Skull Flashcards

1
Q

what is a linear fracture?

A

appear as a jagged or irregular lucent lines that lie at right angles to the axis of the bone

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2
Q

what is a depressed fracture?

A

a fragment of bone is separated and depresses into cranial cavity

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3
Q

what is a depressed fracture also called

A

ping pong fracture

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4
Q

why is a basal skull fracture difficult to see on plain radiographs

A

because they are hidden by the dense structures of the temporal bone

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5
Q

what suggests a basal skull fracture

A

air fluid level in the sphenoid sinus on a horizontal beam lateral

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6
Q

what are the 4 complications of a basal skull fracture

A

leakage of CSF, meningitis, damage to facial nerve, and damage to auditory apparatus

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7
Q

what are neoplasm

A

new and abnormal growths

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8
Q

what does osteolytic mean

A

destructive lesions with irregular margins

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9
Q

what does osteoblastic mean

A

proliferative bony lesions of increased density

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10
Q

what appearance does osteolytic and osteoblastic make

A

moth eaten appearance due to mix of destructive and blastic lesions

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11
Q

what is multiple myeloma

A

consists of one or more bone tumors that originate in bone marrow q

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12
Q

what is pituirary ademona

A

tumor of the pituitary gland

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13
Q

what is pituirary ademona usually diagnosed with

A

CT or MRI

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14
Q

a plain image of pituirary ademona appears as?

A

demonstrate enlargement of sella turcica or erosion of dorsum sellae

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15
Q

what is pagets disease (osteitis deformans)

A

unknown etiology, begins as a stage of bony destruction followed by repair

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16
Q

what appearance does pagets disease produce

A

cotton wool appearance with irregular areas of increased density shows reparative stage

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17
Q

what is mastoiditis

A

bacterial infection that can destroy inner part of mastoid process

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18
Q

what is acoustic neuroma

A

benign tumor of the auditory nerve

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19
Q

where does acoustic neuroma originate

A

IAC

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20
Q

how does acoustic neuroma appear on a plain film

A

expansion and asymmetry of affected IAC

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21
Q

what is cholesteatoma

A

benign cyst like mass or tumor

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22
Q

where is cholesteatoma most common

A

in the middle ear or mastoid region secondary to trauma to this region

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23
Q

what is a polyp

A

growth that arises from a mucous membrane and projects into cavity (sinus)

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24
Q

what is otosclerosis

A

abnormal sponge like bone grows in middle ear

25
Q

what is the average skull called

A

mesocephalic

26
Q

what is the width to length of the mesocephalic skull

A

width 75 to 80% of length

27
Q

with the mesocephalic skull at what degrees does the petrous pyramids project anteriorly and medially from the MSP?

A

47°

28
Q

what is the type of skull that is short from front to back and broad from side to side

A

brachycephalic

29
Q

what angle does the pertrous pyramids form with the MSP on a brachycephalic

A

54° angle

30
Q

what is the name of the skull that is long from front to back and narrow from side to side

A

dolichocephalic

31
Q

what angle does the petrous ridges form with the MSP in a dolichocephalic head

A

40° angle

32
Q

in the dolichocephalic head the width is what % less than the length

A

75%

33
Q

in the brachycephalic head the width is what % greater than the length

A

80%

34
Q

what are sutural or wormian bones

A

small bones located within a suture

35
Q

what are the 3 divisions of the ear

A

external, middle and inner

36
Q

what are the part of the external ear

A

auricle, tragus, eam, mastoid process, mastoid tip, styloid process

37
Q

the external ear ends as what

A

tympanic membrane

38
Q

what are the 3 parts of the middle ear

A

tympanic membrane, tympanic cavity and auditory ossicles

39
Q

what is the tympanic membrance?

A

partition between external and middle ear, functions to transmits sounds

40
Q

what is the 2 parts of the tympanic cavity

A

tympanic cavity proper and the epitympanic recess

41
Q

what does the tympanic cavity communicate with

A

the nasopharynx

42
Q

what is the drum crest

A

bony projection to which tympanic membrane is attached

43
Q

what is the eustachian tube

A

passageway between middle ear and nasopharynx

44
Q

what is the epitympanic membrane

A

area above level of eam and eardrum

45
Q

what does the eustachian tube do for us

A

equalizes pressure within middle ear to the outside air

46
Q

what is the Internal acoustic meatus best demonstrated on

A

CT or MRI

47
Q

what is the aditus

A

opening between epitympanic recess and mastoid

48
Q

what do the auditory ossicles do

A

transmits sound vibrations from tympanic membrane to sensory apparatus of hearing in internal ear

49
Q

what are the 3 auditory ossicles

A

malleus (hammer) incus (anvil) and stapes (stirrup)

50
Q

the handle of the malleus attached to tympanic membrane and head articulates with

A

incus

51
Q

the head of the stapes articulated with incus and its base fits where

A

into the oval window of the inner ear

52
Q

what is the function of the inner ear

A

contains sensory apparatus of hearing and equilibrium

53
Q

what are the two parts of the inner ear

A

osseous (bony) labyrinth or membranous labyrinth

54
Q

what is the function of the osseous labyrinth

A

bony chamber that houses membranous labyrinth

55
Q

what are the 3 parts of the osseous labyrinth

A

cochlea, vestibule and semi circular canals

56
Q

what is the function of the cochlea and the vestibule

A

communicates with middle ear through round window

57
Q

what part of the inner ear related to sense of hearing because of connection to stapes through oval window

A

cochlea

58
Q

what allows for movement of fluid within the closed duct system of membranous labyrinth

A

round (cochlear) window