Skin Flashcards

1
Q

Scaly, thick, greasy surface with scattered keratin plugs (pigmented)

A

Seborrhoeic keratosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

if Seborrhoeic keratosis - Multiple superficial + irregular – itchy but not bleeding – sample by

A

– shave biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DIP Heberdens –

A

Osteoarthirits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SCC at sites of chronic inflammation, osteomyelitis, burns

A

Marjolins ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

aggressive malignancy in chronic lymphedema

A

Lymphangiosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lymphodaema age ranges

A

Millroy’s <1, Meige 1-35, Tarda >35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Necrolytic migratory erythema: Abdo + bum blisters, weight loss and diarrhoea – some intact vesicles

A

pancreatic alpha cell gluconoma ->1kg, CT + resect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Venous stasis ulcer – exophytic in

A

Venous stasis ulcer – exophytic in malignant transformation only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Keloid scar goes beyond

A

Keloid scar goes beyond incision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

PT burns – lose hair follicles but not

A

PT burns – lose hair follicles but not sweat glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dercums disease –

A

Dercums disease – multiple lipomas aka adiposis dolorosa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All collagen

A

All collagen – derived from gycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Dermatofibroma

A

Dermatofibroma – at site of previous trauma, dermal overgrowth of fibrous tisue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Homan’s procedure

A

The skin still has a HOME

Radical lymphodema resection with skin flaps still intact.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Charles’ procedure

A

Radical lymphodema resection with skin grafts overlaid - no longer done

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

SCC which therapy is safe? Spead by?

A

SCC – radiotherapy safe, spread by lymphatics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Merkel Cell tumours

A

Firm, painless, nodule, exposure to Merkel cell polyomavirus (MCV),

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Fistula in ano = line by…

A

Fistula in ano = line by squamous epithelia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Big facial wound – graft using

A

full thickness skin graft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

anaesthetic for for sebaceous cyst on scalp

A

1% lignocaine with 1 in 200,000 adrenaline for sebaceous cyst on scalp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lupus vulgaris is not associated with the Koerner phenomenon.

A

A true Koebner response occurs in:

Psoriasis
Vitiligo
Halo naevus
Lichen planus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aggressive fibromatosis –

A

desmoid tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If BCC <2cm, Margin of

A

If BCC <2cm, Margin of 3-5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Keratokenthoma –

A

rapid growing and keratin core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Cryoprecipitate – Has factor…

A

Cryoprecipitate – Factor VIII (Factors V and VIII – sensitive to temp degredation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What blood products or derivatives can cause urticaria and what can cause pyrexia?

A

FFP – Urticaria, RBCs – Pyrexia!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

vWF stabilizes factor VIII - you can give

A

tranexamic acid, DDAVP/Desmopressin

stimulates vWF release from endothelia via V2 receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Low platelet counts + raised FDP – X is most likely..

A

Low platelet counts + raised FDP – DIC more likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

ITP – transfuse platelets….when relative to splenic ligatiobn

A

ITP – transfuse platelets after splenic artery ligation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Blood film findings post-splenectomy

A

Jolly bodies will appear,
Poikilo/ target cells and
Pappenheimer bodies,
erythrocyte siderotic granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Blood film finding in lead poisoning

A

Stipple cells in lead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Hyperacute transplant rejection what Abs

A

IgG anti HLA Class I antibodies in the recipient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Acute transplant rejection

A

Acute transplant rejection – Type IV – T Lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In chronic rejection after 6 months you find…

A

Chronic >6 months – vascular changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Haemolytic anaemia – T2: Auto-Ab’s for

A

or Cell surface Ags (ACID, EGGT +M-MA-T)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Interpretation blood clotting test results

H v V

A
H - v V
APTT PT BT
UNN
UNU
UUN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Abnormal coagulation

Cause Factors affected

A

How We Do Life
HWDL (W+L both get 7’s)

H 2,9,10,11 (then get rid of 11)
W - 2,7,9,10 (only one without 11)
D - 1,2,5,8,11 (get rid of 8)
L - 1,2,5,7,9,10,11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Post splenectomy sepsis:

A

Post splenectomy sepsis: Strep Pneumonae, Haem Influenz, Meningococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Myofibroblasts at what stage of wound healing

A

Myofibroblasts – 6 weeks into wound healing

40
Q

RA can result in..cytosis

A

RA – Thrombocytosis

41
Q

Stored blood - less 2,3 DPG - therefore

A

Stored blood - less 2,3 DPG - a higher affinity for oxygen (left shift)

42
Q

Anti phospholipid syndrome=

A

Lupus anticoagulant / Anti-cardiolipin / Anti-beta2-glycoprotein

43
Q

Heparin – all forms – hyperaemia -by

A

Heparin – all forms – hyperaemia -by inhibiting aldosterone

44
Q

Iatrogenic gram +ve infection with room temp platelets

A

platelets

45
Q

Acquired Fact 12 deficiency – Prolonged..

A

Acquired Fact 12 deficiency – Prolonged PTT

46
Q

Prolonged Abx or Cholestatic jaundice results in

A

Prolonged Abx or Cholestatic jaundice – Vit K deficiency

47
Q

Sudden anaemia and LOW reticulocyte count b/g Sickle

A

Parvovirus infection

48
Q

TNF – secreted mostly by

A

TNF – secreted mostly by Macrophages

49
Q

4 days post-splenectomy – high…

A

4 days post splenectomy – high platelet count

50
Q

Warfarin inhibits

A

2,7,9,10

51
Q

LA for for biars blocks

A

Prilocaine best for biars blocks 6/9a, less cardiotoxic

52
Q

Methylene blue for

A

Methylene blue for methaemoglobinaemia

53
Q

Procaine and benzocaine are…

A

Procaine and benzocaine – amino-esters

54
Q

Lignocaine – type and mechanism

A

Lignocaine – amide blocks Na channels

55
Q

Etomidate – up and downs with use of it..

A

Etomidate – adrenal suppression – but best cardiac profile!

56
Q

Difference between Pethidine and Morphine

A

Pethidine: different structure and less fat soluble to morphine, less biliary spasm

57
Q

Atracurium – hydrolysed and releases

A

Atracurium – hydrolysed and releases histamine

58
Q

Lido dosing

A

Lido 3/7a

59
Q

Bupivicaine dosing

A

Bup 2/2a

60
Q

Collagen Synthesis, Vitamin C is needed for

A

Vitamin C is needed for the hydroxylation of proline during collagen synthesis.

61
Q

Fat embolism – like PE +…

A

Fat embolism – like PE + confusion + petechial rash

62
Q

Sino nasal cancer - related..

A

Sino nasal cancer - 50% SCC - wood dust exposure, no strong smoking link.

63
Q

Liver Angiosarcoma - associated with

A

Liver Angiosarcoma - vinyl chloride exposure

64
Q

z score is determined using the

A

z score is determined using the normal distribution and is not a descriptive statistic.

65
Q

Transient nerve function loss for a few weeks…

A

Transient nerve function loss for a few weeks – neuropraxia (no Wallerian degeneration)

66
Q

Medullary chemoreceptors –

A

arterial CO2

67
Q

ormal pulmonary artery occlusion pressure =

A

Normal pulmonary artery occlusion pressure = 8-12mmHg

68
Q

ARR =

A

ARR = 1/NNT

69
Q

Abdo CT in trauma even if pregnant?

A

YES

70
Q

P value – risk of rejecting true null hypothesis

A

Type 1 error

71
Q

How much of you is water and where it is?

A

Water 60% bodyweight

65% Water intracellular, 35 extracellular. 5% in plasma.

72
Q

Montgomery ruling –

A

not just % risk, patient’s hypothetical significance to risk

73
Q

Which inhibit protein synthesis?

What do the rest do

A

McFAT inhibits protein synthesis: Macrolides, chloramphenicol, Fusidic acid, Amioglycosides, tetracyclines.

Pen+Cephs cell wall.
Rifampicin RNA.
Rest inhibit DNA

74
Q

For Desication…

A

In Active contact: Low current + High voltage – in contact = Dessication
(loss of water but not protein)

75
Q

Fulgration

A

Low amplitude and high voltage system - spray effect for superficial tissue destruction - bladder tumours

76
Q

Cutting

A

Sinusoidal and non modulated waveform
High average power and current density
Precise cutting without thermal damage

77
Q

esmarch bandage tourniquet – higher rate of

A

Esmarch bandage tourniquet – higher rate of neuropraxia

78
Q

Chordoma –

A

Chordoma – midline axial tumour inc clivus

79
Q

Cluster RCTs – more prone to

A

Cluster RCTs – more prone to unit of analyses errors

80
Q

Bone callous – visible on xray after

A

Bone callous – visible on xray after 3 weeks

81
Q

Amiodarone does not cause lymphadenopathy T/F?

A

True

Amiodarone does not cause lymphadenopathy

82
Q

Obesity – not a risk factor for osteoperosis

T/F?

A

True

Obesity is not a risk factor for osteoperosis

83
Q

RCTs can be unblinded. T/F?

A

RCTs can be unblinded. T!

84
Q

42yo, BMI 15 hernia repair. Give

A

Give 10 kcal/kg/day initially,
oral thiamine 200-300mg/day,
vitamin B co strong 1 tds and supplements.

85
Q

Cohort studies assess the

A

Cohort studies assess the relative risk

86
Q

Sharpey’s fibres attach

A

Sharpey’s fibres attach periosteum to bone

87
Q

Prevalence is equal to

A

Prevalence is equal to pretest probability

88
Q

Hyperventilation will lower ionised

A

Hyperventilation will lower ionised plasma Ca2+ levels

89
Q

What is the three-sigma rule?

A

68-95-99.7 rule or three-sigma rule

Almost the entire population will fall within 3 SD’s if normally distributed.

90
Q

RR =

A

RR = Ex Rate/Control Rate

91
Q

RRR=

A

RRR= (ER-CR)/CR

92
Q

Halothane is ….

A

Hepatotoxic

93
Q

Bolam’s test

A

Bolam’s test – if your decision is in agreement with professional standard of practice

94
Q

1L 0.9% NaCl = x mmol

A

154

95
Q

Long-standing offensive discharge from the ear…

A

Cholesteatoma