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OKE (200) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. When is a takeoff alternate required?
A

If weather conditions at departure airport are below landing minimums for that airport. (Including CA high mins) (GOM 5-72)

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2
Q
  1. What requirements and distance does the takeoff alternate need to comply with?
A

2 hours at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative (GOM 5-72)

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3
Q
  1. What phases of flight require use of headsets and boom microphones?
A

Anytime below 18000’ and all critical phases of flight (GOM 5-4)

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4
Q
  1. If an approach requires TACAN equipment, may that procedure be used if it is in the FMS database?
A

TACAN approaches may only be used if entire procedure can be loaded from FMS database, including MAP’s (GOM 5-122)

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5
Q
  1. What are the domestic and international holding speeds? When is the earliest you may slow to the appropriate maximum holding speed?
A

Domestic (FAA): (GOM 5-48)
- up to and including 6000’ - 200kts
- above 6000’ up to and including 14000’ - 230kts
- above 14000’ - 265kts

International (ICAO): (GOM 5-48)
- up to and including 14000’ - 230kts
- above 14000’ up to and including 20000’ - 240kts
- above 20000’ up to and including 34000’ - 265kts
- above 34000’ - Mach 0.83

You may slow 3 minutes prior to entering hold

Jeppesen airway manuals have individual country requirements

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6
Q
  1. Where are the touchdown zone lights located on the runway and how far do they extend?
A

Begin 100’ from the threshold and extend in 100’ intervals to 3000’ (FAR 2-1-5B)

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7
Q
  1. Above what altitude must one pilot don and use oxygen when the other pilot is absent from his duty station?
A

Above FL410 (GOM 5-9)

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8
Q
  1. When must one pilot be on oxygen at all times? Should Normal or 100% oxygen be used?
A
  • Above FL410
  • Normal (GOM 5-9)
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9
Q
  1. What is the maximum distance from the airport you may accept a visual approach?
A

35 miles (GOM 5-126)

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10
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed when conducting a procedure turn course reversal maneuver in the US?
A

200kts (AIM 5-4-9)

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11
Q
  1. What is the only scenario that allows you to begin an approach (prior to the final approach fix) when reported visibility is below published minimums (excluding PIC emergency authority)?
A

Both ILS and PAR available and used

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12
Q
  1. On a CAT III approach, to continue below AH (Alert Height) what conditions must be met?
A

No throttle faults and “LAND 3” must be displayed (GOM 5-139)

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13
Q
  1. Are you authorized to conduct circling approaches or circling maneuvers? If so, under what conditions?
A

Circling Approaches not authorized, but Circling maneuvers are approved. Weather must be at least 1000’ and 3sm or higher published minimums (GOM p345/352)

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14
Q
  1. If visual reference is lost during a circling maneuver, describe the missed approach procedure.
A

Make initial turn towards landing runway and continue turn until established on published missed approach procedure. (GOM 346)

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15
Q
  1. What is the maximum distance from the runway you may fly during a circling maneuver?
A

2.3 miles (GOM p346)

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16
Q
  1. What is the validity period for the FDE summary on the flight release?
A

20 minutes prior to 2 hours after scheduled departure (GOM p553/554)

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17
Q
  1. When may a flight depart early?
A

Coordination must occur with flight follower unless AMC, you may depart up to 20 minutes early. (GOM p437)

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18
Q
  1. If a First Officer has less than 100 hours in type can he/she perform the TAKE OFF when the reported RVR is 1800?
A

No, unless with a check airman, a FO cannot make a T/O or Landing with visibility below 4000 RVR or 3/4 sm. (GOM p225)

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19
Q
  1. Who is jointly responsible for initiating, continuing, diverting and/or terminating Company flights IAW the FAR, Company procedures and Company OpSpecs?
A

The Director of Operations and the PIC (GOM p221)

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20
Q
  1. If the Director of Operations delegates the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting and terminating flights to Flight Following personnel, does flight following also bear the responsibility of those functions?
A

No, the Director of Operations may delegate functions for flight followers but not responsibility (GOM p221)

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21
Q
  1. The PIC has full control and authority for the operation and safety of the aircraft, without limitation. TRUE or FALSE?
A

True (GOM p222)

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22
Q
  1. What is the GOM’s definition of standardization of flight procedures?
A

Standardization is crucial in maximizing flight safety and reducing pilot confusion in the cockpit. (GOM p226)

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23
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the aircraft loading checklist and who can review and sign the document?
A

Used to inform pilots the aircraft has been loaded correctly and is configured for departure. It is signed by the loadmaster / station representative and then signed by the PIC. (GOM p283)

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24
Q
  1. After the weight and balance computations are generated on the computer, what steps must be completed once the forms are printed?
A

Captain signs the load sheet, circles ZFW, TOGW and Takeoff CG, compares TOGW is no more than 1000lbs less than PTOW or more than PTOW PLUS (TLR). (AOM I p114)

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25
Q
  1. What FAA approved computerized runway analysis system is used to compute real time takeoff and landing data for air crews and flight following personnel?
A

Aerodata (AOM I p321)

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26
Q
  1. What are the limitations on the use of the CMV (converted meteorological visibility)?
A

Should not be used:
- when reported RVR is available
- for calculating T/O minima
- for other RMR minima less than 800m (GOM p293)

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27
Q
  1. Under what circumstances can you select DRY for Dispatch Landing performance?
A
  • Smooth or grooved surface and runway reported dry with scattered showers forecast
  • Runway is grooved and reported dry with:
    • Drizzle no greater than moderate forecast prior to ETA
    • Light rain above freeing forecast prior to ETA
    • Light snow surface temps below -2.25*C forecast prior to ETA (GOM p295)
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28
Q
  1. What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of the trip?
A

(GOM p368)
- Aircraft flight log (yellow and pink)
- Flight release/plan
- Fuel tickets and receipts
- Hazmat form
- Aircraft security reports
- Air waybill
- COMAT form
- Bill of Lading
- Permit to preceed
- Plotting charts
- SAFA report
- W&B load sheet
- Livestock form
- Event logs (hand written)

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29
Q
  1. Can a flight be released based on METAR?
A

Yes, conditions must be above minimums and METAR’s indicate a reasonable trend of weather at or above minimums. Must be able to land prior to next scheduled METAR (GOM p296)

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30
Q
  1. Pertaining to alternate airport weather minimums, can aircraft without baro-VNAV use the minimums contained in the LNAV/VNAV column for computations?
A

No (GOM p297)

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31
Q
  1. Minimum required fuel calculations are based on what 4 factors?
A
  • Destination fuel
  • Additional fuel
  • Reserve fuel
  • Alternate fuel

DARA

(GOM p299)

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32
Q
  1. When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which 3 weight limits must be considered?
A
  • Maximum structural takeoff weight
  • TOGW limited by takeoff performance
  • TOGW which will permit a landing at the maximum landing weight
    (GOM p )
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33
Q
  1. How much “shiny strut” needs to be showing?
A

Polished area needs to be showing
(AOM I p )

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34
Q
  1. Recite the Exterior Safety Inspection
A
  • Chocks in place
  • Gear door positions
  • APU fire handle stowed (APU off)
  • Condition/position of flight controls
  • APU exhaust area clear (APU off)
    (AOM I p)
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34
Q
  1. Minimum Oxygen limits for dispatch; passenger, crew and walk around bottle?
A
  • Crew/Passengers - 1400psi
  • Walk Around Bottle - 1200psi
    (AOM I p)
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34
Q
  1. Recite the Cockpit Safety Inspection
A
  • Battery Master - ON
  • STBY PWR Selector - ON
  • HYD Demand Pumps - OFF
  • Windshield Wipers - OFF
  • Gear Handle - DOWN
  • Flap lever/indicator - AGREE
  • Alternate Flaps - OFF
  • RADAR - TEST
  • Transponder - STBY
    (AOM I p)
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35
Q
  1. Must you carry and use a flashlight for preflight during daylight hours?
A

Yes
(AOM I p)

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36
Q
  1. Do additional preflight procedures exist for cold weather operations? If so, where can they be found?
A

Yes, in AOM I (p298)

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37
Q
  1. For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk-around?
A

Loadmaster
(AOM I p)

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38
Q
  1. When operating outside the United States, International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standard procedures apply, except where a country files a Statement of Differences with the ICAO. Where can these differences be found?
A

Jeppesen Airway Manual
(GOM p)

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39
Q
  1. What are the international basic fuel requirements?
A

Designation burn + 10% of destination burn + alternate burn + 30 minutes holding 1500’ HAA
(GOM p)

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40
Q
  1. What are B-43 fuel requirements?
A

Destination burn + 10% of destination burn while in class II navigation + alternate burn + 45 mins normal cruising consumption
(GOM p)

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41
Q
  1. What are B-44 fuel requirements?
A

Destination burn + 10% of re-release point to destination burn + alternate burn + 30 minutes holding 1500’ HAA
(GOM p302)

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42
Q
  1. What are the international No Suitable Alternate fuel requirements?
A

Kalitta does not utilize this fuel provision
(GOM p)

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43
Q
  1. Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following?
A
  • ETA + 15 minutes
  • Altitude deviation of 4000’ or more or 100 miles off planned route
    (GOM p302)
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44
Q
  1. At US stations, when is it acceptable to open the cargo doors upon arrival?
A

When cleared to do so by CBP
(GOM p)

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45
Q
  1. At US stations, when is it acceptable to leave the aircraft upon arrival?
A

After CBP clearance unless required by a specific station procedure
(GOM p)

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46
Q
  1. While taxiing into a stand a ground crewman begins to move the light wand in his right hand in a rapid horizontal figure-eight motion while pointing at the ground below your right wing with his left arm. What is the problem?
A

You have a brake fire
(Safety Manual 4-7)

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47
Q
  1. WARNING: IF NO CLIMB GRADIENT IS PUBLISHED FOR A DEPARTURE, A MINIMUM CLIMB OF ____ FEET PER NAUTICAL MILE MUST BE MAINTAINED.
A

200 feet per nautical mile
(GOM p)

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48
Q
  1. If a flight is vectored off of a noise abatement procedure, what crew action is required?
A

You should note it on the flight release
(GOM p)

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49
Q
  1. When are you considered “established” on course?
A
  • For RNAV operations: When you are within the accuracy of the segment (IE RNP 2: when you are within 2nm of course centerline) (GOM p)
  • For Approach: 1/2 full scale deflection (GOM p)
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50
Q
  1. What navigation errors in the Long Range Navigation Units need to be recorded after landing?
A

Residual ground speed is greater than 21kts and position errors that exceed 2nm/hr or greater than the table in AOM NP-102

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51
Q
  1. Are flight crews required to review the information in the Aeronautical Information Publication prior to operating in a particular host country, or is it sufficient that Operations Control Center personnel have reviewed the information?
A

Yes, flight crews are required to operate in accordance with the rules of the country they are in.
(GOM p)

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52
Q
  1. Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc) for a particular host country be found?
A

The entry section of the Jeppesen Airway Manual and OCC personnel.
(GOM p377)

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53
Q
  1. When arriving into a foreign country by commercial airline, your passport was stamped for entry. If you are departing the country as an operating crew member, does your passport need an exit stamp, or may you depart using a General Declaration Form?
A

If you get a stamp coming into/out of a country, you must get a corresponding stamp for the opposite procedure
(GOM p)

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54
Q
  1. When do you need a permit to proceed?
A

When you make a tech stop and the detailed entry inspection for the cargo will be completed at the final destination
(GOM p284)

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55
Q
  1. If disinfection is required prior to entry into a particular country, who is recommended to disperse the spray?
A

It is preferred that a supernumerary perform the dispersal of the spray
(GOM p)

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56
Q
  1. How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country?
A

The Jeppesen Airway Manual, ATC section for the specific country
(GOM p)

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57
Q
  1. When should flight crews default to ICAO holding speeds for a given host country?
A

All international countries except where an applicable statement of difference is published
(GOM p)

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58
Q
  1. When operating outside the US, and cleared to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by the flight crew?
A

Clarify the routing with specific phraseology
(GOM p)

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59
Q
  1. If a flight is approaching an FIR boundary and has been unable to establish communication with the appropriate controller, what action should be taken?
A

Either hold at the boundary (not recommended as it could cause a separation issue), continue in and attempt to establish communications as soon as possible or consider a broadcast to other aircraft.
(GOM p)

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60
Q
  1. Is Kalitta Air authorized to operate in areas designated as “No FIR”? If so, what special procedures should be utilized?
A

Kalitta is not authorized to operate in “No FIR” areas
(GOM p)

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61
Q
  1. When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of Class II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights?
A
  • Plotting charts required
  • Fuel reasonableness check
  • 2/10 minute check
    (GOM p398/399)
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62
Q
  1. List some of the approved methods for a reasonableness check prior to entry and after exiting MNPS airspace.
A
  • Select and tune VOR/DME and compare present position with displayed bearing and distance.
  • Overfly a VOR and verify needle swing and DME bottom out coincide with FMS leg change.
  • Obtain an ATC radar fix overhead a station or intersection and verify FMS leg change occurs simultaneously
    (GOM p)
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63
Q
  1. When should 2000 be set in the transponder?
A
  • When leaving an area which transponder has not been used and entering an area in which the transponder will be used.
  • In the absence of any ATC instruction or Regional Air Navigation Agreements
  • 30 minutes after coast out fix
    (GOM p)
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64
Q
  1. What is “SLOP” or Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure, and what are the 3 positions the aircraft can be flown in?
A
  • An offset of up to 2nm to the right of course centerline to obtain lateral spacing from nearby aircraft for wake turbulence and reduce the risk of head on collision when outside of radar coverage
    (GOM p420)
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65
Q
  1. Can a Kalitta Air 747-400 be flown in the “NAT Tracks” with 1 HF radio deferred?
A

Yes, but SATCOM must be operational
(GOM p)

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66
Q
  1. What is the Worldwide Air to Air frequency?
A

123.45
(GOM p)

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67
Q
  1. What are the Maximum holding speeds international (ICAO)?
A
  • 0-14000: 230kts
  • 14001-20000: 240kts
  • 20001-34000: 265kts
  • Above 34000: Mach .83
    (GOM 5-48)
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68
Q
  1. What are the Maximum holding speeds International?
    (PANS-OPS)
A

GOM p269

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69
Q
  1. What are the standard holding pattern times based on altitude?
A
  • 14000’ and below: 1 minute legs
  • above 14000’: 1.5 minute legs
    (AIM 5-3-8?)
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70
Q
  1. List 3 examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATS.
A
  • Moderate or Severe Turbulence
  • Severe mountain wave
  • Moderate or Severe Icing
  • Volcanic Ash Cloud
    (GOM p)
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71
Q
  1. At airports that have approved “SMGCS” procedures, below what RVR will the procedure go into effect?
A

1200 RVR
(GOM p315)

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72
Q
  1. You are at your re-release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-release when dispatched under B044, what do you do?
A

It is mandatory to divert to the released airport
(GOM p)

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73
Q
  1. Unless otherwise listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IFR turning departures is ___, with a minimum bank angle of ___.
A
  • 290kts
  • 15 degrees bank
    (GOM p)
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74
Q
  1. Should a crew member suspect they may have exceeded and local noise restrictions, what action should be taken?
A

Pilots must submit an event log
(GOM p)

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75
Q
  1. Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew?
A

Revised clearance should be noted on the plotting chart and master flight plan with the time and frequency in which it was received
(GOM p)

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76
Q
  1. During Class II operations, within ___ minutes of each waypoint, both pilots should verify that the subsequent waypoint in the navigation display agrees with the current ATC clearance. What specifically must be checked?
A
  • 2 minutes
  • must check next 2 waypoint coordinates and the heading and distance match the flight release
    (GOM p)
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77
Q
  1. Describe the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this check?
A
  • 10 minutes after waypoint passage you must plot LRNS position
  • determines aircraft is headed towards the next waypoint
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78
Q
  1. Does a straight line drawn on a Jeppesen Lambert Conformal en-route or plotting chart represent a great circle or rhumb line?
A

Great Circle
(GOM p)

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79
Q
  1. ICAO criteria for approaches list a range of speeds for aircraft in various segments of an approach. What is the ICAO range of speeds for a category D aircraft on final approach?
A

130-185kts
(GOM p423)

80
Q
  1. Describe one of the four generally recognized maneuvers related to course reversal procedures, as outlined in the GOM Ch6
A

If within 30* of base turn or outbound track, cross the fix outbound on the specified track and descend as necessary, make the course reversal as depicted
(GOM p422/423)

81
Q
  1. In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regards to vertical and lateral maneuvering?
A

You may climb immediately but must continue to the MAP before flying the missed approach procedure
(GOM p)

82
Q
  1. When are you required to complete a plotting chart?
A

When route segment between NAVAID service volume exceeds 725nm
(GOM p413)

83
Q
  1. Can a Kalitta Air crew accept a Land And Hold Short clearance when LAHSO is in effect?
A

No
(GOM p)

84
Q
  1. You depart Leipzig Germany for Cincinnati, you request your oceanic clearance and a random route has been filed by the company. ATC issues the same route in your oceanic clearance. Do you need to perform the SLOP procedure?
A

You should…you are outside of radar coverage and it may reduce the risk of collision
(GOM p)

85
Q
  1. What deviation is considered to be a GNE within NAT airspace?
A

10 miles off cleared track
(GOM p408)

86
Q
  1. In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEAs for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such a route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met?
A

You can, however, you must be able to maintain a diversion procedure to drift down beyond limiting obstacles. If an escape route is not available or defined, these routes should not be flown
(GOM p)

87
Q
  1. While flying in less developed areas, and after receiving a “direct via” off airway routing, what altitude should be consulted on the enroute chart to ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met? What type of terrain clearance does that altitude afford?
A
  • Must consider the grid Minimum Off Route Altitude (MORA)
  • Provides 1000’ terrain clearance in non-mountainous areas and 2000’ in mountainous areas
    (GOM p)
88
Q
  1. If operating in RVSM airspace and the flight encounters turbulence resulting in an altitude deviation of 350’, what actions are required?
A

You must notify ATC immediately and file an event log
(GOM p)

89
Q
  1. Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as “by ATC”. Although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level?
A
  • When cleared to maintain an altitude instead of a flight level
  • When given an altimeter setting along with an altitude
    (GOM p)
90
Q
  1. When temperature is colder than ISA, true altitude will be ___ than indicated altitude.
A

Lower

91
Q
  1. Under what conditions should the altitude correction procedures found in GOM Ch6 be followed?
A
  • US airports: Temperature is at or below published cold temperature restriction on approach chart
  • International airports: at or below -30*C
    (GOM p261)
92
Q
  1. Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch6 be applied? What altitudes should not be corrected?
A

All designated segment altitudes except those on STARs, SIDs, ODPs (Obstacle Departure Procedures) and MAVs (Minimum Vectoring Altitudes)
(GOM p261)

92
Q
  1. When operating at high altitude airports, increase of approximately ___% higher True Airspeed (TAS) is achieved in the 8000’ to 10000’ feet range.
A

20%

93
Q
  1. According to GOM Ch6, what are some of the effects of operating at the higher-than-normal true airspeeds associated with high-altitude airport operations?
A

Greater turn radius, higher landing and takeoff speeds, hot brake issues and missed approach climb capabilities
(GOM p)

94
Q
  1. What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit?
A
  • 3*C above the freezing point for the particular fuel being used
  • fly faster or climb/descend into warmer air
    (AOM I p45)
95
Q
  1. How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used?
A

The table in AOM I L-17

96
Q
  1. Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire.
A

Move right hand in fanning (figure 8) motion while pointing at brakes with left hand.
(Safety Manual 4-6)

97
Q
  1. If the SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiate a constant listening watch?
A
  1. Verify proper SELCAL code
  2. VHF/HF selector is in HF
  3. HF squelch is MIN or OFF
  4. HF gain set to MAX or INCR
  5. request a new test
    (GOM p406)
98
Q
  1. In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the US, what four recommendations should be used by crew members in order to avoid miscommunications?
A
  • Use proper ICAO phraseology
  • Speak slowly and clearly
  • Anticipate the controller
  • Obtain assistance/verification
    (GOM p)
99
Q
  1. What is the minimum required information to be included in a position report?
A

-Aircraft ID then,

(PTAPTP)
- Position
- Time
- Altitude
- Position (next)
- Time (next)
- Position (next ensuing point)

  • Pertinent remarks
    (GOM p338)
100
Q
  1. What does “IC” mean on the TAKEOFF REPORT LAYOUT? What does the “N” below it mean?
A

IC - Improved Climb
N - NO
(AOM I p282)

101
Q
  1. Is the planned landing weight (PLDW) on the TLR, the weight we use for ACARS landing weight performance entry? What is the number/weight we enter?
A
  • No
  • We enter the ZFW and landing fuel, the ACARS will calculate the planned landing weight
    (AOM I p)
102
Q
  1. With the use of CPDLC/ADS-C, separation of aircraft will be?
A

25nm (GOM p) / 23nm (NAT DOC 007-27)

103
Q
  1. After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PNF should?
A

Either print the clearance or leave it displayed on the MCDU
(AOM I p233)

104
Q
  1. Under what condition would you select ADS OFF?
A

If requested to do so by ATC
(AOM I p)

105
Q
  1. When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints?
A

NO

106
Q
  1. What must supernumeraries be briefed on, and who must brief them?
A

The Captain is responsible to brief all supernumeraries on:
- Smoking
- Seatbelt use
- Passenger information signs
- Seatbacks for T/O and Landing
- Electronic devices
- Emergency procedures
- Sterile cockpit
- Oxygen use
- Carry on items
- MDSS
(AOM I p67/68)

107
Q
  1. What are the wind limits when operating the Main Cargo Door?
A

Operating: 40kts
Fully open: 65kts

108
Q
  1. When do the NO SMOKING and FASTEN SEAT BELT sign automatically illuminate regardless of switch position?
A

Passenger O2 on
(AOM I p)

109
Q
  1. Can the APU provide bleed air in flight? If so, up to what altitude?
A

Yes, if started on the ground it can provide bleed air to one pack up to 15000’
(AOM II 7-36)

110
Q
  1. What is the Max Differential Pressure (Relief Valve) Takeoff and Landing
A

In Flight: 9.4psi
On Ground: 0.11psi
(AOM I p)

111
Q
  1. Under what condition may the #1 or #2 window heat be inoperative?
A
  • Flight is not into known icing
  • remaining window heat is operational
  • window air is operational
    (AOM I p)
112
Q
  1. While in flight, Nacelle Anti-ice must be on when?
A

When TAT is 10C or less and visible moisture in any form (1mi visibility or less) unless SAT is less than -40C. Also, prior to reducing thrust for descent in icing conditions including temperatures below -40*C
(AOM I p)

113
Q
  1. When are the 4 pitot-static probes heated?
A

After first engine start
(AOM II 3-9)

114
Q
  1. Are the TAT probes heated? When?
A

Yes, in flight only

115
Q
  1. When can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff?
A

400’
(AOM I p)

116
Q
  1. What are the minimum and maximum glideslope angles?
A

Autoland: 2.5-3.25
(AOM I p)

117
Q
  1. On takeoff, prior to 65 KIAS, the Flight Director roll bar commands wings level while the pitch bar commands a fixed attitude of:
A

8* Nose Up
(AOM II 4-26)

118
Q
  1. What is the restriction on the center VHF with an operational ACARS system?
A

It must not be used for ATC voice communications

119
Q
  1. When should HF radios not be used?
A

During fueling operations
(AOM I p)

120
Q
  1. With 121.5 selected in the R VHF, can the receiver volume control for that radio be turned off?
A

NO
(AOM II 5-2)

121
Q
  1. How can we tune DATA into the C VHF?
A

Selecting a frequency higher or lower than the allowable VHF range (118.000, 136.000)
(AOM II 5-22)

122
Q
  1. What buses are powered with #1 & #2 external power available but not on?
A

1 - powers the Ground Handling Bus

#2 - powers the Main Deck Cargo Handling Bus
(AOM II 6-13/14)

123
Q
  1. What electrical bus isolation occurs during autoland?
A

AC/DC Bus 1, 2 and 3
(AOM II 6-7)

124
Q
  1. Before starting engines with the APU inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system?
A

You must place the #4 demand pump selector to AUTO
(MEL 49-11-1)

125
Q
  1. Before starting engines with the APU inop, what must be done to pressurize the #4 hydraulic system?
A

You must place the #4 demand pump selector to AUTO
(MEL 49-11-1)

126
Q
  1. With the EEC in Alternate Mode (ALTN), when should takeoff thrust be set?
A

Takeoff thrust must be set after brake release (GE)
(AOM I p)

127
Q
  1. When will STBY ignition turn on if the switch is in NORM?
A

Loss of all AC power
(AOM II 7-32)

128
Q
  1. If the EGT limit is exceeded what is indicated? On Takeoff?
A

When EGT reaches continuous limit it turns amber, when it reaches takeoff/start limit it turns red and box remains red after exceedance. Amber limit is inhibited for 5 minutes after takeoff and go around.
(AOM II 7-4)

129
Q
  1. With Main Cargo Fire, arming the Main Deck Fire switch does what?
A
  • Enables depressurization
  • Shuts off two packs, remaining pack goes to low flow
  • Equipment cooling goes too closed loop mode
  • Shuts off all airflow to main deck and heat and airflow to cargo compartments
  • Closes Master Trim Valve
    (AOM II 8-4)
130
Q
  1. After a fire test pass, what two systems are no longer being monitored by the AC?
A
  • Wheel Well fire detection
  • Bleed Air Leading Edge Duct leak loop
    (AOM II 8-12)
131
Q
  1. How many over heat loops are installed for the APU?
A

No Overheat

  • One, dual loop fire detection is installed. Operates in “OR” logic
    (AOM II 8-9)
132
Q
  1. While operating below maneuvering speed (Va) is it permissible to make rapid or large alternating control inputs?
A

No
(AOM I p)

133
Q
  1. The flaps are not to be extended above what altitude?
A

20000’
(AOM I p)

134
Q
  1. When are the stab trim switches on the control wheel inhibited?
A

Multiple autopilots engaged
(AOM II 9-17)

135
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable in-flight difference between Captains and F/O altitude display for RVSM operations?
A

200’
(AOM I p)

136
Q
  1. What is the maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for operations in RVSM?
A
  • 5000’ and Below: 35’
  • 5001’ to 10000’: 40’
  • Must be within 75’ of field elevation
    (AOM I p)
137
Q
  1. From engine start to shutdown, what is the primary means of alerting crews to non-normal conditions or improper configuration?
A

EICAS Alert Messages

138
Q
  1. Operations for using QFE?
A

Kalitta Air policy prohibits use of QFE
(GOM p)

139
Q
  1. What is the minimum equipment required for a coupled CAT I ILS approach?
A
  • 1 GS/LOC receiver
  • 1 Autopilot
    (AOM I p)
140
Q
  1. When must the CWT override/jettison pumps be switched off?
A

When there is less than 17000lbs of fuel in the CWT or when the FUEL LOW CTR message is displayed
(AOM I p)

141
Q
  1. What is the fuel freeze point of Jet A?
A

-40*C
(AOM I L-17)

142
Q
  1. What is the Conditional Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)?
A

53000lbs (requires approval)
(AOM I L-18)

143
Q
  1. What is the Standard Minimum Ramp Fuel (Excluding Ballast)?
A

72000lbs
(AOM I L-18)

144
Q
  1. Once activated, how long will the scavenge pump operate?
A

Low pressure sensed or 120 minutes

145
Q
  1. With the loss of systems 2 & 3, why is there a speed additive for the approach?
A

To alleviate control forces with a loss of stabilizer trim
(QRH 13-11)

146
Q
  1. What is the minimum hydraulic quantity for dispatch? Where do you read that value?
A
  • 0.8 no RF
  • Read on STAT or HYD page
    (AOM I p)
147
Q
  1. With the #4 AUX pump on and providing pressure, will the HYD SYS fault light be off or on?
A

OFF
(AOM II 13-1)

148
Q
  1. What is the maximum takeoff weight when operating with gear extended?
A

720,000lbs
(AOM I L-13)

149
Q
  1. On takeoff roll, when does RTO arm? What kind of braking is provided?
A
  • 85kts groundspeed
  • RTO provides maximum braking
150
Q
  1. What does the brake torque limiting system do?
A

Detects excessive torque per wheel and anti-skid system releases brake pressure to that wheel (or pair of wheels in ALT braking)
(AOM II 14-13)

151
Q
  1. What range must be selected to use the GPWS - Look Ahead Terrain Alerting system?
A

Any range selection, terrain mode must be selected on EFIS control panel
(AOM II 15-35)

152
Q
  1. When is the Windshear Alert System active?
A
  • Reactive windshear: active from rotation to 1500’
  • Predictive windshear: active from takeoff thrust (or WX selection) to 2300’, but will only give an alert below 1200’. Warnings are inhibited from 100kts to 50’. Cautions are inhibited from 80kts to 400’
    (AOM II 15-41/43)
153
Q
  1. When are the Fire Bell and Master Warning lights inhibited?
A

V1 to V1+25 seconds or 400’ whichever occurs first
(AOM II 15-49)

154
Q
  1. With the Lower Lobe Conditioned Airflow Rate Selector (LLCAFR) switch in the OFF position, what is the temperature range available with the Lower Lobe Temperature Selector?
A

The Lower Lobe Cargo Temperature selectors do nothing if the LLCAFR switch is off. AFT Cargo Heat is the only to keep the floor temperature above freezing
(AOM II 2-19)

155
Q
  1. What determines when the packs will go to normal flow?
A

In cruise, unless a high flow is selected on or you use a mode other than off on the LLCAFR switch
(AOM II 2-17)

156
Q
  1. When the Engine Bleed Air Switch is selected off, what valves close?
A
  • Engine Bleed Valve
  • Pressure Regulating Valve (PRV)
  • High Pressure (HP) Valve
    (AOM II 2-13)
157
Q
  1. With the Engine Bleed Air Switch off and no fault detected, what components are available?
A
  • NAI
  • Thrust Reverse
    (AOM II 2-13)
158
Q
  1. Under what circumstances must Nacelle Anti Ice be selected ON on the ground?
A

When icing conditions exist: OAT 10*C or less with visible moister or contaminated surfaces
(AOM I p)

159
Q
  1. What are the engine run up procedures with Nacelle Anti Ice selected ON?
A

30 seconds at 60% N1 in 15 minute intervals and before takeoff (AOM I p)

160
Q
  1. What is required if operation is conducted in moderate to severe icing conditions for prolonged periods with the N1 less than 70%
A

Increase thrust one engine at a time to 70% N1 for 10 to 30 seconds every 10 minutes
(AOM I p270)

161
Q
  1. What does the careted EICAS message “>ANTI ICE” mean?
A

NAI/WAI is on and the TAT is greater than 12*C with no ice detected
(AOM II 3-10)

162
Q
  1. On descent into Delhi with convective activity in all quadrants, what steps must be taken to improve engine flameout margins with TAT below 10*C?
A

Turn pack high flow on, NAI and WAI (below 22000’)
(AOM I p276)

163
Q
  1. What does the careted EICAS message “>Autopilot” mean?
A

Selected autopilot operating in a degraded mode, active roll/pitch mode may have failed
(AOM II 4-34)

164
Q
  1. On a GO AROUND, what should the FMA indications be after one push of the TOGA buttons and what do the indications mean?
A

THR|TOGA|TOGA

THR - Thrust to give 2000 fpm climb
TOGA - Track
TOGA - MCP window speed or current speed, whichever is more
(AOM II 4-31/175)

165
Q
  1. During an approach and landing, when does TOGA arm and disarm?
A
  • Arms: flaps are out of up or GS capture
  • Disarms: 2 seconds after RA decreases through 5’ and rearms after RA increases through 5 feet (in event of a rejected landing)
    (AOM II 4-31)
166
Q
  1. With VNAV armed for takeoff, when passing 400’ what changes will occur with your FMA, FMC commanded speed and EICAS N1 indicators?
A

You will see THR REF and VNAV SPD populate in the FMAs, commanded speed will jump to V2+10-25 and throttles will be set to reference thrust which turns magenta to represent FMC target thrust
(AOM II 4-26)

167
Q
  1. If a TOGA throttle switch is not pressed prior to 50kts, what will the autothrottle system do on takeoff?
A

The system cannot be engaged until 400’
(AOM II 4-26)

168
Q
  1. What does the Offside Tuning Light indicate?
A

Either the RTP is being used to tune or being tuned by a radio not normally associated with that RTP
(AOM II 5-3)

169
Q
  1. At 30 west you spill coffee on your audio control panel, rendering it inoperative. What do you do?
A

Use the OBS audio system switch to use the observers audio panel
(AOM II 5-8)

170
Q
  1. How is the oxygen mask microphone activated and deactivated on A/C N740CK and N741CK?
A

You must select the switch to “BOOM” on the Audio Panel
(AOM 16-42-3)

171
Q
  1. How do you listen to the Inner Marker when conducting an “RA Not Authorized” Category II approach
A

Select MKR on the Audio Panel and adjust the APP volume knob
(AOM II 5-2)

172
Q
  1. The left PFD, ND, and FMC are normally powered by?
A

APU STBY Bus which is normally powered by the CA Transfer Bus, powered by AC 3/1
(AOM II 6-15/269)

173
Q
  1. Under normal operation, what powers the main and APU Standby Busses?
A

The Main STBY Bus is normally powered by AC 3, the APU STBY Bus is powered by the CA Transfer Bus (powered by AC 3/1)
(AOM II 6-14)

174
Q
  1. What causes DISC to illuminate in the CSD Disconnect Switch?
A
  • High Oil Temp
  • Low Oil Press
  • GCB open due to uncontrolled frequency fault
175
Q
  1. Do the AC BTBs and DCIRs open at any time when there is no cockpit annunciation?
A

Yes, during Autoland AC and DC busses 1-3 isolate
(AOM II 6-14)

176
Q
  1. You are being released to a destination where a Category III approach is to be conducted. Enroute, the number 4 Generator has been disconnected. Can you still conduct a CAT III approach?
A

Yes, you only need 3 generators for a CAT III approach
(QRH AP-8)

177
Q
  1. The aircraft is dark. External power is connected to the left receptacle. Can you light your path to the cockpit? How?
A

Yes, the button next to door L1 will connect the Ground Handling Bus to the Service Bus and allow the flight deck access lights to function
(AOM II 6-12)

178
Q
  1. The number 1 EEC has gone to alternate mode. Which line no longer appears on the number 1 N1 indicator?
A

Max N1 (amber)
(AOM II 7-27)

179
Q
  1. When will the engine oil quantity appear magenta when the oil quantity is in the normal range?
A

Oil differential is reached
(AOM II 7-23)

180
Q
  1. With autostart functioning normally, under what conditions must the start be manually aborted?
A
  • No N1 rotation
  • No oil pressure
  • Engine fire
    (AOM I p)
181
Q
  1. When will the EICAS Memo Message APU RUNNING be displayed?
A

When APU selector is on and N1 is above 95%
(AOM II 7-37)

182
Q
  1. What is the total time of fire suppression available to the lower lobe cargo compartments? What are the immediate action items for an Eng Fire in flight?
A
  • BCF: 334 minutes
  • FF: 180 minutes
    (QRH 8-2)
  • Affected Eng Thrust Lever: Confirm, Idle
  • Affected Eng Fuel Control switch: Confirm, Fuel Cutoff
  • Affected Eng Fire Switch: Confirm, Pull
    > Rotate 1 sec
    > If after 30sec fire indications persist, rotate to other bottle (1sec)
    (QRH 8-5)
183
Q
  1. There is a fire. What happens when the PNF pulls the engine fire switch?
A
  • Closes Bleed Air Valve
  • Arms the Squib
  • Closes the Hydraulic Shutoff Valve
  • Depressurizes the Hydraulic Pump
  • Closes Engine and Spar Fuel Valves
  • Trips Generator Field

BAC DFG

(AOM II 8-1)

184
Q
  1. If the EICAS message “FLAPS PRIMARY” is displayed, what protection is provided?
A

Asymmetry protection for the trailing edge flaps
(AOM 9-24)

185
Q
  1. You may have noticed that the line and number on the flap indicator turn magenta when the PF selects reverse thrust. Why does this happen?
A

The inboard and midspan leading edge flaps retract when reverse thrust as applied
(AOM II 9-25)

186
Q
  1. When does the rising runway symbol on the PFD appear? When does it start to rise?
A
  • Displays below 1000’ RA with localizer pointer in view
  • Starts to rise at 200’ RA
    (AOM II 10-10)
187
Q
  1. You are conducting a CAT III approach. You have captured the localizer and the expanded scale is displayed in the PFD. At what localizer deflection is a go-around required? What is the indication on the PFD?
A
  • 1/3 dot deflection below 500’
    (AOM I p)
  • A rectangle on the expanded scale = 1/2 dot deflection
    (AOM II 10-10)
188
Q
  1. On what selected range of the ND can you see all waypoints, all stations and all three segments of the position trend vector visible?
A

40nm range
(AOM II 10-29/68)

189
Q
  1. You have been asked to intercept the CVG 033 radial and track it outbound. How do you do this?
A

Type CVG033 and place it in L1
(AOM II 11-31)

190
Q
  1. Your departure procedures’s initial instruction is a heading vector. It is displayed as a Conditional Waypoint heading on the CDU, following by the term VECTORS. Can LNAV be used to fly the heading?
A

Yes, if it is coded in the departure procedure as a conditional waypoint. LNAV will fly it.
(AOM II 11-30)

191
Q
  1. What CDU pages are available in standby navigation after both FMS units have failed?
A
  • Legs
  • Prog
  • Nav Rad
    (AOM II 11-51)
192
Q
  1. On the NAV RAD page of the CDU, a VOR identifier is followed by a letter in small font. What are the possible letters? What do they mean? What must be displayed in order to enter a course?
A

P - Procedural autotuning for approach or departure procedure guidance
R - Route tuning for active route (previous VOR or down path VOR w/i 250nm
A - Autotuning for best position orientation
M - Manual tuning (manually enter VOR ID or VOR ID/Course)
(AOM II 11-72/522)

193
Q
  1. When will the fuel system automatically balance itself?
A

When Jettisoning fuel, system will automatically control fuel balancing between main tanks 2&3
(AOM II 12-16)

194
Q
  1. You are fully configured for takeoff. What are the positions of the number 2 and 3 crossfeed valves? What are the cockpit indications?
A

The FSMCs automatically close crossfeed valves 2&3 when flaps are in the takeoff position on the ground. The stripes on the overhead switches will remain illuminated because the system is operating according to its logic
(AOM II 12-14)

195
Q
  1. You are starting the APU. External power is not available. How and from where is fuel supplied to the APU?
A

DC pump in main two
(AOM II 12-14)

196
Q
  1. The Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump(s) are powered by what bus or buses?
A

Ground Handling Bus
(AOM II 6-13)

197
Q
  1. What is the maximum speed for landing gear Extension? Operation?
A

Extension (VLOE): 270/.82

Operation (VLE): 320/.82
(AOM I L-11)

747 (6 decks)

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