BCF?

Answer 282

6 Escape Reels

Question 283

282. The minimum pavement for a 180* turn is? (AOM Vol II 1-2)

Answer 283

153’ (body gear operating)

Question 284

283. What are the 3 types of hydroplaning? (GOM 5-107)

Answer 284

DYNAMIC: a film of water 1/10 of an inch or greater in depth. The speed at which dynamic hydroplaning will begin is a function of tire pressure and may be computed using the formula=9 X the square root of tire pressure

VISCOUS: a film of water 1/100 of an inch thick is trapped between the tire and the runway; smooth runway surfaces

REVERTED RUBBER (STEAM): may occur following a locked wheel skid on a wet runway. This type of hydroplaning cannot occur if anti-skid devices are operating properly and there is no residual drag in wheel bearings or brakes

Question 285

284. With an operating antiskid system, which type of hydroplaning do we not need to worry about? (GOM 5-107)

Answer 285

REVERTED RUBBER (STEAM): may occur following a locked wheel skid on a wet runway. This type of hydroplaning cannot occur if anti-skid devices are operating properly and there is no residual drag in wheel bearings or brakes

Question 286

285. With a tire pressure of 220psi, what would be the approximate hydroplaning speed? (GOM 5-107)

Answer 286

133kts (9 X square root of tire pressure)

Question 287

286. What are the 2 types of push button switches? (AOM Vol II 1-17)

Answer 287

ALTERNATE ACTION: switches have 2 positions - on/off

MOMENTARY ACTION: switches are spring loaded to the extended position

Question 288

287. Name the location of the Flight Deck Access Lights? (AOM Vol II 1-25)

Answer 288

Located on Overhead MTC Service Panel. Additional Access Lights switches are located on the upper deck cabin services module (CSM), at Door 1 left, at right upper deck service door and Main Equipment Center lower hatch

Question 289

288. What does the “IRS ON BAT” mean? How much time do you have? (AOM Vol II 11-7)

Answer 289

• IRS operating on backup electrical power (APU hot battery bus)
• The center IRU operates on DC power for 5 minutes, then shuts down

Question 290

289. During pre-flight you notice a Field Off Light illuminated on the overhead maintenance panel, what might be the problem? (AOM Vol II 6-7)

Answer 290

Illuminated (white) - generator field open

Question 291

290. Normally equipment cooling comes on when…on the ground? In flight? Where does the air go? What about in STBY or OVRD? (AOM Vol II 2-29, 2-30)

Answer 291

ON THE GROUND: with the engines not operating, the Equipment Cooling selector in NORM and ambient temperatures moderate or high, the warm exhaust air is ducted overboard through the ground exhaust valve. With lower ambient temperatures, the ground exhaust valve is closed, and the system is configured for flight

IN FLIGHT: Equipment Cooling selector to STBY closes the overboard exhaust valve to manually configure the airplane for flight

OVRD: With the Equipment Cooling selector in OVRD, the internal fans deactivate and the smoke/override valve opens with all other valves closed. The smoke/override valve opens to an overboard vent allowing cabin differential pressure to draw air from the panels area on the flight deck, through the equipment cooling ducts to the E&E compartment equipment racks, to create a reverse flow of air across the equipment, then through the supply duct and overboard

Question 292

291. If cabin pressure becomes excessive, 2 pressure relief valves open. What pack shuts down to assist in relieving excess cabin pressure? Is it available once pressurization returns to normal? (AOM Vol II 2-23)

Answer 292

Pack 2 shuts down to assist in relieving excess cabin pressure. Pack 2 resets when both cabin pressure relief valves close.

Question 293

293. With Master Trim Air switch OFF, Upper Deck Zone, Crew Rest Zone and Main Deck Cargo Zone receive pack outlet air at the same temperature command by which TEMP Selector? (AOM Vol II 2-18) (Flight Deck Temp selector Vol II 2-22)

Answer 293

The ZTC (Zone Temperature Controller) modulates the zone trim air valves to regulate the temperature of the conditioned air in each zone

Question 294

294. Aft Cargo Heat is provided by bleed air from which duct? (AOM Vol II 2-37)

Answer 294

Aft Cargo Heat is provided from the Center section

Question 295

295. Cabin altitude controllers use inputs from which sources to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule? (AOM Vol II 2-32)

Answer 295

The cabin altitude controllers use ambient pressure and flight plan data from the FMC to calculate a cabin pressurization schedule.

Question 296

296. After an over pressurization event, when will PACK 2 reset? (AOM Vol II 2-23)

Answer 296

Pack 2 shuts down to assist in relieving excess cabin pressure. Pack 2 resets when both cabin pressure relief valves close

Question 297

297. When the bleed air over temperature switch opens, the control logic will close which valves? (AOM Vol II 2-36)

Answer 297

When the bleed air over temperature switch opens, the control logic will close the:
- High Pressure Shut Off Valve (HPSOV)
- Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV)

Question 298

298. What will cause a PACK valve to close? (AOM Vol II 2-17)

Answer 298

When an overheat or PTC fault is detected, the respective pack valve closes resulting in a pack shut down

Question 299

299. If you have only 1 equipment cooling fan, is carriage of perishable or animals allowed? (MEL 21-58-7b)

Answer 299

Need answer

Question 300

300. With a left bleed duct isolated due to a bleed leak, what systems are affected? (AOM Vol II Pg2-36)

Answer 300

• Left leading edge flap operates electrically in secondary mode
• Demand pump 1 is selected OFF, to avoid the EICAS alert message HYD PRESS DEMAND from being displayed during approach
• A maximum of one air conditioning pack on assures sufficient thrust is available from the 2 engines which supply air to the unaffected duct sections

Question 301

301. What condition will cause a zone System (SYS) Fault light? (AOM Vol II Pg2-2)

Answer 301

• Temperature zone duct overheat of zone temperature controller fault has occurred
• Master trim air valve switch is closed
• Trim Air switch is off
• Master trim air valve closed and pack air continues to flow

Question 302

302. Bleed air is available for NAI operation with the Engine Bleed Air switch OFF, except when? (AOM Vol II Pg2-35)

Answer 302

• The PRV had failed closed
• The PRV has closed du to a bleed air overheat
• The start valve is not closed
• The HP bleed valve is failed open

Question 303

303. Bleed air is available for reverse thrust operation with the Bleed Air switch ON or OFF, except when? (AOM Vol II Pg2-35)

Answer 303

• The PRV has failed closed
• The PRV has been closed due to a bleed air overheat
• The start valve is not closed

Question 304

304. If you received a PACK 2 Status message after pushback, what would you do? (AOM Vol I NP-7)

Answer 304

• Before engine start investigate
• After engine start nothing

Question 305

305. Do you have to do a cross-bleed start from the supplemental procedures for a delayed engine start with the APU off? Why not?

Answer 305

No, crossbleed start in supplemental procedures is for starting first engine. Crossbleed you only have 1 engine started opposed to at least 2

Question 306

306. On the ground, what condition must be met to configure EQUIPMENT COOLING for flight? (AOM Vol II Pg2-29)

Answer 306

On the ground, 1 engine on each wing must be running to configure for flight

Question 307

307. What does the EICAS message “EQUIPMENT COOLING” mean on the ground? How can you configure for light mode? (AOM Vol II Pg2-30)

Answer 307

Equipment cooling is not configured for flight (ground valve still open), reconfigure, move selector to STBY (to close ground valve)

Question 308

308. With a PRV closed due to an overheat, is NAI available? (AOM Vol II Pg3-1)

Answer 308

No

Question 309

309. The forward cargo compartment receives heat how? (AOM Vol II Pg2-29)

Answer 309

Air exhausted from the (E&E) compartment

Question 310

310. If both isolation valves are closed, what do you lose? (AOM Vol II Pg2-37)

Answer 310

• Cargo smoke detection
• Portable water pressurization
• Lower lobe air conditioning
• Trim air

Question 311

311. With a PRV valve deferred, are you restricted from flight into known icing conditions? (MEL Pg36-22)

Answer 311

Yes

Question 312

312. Is known icing and forecast icing the same thing?

Answer 312

No

Question 313

313. Will wing anti-ice function on the ground? (AOM Vol II Pg3-1)

Answer 313

No

Question 314

314. With Engine Bleed Valve closed, NACELLE ANTI-ICE bleed air is supplied by which bleed? (AOM Vol II Pg3-6)

Answer 314

When NACELLE ANTI-ICE switch is ON with the engine bleed valve closed, the HP bleed valve remains closed. Bleed air is supplied by IP bleed only

Question 315

315. When is the wing anti-ice system inhibited? (AOM Vol II Pg3-2)

Answer 315

• On the ground
• With flaps extended

Question 316

316. What is the procedure for descending into icing conditions near convective weather? (AOM Vol I Pg SP-112)

Answer 316

• Pack high flow switch…..ON
• Nacelle Anti-ice switches……ON
• (at or below 22,000’) Wing Anti-ice switch…..On

Question 317

317. You are in the Commonwealth of Independent States and you need to be de-iced. They are using ARTIKA 200 fluid, are there any additional procedures? (DEICE Pg4-5)

Answer 317

ARTIKA 200 is NOT approved for use, 100 is

Question 318

318. With the PRV closed due to an overheat, is NAI available? (AOM Vol Pg3-1)

Answer 318

No

Question 319

319. What does the EICAS message >WAI LEFT indicate? (AOM Vol II Pg3-10)

Answer 319

Left wing anti-ice valve not in the commanded position

Question 320

320. The >ANTI-ICE NAC EICAS message indicates what? (AOM Vol II Pg3-10)

Answer 320

Any nacelle anti-ice system is on and the TAT is greater than 12*C and ice detector does not detect any ice

Question 321

321. How does the NAI valve indicate open? (AOM Vol II Pg3-6)

Answer 321

NAI is displayed beside the EICAS N1 warning the NAI valve is open

Question 322

322. What is the difference between a pre-takeoff contamination check and a pre-takeoff check? (DEICE Pg2-6)

Answer 322

• Pre-takeoff Contamination Check: HOT has expired and within 5 minutes of takeoff roll
  (Must be done from outside unless operators program specifies otherwise)
• Pre-takeoff Check: a contamination check within the HOT
  (From inside observe rep surface)

Question 323

323. Do we have to select MAX power for a takeoff after being deiced?

Answer 323

No

Question 324

324. You need to deice at KDOV, can you utilize MIL-SPEC deicing fluid? If so, are there any additional procedures needed? (DEICE Pg4-5)

Answer 324

Yes, and you will need a Pre=-Takeoff contamination check

Question 325

325. What does the EICAS message >ICING mean? (AOM Vol II Pg3-10)

Answer 325

Icing conditions exists, wing anti-ice is off and any nacelle anti-ice switch is off

Question 326

326. What are the indications that the NAI and WAI are on? (AOM Vol II Pg 3-6,7)

Answer 326

• NAI on EICAS N1
• WAI on respective EICAS N1

Question 327

327. When must continuous ignition be on? (AOM Vol I, Pg. L-22)

Answer 327

• Heavy Rain
• Severe Turbulence
• Volcanic Ash
• Icing Conditions
• Standing Water or Slush on Runway

Question 328

328. Who id responsible to ensure a de-ice vendor (ADVL) Approved De-ice Vendor List? If they are not on the list, can they be trained onsite? (DEICE Pg 3-2,3)

Answer 328

Kalitta Air Quality Assurance Manager, Yes they can be trained

Question 329

329. You are in the Commonwealth of Independent States and you need to be de-iced. They are using ARTIKA 100 fluid, are there any additional procedures? (DEICE Pg. 4-5)

Answer 329

Pre-takeoff contamination check

Question 330

330. When in VNAV, what speed will the airplane fly when reaching the T/D symbol? (AOM Vol II Pg 11-36)

Answer 330

ECON descend speed

Question 331

331 blank

Answer 331

Blank

Question 332

332. When is the speed (SPD) switch active and operative? (AOM 4-3)

Answer 332

• Inactive in TO/GA, FLCH SPD and VNAV ___
• Operative 400’ after takeoff to landing

Question 333

333. When does VNAV activate if ARMED? (AOM 4-6)

Answer 333

Activates at 400’ above field elevation

Question 334

334. Describe the functions of the THR button. Light illuminated. Light extinguished. (AOM Vol II 4-3)

Answer 334

Illuminated: (A/T Mode) Changes A/T mode to THR REF when:
- reference thrust limit is CLB, CLB1, CLB2, CRZ or CON and pitch mode is ALT or V/S
- reference thrust limit is GA and pitch mode is G/S or FLARE or pitch mode is ALT or V/S and flaps in landing position

Extinguished: (Thrust Limit Mode)
- after takeoff and during climb, changes reference thrust limit to armed climb thrust limit
- changes reference thrust limit to CLB unless engine inoperative or CON selected, then reference thrust limit is CON

Question 335

335. Name some reasons the auto-throttle would disengage. (AOM Vol II 4-25)

Answer 335

Manually: Autothrottle Arm switch to OFF or pushing either Autothrottle Disconnect switches

Automatically:
- Fault in active mode is detected
- Thrust reverser is raised to idle
- When the FMC Master switch is switched
- Both FMCs fail (cannot be reactivated)
- Two or more engines are shut down (cannot be reactivated)

Question 336

336. What type of mode is VNAV? (AOM Vol II 11-33)

Answer 336

Pitch Mode: provides vertical profile guidance through the climb, cruise and descent phases of flight

Question 337

337. Descend Direct (DES DIR) on the VNAV descent page does what? (AOM Vol II 11-143)

Answer 337

Deletes all waypoint altitude constraints between the airplane altitude and the MCP altitude

Question 338

338. Is it possible to have only one off-side tuning light on? (AOM Vol II 5-21)

Answer 338

No, unless it is burned out

Question 339

339. What happens if a VHF radio has a stuck mic on the ground? (AOM Vol II 5-22)

Answer 339

On the ground, any VHF radio transmitting for longer than 35 seconds is disabled. The radio is enabled when the microphone switch for that radio is released

Question 340

340. When is an Enroute Delay required to be sent? (AOM Vol I SP-23)

Answer 340

If the enroute flight time exceeds the projected flight plan time by more than 5 minutes

Question 341

341. The cargo interphone system provides what? (AOM Vol II 5-28)

Answer 341

The cargo interphone system provides communication between load personnel, the flight deck and ground crew

Question 342

342. Describe the steps necessary to receive a SATCOM call. (AOM Vol II 5-26)

Answer 342

• SAT L Transmitter Select switch (ACP)…………PUSH
• Adjust volume control as required
• CDU MENU Function key…………………………….PUSH
• <SAT (LSK)…………………………………………………..PUSH
• <ANSWER (LSK)…………………………………………..PUSH

Question 343

343. Explain how to tune the HF radio as required by the FO preflight. (AOM Vol I NP-39)

Answer 343

Tune each HF radio to a different frequency and transmit. Presence of side tone indicates a satisfactory transmitter check

Question 344

344. The oxygen mask microphone is enabled when? (AOM Vol II 5-1)

Answer 344

Oxygen mask microphone active when oxygen mask stowage box left-hand door open

Question 345

345. The offside tuning light on a RTU indicates what? (AOM Vol II 5-3)

Answer 345

• The radio tuning panel is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this radio tuning panel
• The radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another radio tuning panel

Question 346

346. Can you do a proper HF radio check without tuning the radio?

Answer 346

NO (tune to UTC time or volmet and transmit)

Question 347

347. How do you make a SATCOM call to a number not in the directory? (AOM Vol II 5-25)

Answer 347

• SAT L Transmitter Select Switch (ACP)…..PUSH
• Adjust volume control as required
• CDU MENU Function Key…..PUSH
• <SAT (LSK)…..PUSH
• Using the CDU scratch pad, enter the desired telephone number in the format below
  
  • “AACCXXXNUMBER”
    
    • AA…..Access Code (+ or 00) (the + sign or digits 00 are interchangeable)
    • CCC…..Country Code (1 to 3 digits, e.g. 1 for USA & Canada, 49 for Germany, 86 for China)
    • XXX……Area/City Code (2 to 4 digits, e.g. 734 for Detroit, 69 for Frankfurt, Germany)
    • NUMBER…..Local Telephone Number 97 to 10 digits)

Question 348

348. What activates the O2 microphone? (AOM Vol II 5-1)

Answer 348

Oxygen mask microphone active when oxygen mask stowage box left-hand door open

Question 349

349. How do you reset to boom-mic after the O2 mic has been activated? (AOM Vol II 5-1)

Answer 349

Boom microphone active when oxygen mask stowage box left-handed door closed and Reset/Test slide lever pushed and released

Question 350

350. You have cold dead airplane, can it be loaded and fueled without someone entering the cockpit? (AOM Vol II 6-13, 14)

Answer 350

• If EXT 1 is available, fueling lower cargo loading can occur
• If EXT 2 is available, main deck cargo loading can occur

Question 351

351. When is the Electric Synoptic inhibited? (AOM Vol 6-7)

Answer 351

During autoland, Message ‘ELECTRICAL SYNOPTIC INHIBITED FOR AUTOLAND” appears on the synoptic display

Question 352

352. During an Autoland, when do the A/C and D/C busses isolate? (AOM Vol II 6-14)

Answer 352

During automatic precision approach below 1,500’ radio altitude

Question 353

353. What normally powers the Main Standby Buss? (AOM Vol II 6-14)

Answer 353

The main standby bus is normally powered by AC bus 3

Question 354

354. With the BATT switch ON, standby power selector in AUTO and A/C Bus 3 unpowere, the Main Standby Bus is powered by what source? (AOM Vol II 6-14)

Answer 354

The Main Standby Bus is powered by the Main Standby Inverter

Question 355

355. Where does the Ground Service Bus get its power from? (AOM Vol II 6-12)

Answer 355

AC Bus 1

Question 356

356. With the battery charger unpowered, the Main Battery will power the Main Standby Bus for a minimum of? (AOM Vol II 6-15)

Answer 356

30 minutes

Question 357

357. What are the power sources for the Ground Service Bus? (AOM Vol II 6-12)

Answer 357

AC Bus 1

Question 358

358. With the APU generator 1 inoperative and no External power available, what system or systems will be affected? (AOM VOL II 5-13)

Answer 358

• Lower cargo handling equipment and compartment lights
• fueling system
• auxiliary hydraulic pump 4

Question 359

359. What are the reasons for disconnecting the IDG per the QRH? (AOM Vol II 6-11, QRH 6-4)

Answer 359

To prevent damage to the IDG:
- IDG oil pressure low
- IDG oil temperature high
- Generator control open due to uncorrectable generator frequency fault

Question 360

360. Will the IDG ever disconnect automatically? (AOM Vol II 6-11)

Answer 360

Extremely High Drive Oil Temp if not manually disconnected by crew

Question 361

361. A Generator Drive Light (IDG) indicates what? (AOM Vol II 6-6)

Answer 361

• IDG Oil Pressure Low
• IDG Oil Temperature High
• GCB open due to Uncorrectable Generator Frequency Fault

Question 362

362. During load shedding, what are some EICAS messages that may show depending on fuel panel configuration? (AOM Vol II 6-10)

Answer 362

• FUEL PUMP 3 FWD
• FUEL OVRD 2 FWD
• FUEL OVRD 3 FWD
• FUEL OVRD CTR L
• FUEL PUMP 2 FWD

Question 363

363. While adjusting your seat electrically, there is a spark coming from below the seat. What is the fastest way to remove the power supply to that seat? (AOM Vol II 1-72)

Answer 363

A Master ON/OFF switch located behind the lumbar support in/out adjustment handle

Question 364

364. Can you do a CAT III approach with an engine generator DMI’d? (MEL 24-1, 22-28)

Answer 364

Yes

Question 365

365. If number 4 engine generator is deferred, which generator powers the SYCH BUS during a CAT III approach? NEED ANSWER

Answer 365

NEED ANSWER

Question 366

366. What does the BAT position on the STBY Power Switch do? (AOM Vol II 6-2)

Answer 366

• Powers Main Battery Bus from Main Battery through Main Hot Battery Bus with Battery Switch on
• Powers APU Battery Bus from APU Battery through APU Hot Battery Bus with Battery Switch on
• Disables Main and APU Battery Charger
• Powers Main and APU Standby Busses from related Batteries through their Hot Battery Busses and Standby Inverters with Battery Switch on

Question 367

367. Name the items on the GROUND HANDLING BUS? (AOM Vol II 6-13)

Answer 367

• Lower Cargo Handling Equipment and Compartment Lights
• Fueling System
• Aux Hydraulic Pump 4

Question 368

368. Name the items on the GROUND SERVICE BUS? (AOM Vol II 6-12)

Answer 368

• Main and APU Battery Chargers
• Upper Deck Doors
• Fuel Pump for APU Start
• Flight Deck Door, Nav and Service Lights (cont.)
• Misc. Service Lights and Equipment

Question 369

369. How many Utility Buses are there? (AOM Vol II 6-12)

Answer 369

4

Question 370

370. Selecting the BATT switch to “ON” does what specifically? (AOM Vol II 6-2)

Answer 370

• Main Battery is available as Backup Power Source for Main Battery Buss and Main Standby Buss
• APU Battery is available as Backup Power Source for APU Battery Buss and APU Standby Buss

Question 371

371. How are the Captain and FO’s transfer buses powered? How are they backed up? (AOM Vol II 6-13)

Answer 371

• CPT - AC BUSS 3, AC BUSS 1 BACKUP
• FO - AC BUSS 2, AC BUSS 1 BACKUP

Question 372

372. What information must be recorded in the aircraft logbook and the event log after an engine failure/shutdown? (GOM 8-23)

Answer 372

• Engine operating condition prior to shutdown (I.e. stable, surging, etc)
• Engine condition after shutdown including oil pressure
• Total flight time that the engine windmilled
• Any other engine operating parameters exceeded during this flight
• If the engine was shut down with the firewall shutoff

Question 373

373. Can the APU be started in flight? (AOM Vol II 7-36)

Answer 373

No

Question 374

374. Moving the fuel control switch to cutoff does what? (AOM Vol II 7-18)

Answer 374

• Closes Fuel Valve
• Removes Igniter Power
• Unlocks Engine Fire Switch
• Commands Related Hydraulic Demand Pump to Operate when Demand Pump Selector in Auto

Question 375

375. During an in-flight auto-start, what EGT limitation is limiting? (AOM Vol II 7-30)

Answer 375

Takeoff

Question 376

376. How is the engine oil cooled? (AOM Vol II 7-34)

Answer 376

Flowing through the FUEL/OIL HEAT EXCHANGER

Question 377

377. What happens when the oil filter becomes saturated with contaminants? (AOM Vol II 7-34)

Answer 377

Oil bypasses the filter then returns to the reservoir

Question 378

378. Where is the engine oil quantity measured? (AOM Vol II 7-34)

Answer 378

Reservoir

Question 379

379. Describe the APU start sequence. (AOM Vol II 7-36)

Answer 379

• APU Fuel Valve and Inlet Door open simultaneously
• Starter Engagement occurs when Inlet Door is fully open
• continues with Ignition, Light-off and engine acceleration to rated speed

Question 380

380. What is normal N1 and N2 idle? (AOM Vol II 7-3, 8)

Answer 380

White indications

Question 381

381. Where does STBY ignition receive its power from and why do we keep it in NORM? (AOM Vol II 7-32)

Answer 381

• Standby power system (AC then, Standby if AC fails)
• AC power system supplies power to selected igniter
• Standby power system supplies power continuously to both igniters if AC power system is not powered
• 1 or 2 standby system supplies power continuously ONLY to related igniter

Question 382

382. The fuel control switch when placed to RUN with auto-start ON does what? With auto-start OFF? (AOM Vol II 7-18)

Answer 382

ON = opens Spar and Engine fuel valves
- ECC sequences start valve, fuel metering valve and igniter operation
OFF = opens Spar and Engine fuel valves
- energizes igniter (s)

Question 383

383. Approach idle is selected inflight when? (AOM Vol II 7-28)

Answer 383

• NAI is on
• Flaps are in Landing position
• CONT ignition is on

Question 384

384. If an EEC automatically switches to ALT mode, do you lose auto-throttles? Why? (AOM Vol II 7-27)

Answer 384

Yes, because all EEC’s must be in NORM or manually switched to ALT

Question 385

385. What is the reason for approach idle? (AOM Vol II 7-28)

Answer 385

Decrease acceleration time for go-around

Question 386

386. When does approach idle change back to ground idle? (AOM Vol II 7-28)

Answer 386

Five seconds after touchdown, increase thrust from minimum idle and no use of thrust reverser operation

Question 387

387. Does the APU auto shutdown for a fire or do you have to pull the fire switch? (AOM Vol II 8-3)

Answer 387

AUTO

Question 388

388. How long does the APU run after selecting it to OFF? Why? (AOM Vol II 7-37)

Answer 388

• 60 seconds
• for cooling down and fire detection

Question 389

389. When starting the APU off of a TR, what happens if the TR overheats? (AOM Vol II 16-42-2)

Answer 389

Switch to APU battery, removes TR from APU starting circuit

Question 390

390. If we use auto-start for an inflight relight, what EGT limit should be used? How many start attempts? (AOM Vol II 7-30)

Answer 390

• Takeoff EGT limit
• EEC will continue start attempts until stable at IDLE or Fuel Control Switch to Cut Off (unlimited)

Question 391

391. What are some of the Thrust Reference Modes that can be displayed on the Primary EICAS? (AOM Vol II 7-2)

Answer 391

(TO, TO1, TO2), D-TO, (CLB, CLB1, CLB2), CON, CRZ, GA

Question 392

392. With the Autostart ON, what actions are commanded by moving the FUEL CONTROL switch to RUN? (AOM Vol II 7-18)

Answer 392

• Opens Spar and Engine fuel valves
• ECC sequences start valve, fuel metering valve and igniter operation energizes igniter(s)

Question 393

393. What would cause an increase of oil quantity during cruise flight? (AOM Vol II 7-34)

Answer 393

Indicator malfunction or leak in the FUEL/OIL Heat Exchanger

Question 394

394. Where is the engine oil pressure measured? (AOM Vol II 7-34)

Answer 394

Upstream of the engine

Question 395

395. Where is engine oil temperature measured? (AOM Vol II 7-34)

Answer 395

Downstream of the engine

Question 396

396. Can the APU fire bottle be discharged from the ground? (AOM Vol II 8-7,9)

Answer 396

Yes, automatically or by pulling the handle in the wheel well and pushing the button

Question 397

397. There are fire detection and extinguishing systems for which areas of the airplane? (AOM Vol II 8-8)

Answer 397

• APU
• Cargo Compartments
• Engines
• Lavatories

Question 398

398. How can the fire bell be silenced? (AOM Vol II 8-8)

Answer 398

• Extinguishing the fire
• Pushing either Master Warning/Caution reset switch (wheel well horn continues to sound)
• Pulling the APU fire control switch in the right wheel well

Question 399

399. Is the Main Deck Cargo Compartment an “AND” or “OR” logic configuration? (AOM Vol II 8-9)

Answer 399

AND

Question 400

400. When are the Engine and APU detector loops monitored for faults? (AOM Vol II 8-11)

Answer 400

The engine and APU detector loops are continuously monitored for faults. In addition to continuous testing of engine and APU detection systems, testing of all dual loop fire/overheat detectors and cargo compartment smoke detectors occurs when electrical power is initially applied.

Question 401

401. If the cargo smoke detectors are configured for single loop operation due to a fault, automatic testing of the system is conducted when? (AOM Vol II 8-11)

Answer 401

Every 60 minutes

Question 402

402. For engine fire on the ground, why do we wait for a positive engine shutdown before proceeding?

Answer 402

Ensures fuel no longer flowing to engine, feeding the fire

Question 403

403. When the Main Cargo ARM switch is pushed, what occurs? (AOM Vol II 8-4)

Answer 403

• Enables main deck fire suppression
• Turns off 2 packs
• Configures equipment cooling to closed loop
• Turns off all airflow to main deck
• Turns off airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
• Closes master trim air valve

Question 404

404. There are fire detection and protection systems for which areas of the aircraft? (AOM Vol II 8-9)

Answer 404

• Main deck cargo compartment
• Lower cargo compartment forward and aft

Question 405

405. What does the EICAS message >DET FIRE APU indicate? (AOM Vol II 8-13)

Answer 405

APU fire detection loops A or B failed

Question 406

406. Pulling the engine fire handle does what? (AOM Vol II 8-1)

Answer 406

• Closes the related engine and spar fuel valves
• Closes the related engine bleed air valve
• Trips the related engine generator
• Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the related engine driven hydraulic pump
• Depressurizes the related engine driven hydraulic pump
• Arm both related engine fire extinguishers

Question 407

407. Pushing the Main Cargo AFT/FWD Fire ARM switch does what? (AOM Vol II 8-4)

Answer 407

• Turns off 2 packs
• Arms lower cargo compartment fire extinguishers
• Confirms equipment cooling to override mode
• Turns off all airflow and heat into lower cargo compartments
• Closes master trim air valve

Question 408

408. Memory item for Engine Fire On The Ground? (QRH BC-1)

Answer 408

FUEL CTRL SWITCH (affected engine)………………………………..CUTOFF
WARNING: DO NOT PROCEED UNTIL ENGINE HAS SHUTDOWN

If fire indication persists after engine shutdown
ENGINE FIRE SWITCH (affected engine)……………………………..PULL
ENGINE FIRE SWITCH (affected engine)……………………………..ROTATE

After a momentary delay:
ENGINE FIRE SWITCH (affected engine)……………………………..ROTATE (to other bottle)
Discharge the second fire bottle regardless of fire indications

Question 409

409. Engine 4 is running, while starting engine 1, number 4 generator drops offline, do you have fire detection or protection or both? (AOM Vol II 6-21)

Answer 409

• Yes
• APU Batt Bus for Detection and Main Hot Batt Bus for Extinguishing (protection)

Question 410

410. What is being tested when pushing a Squib Test button? (AOM Vol II 8-12)

Answer 410

• Electrical continuity
• Squib control circuit
• Squib lights

Question 411

411. What are the indications a fire bottle has been discharged or has low pressure? (AOM Vol II 8-1,13)

Answer 411

• Amber BTL DISCHARGE lights on overhead panel and EICAS advisory (BTL LO L, R), (ENG A, B)

Question 412

412. What will release the Engine Fire Handle? (AOM Vol II 8-1)

Answer 412

• Fire Warning
• Fuel Control Switch in CUTOFF
• Push override lock switch

Question 413

413. When configuring the CDU for takeoff, what is considered reasonable when comparing the FMC generator stabilizer trim to the ACARS or TLR Stabilizer Trim table? (AOM PERF-21)

Answer 413

No more than 2 units is reasonable

Question 414

414. With the autopilot engaged, will operation of the alternate trim switches cause the autopilot to disconnect? (AOM Vol II 9-17)

Answer 414

NO

Question 415

415. Is asymmetric flap protection available in ALTN mode? (AOM Vol II 9-24)

Answer 415

NO

Question 416

416. Will the flap lever operate with the ALTN flap switch armed? (AOM Vol II 9-24)

Answer 416

NO

Question 417

417. What will happen if the Alternate Stabilizer Trim switches and Control Wheel switches are held in opposite directions? (AOM Vol II 9-16)

Answer 417

No trim is commanded

Question 418

418. If automatic Stabilizer Trim cutout occurs, how is hydraulic power restored to the related control module? (AOM Vol II 9-16)

Answer 418

Stab Trim Cutout Switch to On

Question 419

419. Control column trim cutoff function does not affect which form of trim actuation? (AOM Vol II 9-17)

Answer 419

Alternate Trim Inputs

Question 420

420. What system allows rudder control to be regained if a jam occurs? (AOM Vol II 9-20)

Answer 420

Rudder system shearouts allow rudder control to be regained if a jam occurs or significant manual force is applied to rudder pedals

Question 421

421. What will cause the >SPEEDBRAKES EXT EICAS message to display? (AOM Vol II 9-22)

Answer 421

Displayed when speedbrake lever is aft of arm and:
- RA between 800’ and 15’
Or
- Flaps in landing configuration
Or
- Two or more thrust levers forward of closed position

Question 422

422. With EICAS advisory message SPEEDBRAKE AUTO displayed. Moving the speed brake lever to the ARM position could cause what to occur? (AOM Vol II 9-22)

Answer 422

If the speedbrake lever is in ARM position, the message indicates a fault which could result in inadvertent spoiler extension in flight

Question 423

423. What are the basic functions of the Flap Control Units (AOM Vol II 9-24)

Answer 423

• Primary control
• Secondary control
• Indication and annunciation

They also provide trailing edge flap symmetry protection in the primary and secondary modes, control the flap load relief function in primary mode only and provide flap position information to EICAS and other systems

Question 424

424. The Flap Control Units provide load relief protection at what flap settings? (AOM Vol II 9-25)

Answer 424

25 and 30

Question 425

425. When will the rising runway on the PFD move towards the plane symbol? (AOM Vol II 10-10)

Answer 425

Moves towards the airplane symbol below 200’ radio altitude (displays below 1000’ RA)

Question 426

426. Will the speed brakes automatically extend on landing if they are not armed? (AOM Vol II 9-22)

Answer 426

• Main gear on the ground
• Thrust levers 1 and 3 near the closed position
• Reverse thrust 2 and 4 are pulled to idle detent

Question 427

427. How many spoilers does the airplane have? Flight? Roll? Ground? (AOM Vol 9-22)

Answer 427

• 6 spoilers on each wing (12 total)
• Flight: 4 inboard panels on each wing act as speed brakes (8 total)
• Roll: 2 on each wing for roll (4 total)
• Ground: All 6 on each wing go to full on landing (12 total)

Question 428

428. Speedbrakes should be limited to no more than Flaps _____ to avoid _____? (Flight Training 4-13)

Answer 428

Flaps 5, to avoid Buffeting

Question 429

429. What causes the Speedbrakes to deploy on landing when armed? Not Armed? (AOM Vol II 9-22)

Answer 429

ARMED:
- Thrust levers 1 and 3 near the closed position
- Main landing gear touch down

NOT ARMED:
- Main gear on the ground
- Thrust levers 1 and 3 near the closed position
- Reverse thrust 2 and 4 are pulled to idle detent

Question 430

430. With both primary and secondary control of the flaps, what is the purpose of the Alternate Flap switch? (AOM Vol II 9-24)

Answer 430

To be able to extend or retract the flaps of flap handle is inoperative

Question 431

431. During reverse thrust, which leading edge flap groups automatically retract? Does the flap indicator change to reflect in transit?

Answer 431

• Inboard and mid span leading edge flaps
• Flaps change the flap position indicator to reflect flaps in transit

Question 432

432. Does the EICAS message >FLAP LOAD RELIEF require a logbook write up? (AOM Vol II 9-25, GOM Ch8 8-75)

Answer 432

YES,

• Flap relieve function operates if flap airspeed limits are exceeded with flaps 25 or 30
• Event log reporting: Flap limit exceedence

Question 433

433. What does the EICAS message >SPEEDBRAKE EXT mean? (AOM Vol II 9-22)

Answer 433

Is displayed when speedbrake lever is aft of arm

And

• RA between 800’ and 15’
  Or
• Flap in landing configuration
  Or
• Two or more thrust levers forward of closed position

Question 434

434. Which spoiler panels have position indicators? What are the indications on the STATUS page on the ground? Inflight? (AOM Vol II 9-22)

Answer 434

Left Wing: forth spoiler panel in from the wingtip; This panel functions as a flight spoiler, speedbrake and ground spoiler

Right Wing: outboard-most spoiler; This panel functions as a flight spoiler and ground spoiler only. Therefore, speedbrake extension is not indicated on the right wing spoiler position indicator

Question 435

435. When does the green band turn on? (AOM Vol 9-16)

Answer 435

FMC loaded with CG, gross weight and takeoff thrust setting

Question 436

436. The FO’s PFD and ND are powered from which BUS? (AOM Vol II 6-13)

Answer 436

The First Officer’s Transfer Bus, which is normally powered by AC bus 2. If AC Bus 2 is unpowered AC Bus 1 powers the F/O Transfer Bus

Question 437

437. At what altitude will flap maneuvering speeds not be displayed? (AOM Vol II 10-4)

Answer 437

Not displayed above approximately 20,000’

Question 438

438. What degree of bank is indicated by the scale marks displayed on the PFD? (AOM Vol II 10-5)

Answer 438

Scale marks are at 0, 10, 20, 30 and 45 degrees

Question 439

439. When will the rising runway on the PFD move toward the airplane symbol? (AOM Vol II 10-10)

Answer 439

• Displays below 1000’ RA when localizer pointer is in view
• Moves towards the airplane symbol below 200’ RA

Question 440

440. What do the angle-of-attack vanes measure? (AOM Vol II 10-53)

Answer 440

The vanes measure airplane angle of attack relative to the air mass

Question 441

441. What is the power source for the Stanby Attitude Indicator? (AOM Vol II 10-51)

Answer 441

The Main Battery

Question 442

442. How can the Command Airspeed Bug (CAB) be controlled? (AOM Vol II 4-4)

Answer 442

IAS/MACH selector
- WINDOW CLOSED: FMC computed target speed is active and displayed on PFD’s
- WINDOW OPEN: FMC speed-intervention as active and IAS/MACH selector may be used to set command speed

Question 443

443. With TERR displayed on the ND, what does an amber color displayed indicate? (AOM Vol II 15-13)

Answer 443

Dotted Amber: terrain 500’ (250’ with gear down) below to 2000’ above airplane altitude

Question 444

444. Where is the ILS frequency and inbound course displayed? (AOM Vol II 10-9, 11-15)

Answer 444

• ILS frequency is in top left corner of PFD
• ILS course is in bottom left corner of PFD

Question 445

445. When is the pitch limit indicator (PLI) on the PFD not displayed? (AOM Vol II 10-5)

Answer 445

When flaps are up

Question 446

446. Which ND modes select “TRACK UP”? “HEADING UP”? (AOM Vol II 10-28, 59)

Answer 446

• Track up: MAP
• Heading up: APP, VOR
• True North up: PLN

Question 447

447. Turbulence is displayed on RADAR when selected and? (AOM Vol II 11-10)

Answer 447

Within precipitation at selected gain level, turbulence display available with display ranges of 40NM or less

Question 448

448. How many IRUs? How many FMSs? How many LRNs? (AOM Vol II 11-13)

Answer 448

• 3 IRU
• 2 FMS
• 2 GPS (IRU’s GPS)

Question 449

449. If you lose the right IRU, what indications will be on the ND in the lower right corner?

Answer 449

?????

Question 450

450. What 3 things do the IRUs give us? (AOM Vol II 11-13)

Answer 450

HATSWAP
- Heading
- Acceleration
- Track
- Speed (ground and vertical speed)
- Wind
- Attitude
- Position

Question 451

451. What is an indication a failed EIU has not auto transferred? (????)

Answer 451

PFD and ND blank

Question 452

452. What is the meaning of the green Airspeed trend arrow? (AOM Vol II 10-2)

Answer 452

Indicates predicted airspeed in ten seconds based on current acceleration or deceleration

Question 453

453. How can an active HOLD be identified on the ND? (AOM Vol II 10-69)

Answer 453

• Magenta in color
• Pattern increases to correct size when entering hold

Question 454

454. How do we monitor an NDB when conducting an approach? (AOM Vol I SP-96)

Answer 454

Monitor raw data on the ND MAP display

Question 455

455. When does the rising runway first appear on the ND? (AOM Vol II 10-10)

Answer 455

Displays below 1000’ RA when localizer pointer is in view

Question 456

456. When configuring the CDU for takeoff, what N1 or EPR requires additional review and verification that all takeoff data request parameters were entered correctly? (AOM Vol I SP-20, note 5)

Answer 456

N1 less than 90% or EPR less than 1.20

Question 457

457. When descending in hours of darkness or IMC conditions and not established on an approach procedure, what are descent rates be limited to? (GOM 5-39)

Answer 457

• Within 5000’ AGL - 2000’/min
• Within 2000’ AGL - 1000’/min

Question 458

458. What should you do if you lose a FMC (AOM Vol II 11-52)

Answer 458

• The active route may become inactive, the performance data may be lost and LNAV and VNAV modes may fail. To regain FMC operation, activate and execute the flight plan, enter the necessary performance data and select LNAV and VNAV
• In flight, the scratchpad message SINGLE FMC OPERATION displays on only one CDU after loss of the FMC not selected on the FMC selector. The scratchpad message TIMEOUT-RESELECT displays on the CDU with the inoperative FMC. When the FMC selector is rotated to the operative FMC, the FMC is available through the CDU

Question 459

459. Can or should you takeoff with fuel imbalance EICAS message showing? (AOM Vol I SP-102, AOM Vol II 12-18)

Answer 459

No (only depart after fuel is balanced and not out of limits)
- Fuel difference of 3000lbs between main tanks 1 and 4. Message no longer displayed when difference less than 1000lbs
- Fuel difference of 6000lbs between main tanks 2 and 3. Message no longer displayed when difference less than 1000lbs

Question 460

460. Main tanks 2 and 3 Override/Jettison pumps will drain their respective tanks to what standpipe level? (AOM Vol II 12-8)

Answer 460

Approximately 7000lbs

Question 461

461. If A/C power is unavailable, how is fuel supplied to the APU? (AOM Vol II 12-14)

Answer 461

Dedicated DC in main tank 2 supplies fuel to APU

(When AC power is available, fuel is supplied by main pump 2 aft)

Question 462

462. How is fuel jettison verified? (AOM Vol II 12-16)

Answer 462

Jettison is verified by observing decreasing tank quantities

Question 463

463. When do reserve tanks 2 and 3 transfer? (AOM Vol II 12-16)

Answer 463

When main tank 2 and 3 decreases to 40000lbs

Question 464

464. When are transfer valves 1 and 4 used? (AOM Vol II 12-16)

Answer 464

When either main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to 20000lbs

Question 465

465. At what fuel quantity can we expect to go to “Tank to Engine”? (AOM Vol II 12-15)

Answer 465

FUEL TANK/ENG displays when main tank 2 quantity is equal to or less than main tank 1 quantity or when main tank 3 quantity is equal or less than main tank 4 quantity

Question 466

466. When should the CWT pump switches be turned ON? OFF? (AOM Vol II 12-14, 15)

Answer 466

ON: with 17000 lbs or more fuel in the Center Wing Tank (CWT)
OFF: with less than 17000 lbs fuel in the CWT
IN CLIMB: FUEL LO CTR - tank quantity is approximately 7000 lbs, pump switches should be OFF
IN CRUISE: FUEL OVD CTR - tank quantity is 4000 lbs or more, pump switches should be ON

FUEL LOW CTR - tank quantity is less than 3000 lbs, pump switches should be off

Question 467

467. What does the EICAS message FUEL TANK/ENGINE indicate? (AOM Vol II 12-15)

Answer 467

Displays when main tank 2 quantity is equal to or less than main tank 1 quantity or when main tank 3 quantity is equal to or less than main tank 4 quantity

Question 468

468. Before preflight, what are the indications on the fuel pump switches? (AOM Vol II 12-14)

Answer 468

Low pressure lights are illuminated on the main pump switches and extinguished on the override and CWT pump switches

Question 469

469. Fuel temperature is measured from which tank? (AOM Vol II 12-8)

Answer 469

Main tank 1

Question 470

470. With 360,000 lbs of fuel loaded on the plane, describe the fuel configurations from engine start to flap retraction. (AOM Vol II 15-14)

Answer 470

CWT pump switches should be ON. The FSMCs close crossfeed valves 2 and 3 when flaps extend to takeoff position on the ground. Override/Jettison pumps 2 and 3 are inhibited from operating when pressure is detected from both CWT Override/Jettison pumps. The CWT Override/Jettison pumps provide fuel to engines 1 and 4 and main pumps 2 and 3 provide fuel to their related engine.

Question 471

471. What 2 ways do we verify fuel in the respective tank if there is a fuel tank quantity indicator DMI’d? (MEL 28-55)

Answer 471

• Use measuring sticks
• Empty tanks and fill with known quantity

Question 472

472. Do you get a beeper if you forget to turn off the “CWT FUEL PRESS L & R” EICAS message? (AOM Vol II 12-19)

Answer 472

Yes, after 60 seconds

Question 473

473. What does the EICAS message “FUEL IMBALANCE” mean? (AOM Vol II 12-18)

Answer 473

Fuel differences of 6000 lbs between inboard main tanks 2 and 3 and outboard main tanks 1 and 4 after reaching FUEL TANK/ENG condition. Message no longer displayed when difference less than 1000 lbs

Question 474

474. What provides fuel pressure to the APU with no AC power? (AOM Vol II 12-14)

Answer 474

Dedicated DC pump in main tank 2 supplies fuel to APU

Question 475

475. Can the fuel jettison valves be opened on the ground?

Answer 475

Yes, but it is a maintenance procedure

Question 476

476. What is the maximum fuel temperature allowed? (AOM Vol I L-17)

Answer 476

+54 C is max fuel temperature

Question 477

477. With system 4 unpressurized, can you set the parking brake? (AOM Vol II 14-13, 15)

Answer 477

YES
- the parking brake can be set with the normal brakes (sys 4) or Alternate brakes (sys 1 or 2) if all are not pressurized, the parking brake pressure will be maintained by the accumulator

Question 478

478. When will demand pumps 1 and 4 operate in AUTO? (AOM Vol II 13-1)

Answer 478

• Engine pump output pressure is low
• Related fuel control switch is in CUTOFF
• 1 & 4 also operate when flaps are in transit or flaps out of up in flight

Question 479

479. If the Hydraulic Quantity Interface Module fails because of an over-voltage condition, what false indications might be experienced? (AOM Vol II 13-5)

Answer 479

• Hydraulic SYS FAULT lights flashing on and off
• > HYD QTY LOW X advisory messages appearing and disappearing
• EICAS hydraulic quantity indications decreasing and increasing

Question 480

480. Why is bleed air used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs? (AOM Vol II 13-5)

Answer 480

To prevent pump cavitation and ensure positive flow during high demand conditions

Question 481

481. Will RF display on the hydraulic synoptic in flight? (AOM Vol II 13-5)

Answer 481

RF is inhibited in flight

Question 482

482. Why do we pressurize hydraulic system 4 first? (AOM Vol II 14-15)

Answer 482

Pressurizing system 4 enables normal brakes

Question 483

483. Hydraulic system #1 provides power to which aircraft components? (AOM Vol II 13-6)

Answer 483

• Inboard Trailing edge flaps
• Body gear steering, actuation
• Alternate brakes
• Nose gear steering, actuation
• Primary flight controls
• Center autopilot

Question 484

484. How are the hydraulic demand pumps powered? (AOM Vol II 13-5)

Answer 484

• System 1 & 4 have air driven demand pumps
• System 2 & 3 have electric motor driven demand pumps (some all air)

Question 485

485. What components are lost with a loss of hydraulic system 1? (QRH 13-2)

Answer 485

• Left outboard elevator
• Inboard trailing edge flap hydraulic operation inop (flaps now move in secondary mode)
• Nose and body gear hydraulic extension and retraction inop
• Nose and body gear steering inop
• System 1 alternate brake source inop

Question 486

486. Which hydraulic demand pumps are electric? Air? (AOM Vol II 13-5)

Answer 486

• System 1 & 4 have air driven demand pumps (the bleed air manifold provides pneumatic power for the air driven pumps)
• System 2 & 3 have electric motor driven demand pumps

Question 487

487. You are landing with number 1 hydraulic system inoperative, are there any concerns? (QRH 13-2)

Answer 487

• Extra time for flap extension
• Alternate gear extension is needed
• A tow will be needed after landing
• System 4 and 2 alternate brake sources are available

Question 488

488. Can you run the #4 AUX hydraulic pump with a GPU plugged in and power available? (AOM Vol II 6-13)

Answer 488

YES

(the ground handling bus is powered on the ground when APU generator 1 or external power 1 is available)

Question 489

489. What BUS is the #4 AUX hydraulic pump on? (AOM Vol II 6-13)

Answer 489

Ground Handling Bus

Question 490

490. The hydraulic demand pumps come on when? Specifically, which ones? (AOM Vol II 13-5)

Answer 490

• The demand pumps supply normal system demands if an engine or EDP fails
• System 1 and 4 have air driven demand pumps (the bleed air manifold provides pneumatic power for the air driven pumps)
• System 2 and 3 have electric motor driven demand pumps

Question 491

491. You have 1 brake deactivated using the capped line method. Are there any performance issues and if so, how would they be applied? (MEL 32-41-1B)

Answer 491

• Use the Aerodata selection for “1 or 2 DEACT CAPPED LINE” when calculating aircraft performance
• The landing gear must remain extended for a minimum of 2 minutes after takeoff to permit affected wheels to spin down prior to gear retraction
• Increase flight planning fuel by 1300 lbs

Question 492

492. Pushing rudder pedals fully will turn the nose wheel how many degrees in either direction? (AOM Vol II 14-12)

Answer 492

7 degrees in either direction

Question 493

493. During Alternate gear extension, what pulls the down locks into the locked position? (AOM Vol II 14-12)

Answer 493

Springs pull the down locks into the locked position

Question 494

494. Nose gear extension provides signals to what systems? (AOM Vol II 14-11)

Answer 494

Nose gear extension sensing provides a signal to relays controlling functions in the stall warning and nose gear steering systems

Question 495

495. How does the brake torque system work with alternate brakes? (AOM Vol II 14-13)

Answer 495

Brake torque is sensed on an individual wheel basis, however the signal is sent to the alternate antiskid valve and brake pressure is released on a laterally paired wheel basis

Question 496

496. When is the BTMS accurate? (FTM 6-18)

Answer 496

A stabilized value approximately 15 minutes after brake energy absorption

Question 497

497. Is reverse thrust considered with the brake cooling schedule? (QRH PI 1-13)

Answer 497

NO

Question 498

498. One tire on the BTMS indicates 2, are there any special procedures? (QRH PI 1-13)

Answer 498

Brake cooling schedule chart must be reviewed

Question 499

499. What will disarm the Autobrakes? (AOM Vol II 14-14)

Answer 499

The system disarms immediately if any of the following occur:
- Pedal brakes applied
- Any thrust lever advanced after landing
- Speed brakes lever moved to DOWN detent after they have deployed
- DISARM or OFF position selected on Autobrakes selector
- Auto brake fault
- Normal antiskid system fault
- Loss of normal brake hydraulic pressure

Question 500

500. With a loss of hydraulic system 4, how is the operation of the autobrake system affected? (AOM Vol II 14-13, 14)

Answer 500

The system operates only when the normal brake system is functioning. The normal brake system is powered by hydraulic system 4.

Question 501

501. When is body gear steering activated? (AOM Vol II 14-12)

Answer 501

• When nose wheel steering angle exceeds 20 degrees
• Ground speed decreases below 15kts, as increase through 20kts it centers and deactivates

Question 502

502. When is RTO activated on a rejected takeoff is selected? (AOM Vol II 14-14)

Answer 502

• The airplane is on the ground
• Ground speed is above 85 knots
• All thrust levers closed

Question 503

503. The brake source light is monitoring which systems? (AOM Vol II 14-13)

Answer 503

Loss of hydraulic systems 4, 1, and 2 causes the brake source light to illuminate

Question 504

504. What is the highest Brake Temp number on the GEAR synoptic? (AOM Vol II 14-8)

Answer 504

9 (range 0-9)

• Brake temp advisory at 5, also when the temp turns amber on the synoptic

Question 505

505. Do we have to write up a “>BRAKE TEMP” EICAS message? (AOM Vol I NP-101)

Answer 505

Yes, if the QRH contains a procedure associated with an EICAS message (i.e. BRAKE TEMP) it must be reported in the logbook

Question 506

506. What will cause the autobrakes to disarm? (AOM Vol II 14-14)

Answer 506

The system disarms immediately if any of the following occur:
- Pedal brakes applied
- Any thrust lever advanced after landing
- Speed brakes lever moved to DOWN detent after they have deployed
- DISARM or OFF position selected on AUTOBRAKES selector
- Auto brake fault
- Normal antiskid system fault
- Loss of normal brake hydraulic pressure

Question 507

507. With auto brakes armed, brake application begins when? (AOM Vol II 14-14)

Answer 507

• All thrust levers are closed
• Ground mode is sensed
• The wheels have spun up

Question 508

508. Body gear steering operates when nose wheel steering angle exceeds how many degrees? (AOM Vol II 14-12)

Answer 508

Exceeds 20 degrees

Question 509

509. What must you have to get auto-brakes? (AOM Vol II 14-14)

Answer 509

The system operates only when the NORMAL BRAKE system is functioning

Question 510

510. How is the predictive wind-shear system different from the reactive windshear system? How should you react to either warning? (AOM Vol II 15-41, QRH 16-13)

Answer 510

Activates at different points (reactive - Vr to 1500’)

• The PWS increases alerting time over that provided by the reactive wind shear system included in the EGPWS
• Caution: Monitor Radar Display???
• Warning: Windshear Escape Maneuver (found in QRH 16-13)

Question 511

511. When is the STATUS cue inhibited? (AOM Vol II 15-2)

Answer 511

• from after engine start until 30 minutes after lift off
• if secondary engine exceedence cue is displayed

Question 512

512. A vertical arrow on the ND traffic display indicates the traffic is climbing or descending at what rate? (AOM Vol II 10-72)

Answer 512

Climbing or descending at a rate greater than or equal to 500 fpm

Question 513

513. When is the MCP Selected Altitude alert inhibited? (AOM Vol II 15-28)

Answer 513

• Glide slope captured
• Landing flaps selected and landing gear down and locked

Question 514

514. Predictive Windshear system operates only below what altitude? (AOM Vol II 15-41)

Answer 514

Below 2300’ RA

(Cautions and warnings only generated below 1200’ AGL)

Question 515

515. The Event Record switch will record how many events? (AOM Vol II 15-16)

Answer 515

Records up to 5 EICAS events

Question 516

516. What is the purpose of the EIUs? (AOM Vol II 10-47)

Answer 516

Three identical EFIS/EICAS interface units (EIUs) receive airplane system information. The EIUs supply information to the flight crew on six display units. These units display three primary groups of information:
- Primary flight display (PFD)
- Navigation display (ND)
- Engine indication and crew alerting system (EICAS)

Question 517

517. The Predictive Windshear System (PWS) is active when? Are there any restrictions? (AOM Vol II 15-42, 43)

Answer 517

MANUALLY: on the ground when WXR is selected on EFIS control panel and the weather radar is in any mode other than TEST
AUTOMATICALLY: on the ground when takeoff thrust is (60% to 70% N1) is set
AUTOMATICALLY: in flight below 2300’ (need 12 seconds of sweep in direction of T/O to get accurate picture)

RESTRICTIONS:
- During takeoff, new warning alerts are inhibited on the ground above 100 kts until reaching 50’ AGL. New caution alerts are inhibited from 80 kts until reaching 400’ AGL.
- During approach and landing, new caution alerts are inhibited below 400’ AGL. New warning alerts are inhibited below 50’ AGL.
- All caution and warning alerts are inhibited above 1200’ AGL

Question 518

518. What conditions trigger an EICAS Altitude Alert? (AOM Vol II 15-28)

Answer 518

When departing the selected altitude by 300’

Question 519

519. Terrain displays (TWAS) are either solid or dotted, green, amber or red. What are the differences? (AOM Vol II 15-13)

Answer 519

• Dotted Green: terrain from 2000’ below to 500’ (250’ with gear down) below airplane altitude
• Dotted Amber: terrain 500’ (250’ with gear down) below to 2000’ above airplane altitude
• Dotted Red: terrain more than 2000’ above airplane altitude

Question 520

520. When are the MCP altitude alerts inhibited? (AOM Vol II 15-28)

Answer 520

• Glide slope captured
• Landing flaps selected and landing gear down and locked

Question 521

521. During engine start, all EICAS caution and advisory messages are inhibited, except? (AOM Vol II 15-46)

Answer 521

• Bleed
• Engine Autostart
• Engine Fuel Valve
• Engine Shutdown
• Engine Start Valve
• Starter Cutout

Question 522

522. What two conditions would drive the magenta CAB to the bottom of the overspeed indication? (FTM 4-3)

Answer 522

At heavy weights or high cost index, the ECON climb speed can be very close to VMO/MMO

Question 523

523. When directed by the QRH, pushing the Ground Proximity Flap Override switch inhibits what? (AOM Vol II 15-11)

Answer 523

Inhibits TOO LOW FLAPS alert

Question 524

524. What is monitored by the takeoff warning system? (AOM Vol II 15-27)

Answer 524

The respective EICAS alert message CONFIGURE is displayed when; aircraft is on the ground, fuel control switches are in Run, engine 2 and 3 are in takeoff range and airspeed less than V1
- Flaps not in takeoff position
- Brady gear not centered
- Parking brake set
- Speed brake lever not in DN detent
- Stabilizer trim not in takeoff range

Question 525

525. What is the wingspan in meters and feet? (AOM Vol II 1-1)

Answer 525

• 65 Meters
• 211’5”

Question 526

526. Is there a limitation prohibiting speed brakes and landing flaps? (FTC 4-13, AOM Vol I NP-87)

Answer 526

Speedbrakes should be retracted before reaching 1000’ AGL

Question 527

527. What is the Maximum Zero Fuel Weight for the B747-4R7F Freighter? (AOM Vol I L-7)

Answer 527

610,000 lbs

Question 528

528. On a cargo only flight with no live animals on board, what is the maximum number of supernumeraries allowed in the cargo compartment? (AOM Vol I L-15)

Answer 528

3 supernumeraries and they must carry a portable oxygen dispensing unit

Question 529

529. Will the aircraft primary ice detection system respond to ice crystals? (AOM Vol I L-19)

Answer 529

NO (the primary ice detection system does not respond to ice crystals)

Question 530

530. The APU may not be operated below what pressure altitude? (AOM Vol I L-21)

Answer 530

1000’ pressure altitude

Question 531

531. What is the minimum oil pressure for the PW4056 engine? (AOM Vol I L-24)

Answer 531

70 PSI

Question 532

532. Main deck and lower cargo areas are classified as? (AOM Vol I L-2)

Answer 532

• Main deck is Class E (can shut off all airflow)
• Lower deck is Class C (built in extinguishing)

Question 533

533. Are there any restrictions when operating with the gear down? (AOM Vol I L-13)

Answer 533

• Use of Aerodata selection for Landing Gear Extended is required
• Operation in RVSM airspace is prohibited
• Overwater flight is limited to 50 miles from land
• MTOW: 720,000 lbs
• Vmo: 270 kts
• Mmo: .73 Mach

Question 534

534. What are the maximum allowable wind speeds for an auto land? (AOM Vol I L-15)

Answer 534

• Headwind: 25kts
• Tailwing: 15kts
• Crosswind CAT I or better: 25kts
• Crosswind CAT II/III: 15kts

Question 535

535. What are the landing gear operating speeds? (AOM Vol I L-11)

Answer 535

• Retract or Extend: 270kts/.82M
  Gear extended: 320kts/.82M

Question 536

536. What is the crosswind limit for a CAT II/III approach? (AOM Vol I L-15)

Answer 536

15kts

Question 537

537. Could we do a gear down ferry from KLAX to PHNL? (AOM Vol I L-13)

Answer 537

NO

(Overwater flight is limited to 50 miles from land with landing gear extended

Question 538

538. What is the max differential pressure relief valve? How do we tell if it occurred? (AOM Vol I L-15, AOM Vol II 2-23)

Answer 538

• 9.4 PSI
• Two mechanical positive relief valves on side of aircraft. One or both valves open when cabin pressure becomes excessive. Will close when pressure is no longer excessive

Question 539

539. The main cargo compartment is a class ___ compartment? (AOM Vol II 8-11)

Answer 539

Class E compartment

Question 540

540. The lower aft and forward compartments are Class _____ compartments? (AOM Vol I L-2)

Answer 540

Class C Compartment