Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pathology > Skeletal System > Flashcards

Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

What pathology is shown here?

A

Osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T/F

A fracture can cause disruption of the normal trabecular pattern.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why does fracture imaging require more than one image?

A
  1. Looking at the angulation of the fracture (may have to put it back into position)
  2. Fracture may be hard to see on one view
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What sign is shown in the elbow if a fracture is present?

A

SAIL sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the signs that a distal radius fracture is present?

A

Trabecular pattern, lucency, slight posterior angulation and cortical disruption anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is circled?

A

The epiphyseal plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define the following term:

Complete fracture

A

Fractures through both sides of the bone (see at least 2 separate bone fragments)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define the following term:

Incomplete Fracture

A

Fracture through only one cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What fracture is more common in children; complete or incomplete?

A

Incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What type of fracture; complete or incomplete is a greenstick fracture?

A

Incomplete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What type of fracture is this?

Fracture is present but skin is intact

A

Closed/Simple fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What type of fracture is this?

Fracture fragment protrudes through the skin

A

Open/compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is one radiographic sign of an open fracture?

A

Air within the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the 4 MAIN classifications of fractures?

A
  1. Open
  2. Closed
  3. Complete
  4. Incomplete
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Read over the names of the following classifications of fractures

A
  • Transverse
  • Oblique
  • Spiral
  • Comminuted
  • Avulsion
  • Compression
  • Burst
  • Impacted
  • Depressed
  • Stress/fatigue
  • Pathological
  • Greenstick
  • Buckle or Torus
  • Undisplaced/Nondisplaced
  • Displaced

(could compile into a chart?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define the following term

Transverse fracture

A

Fracture line is horizontal to long axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of fracture is this?

Fracture line extends at an angle to axis; From one force applied in one direction

A

Oblique Fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of fracture is this?

Fracture line encircles the shaft; twisting motion, bone stays in spot as body moves

A

Spiral fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What type of fracture is this?

Bone is shattered into multiple fragments

A

Comminuted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of fracture is this?

Ligament or tendon tears away “chip” of bone; usually happen with large sprains

A

Avulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What type of fracture is this?

Commonly associated with anterior vertebral bodies; ex; osteoporosis

A

Compression fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What type of fracture is this?

Entire vertebral bodies are collapsed; sudden force

A

Burst Fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of fracture is this?

Humeral and femoral shafts driven into trabecular bone; high amount of impact, shaft goes into the head

A

Impacted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of fracture is this?

Skull or tibial plateau; flat area of bone with force applied

A

Depressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What pathology is shown?

A

Avulsion; mallet fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What classification of fracture is shown?

A

Impacted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What classification of fracture is shown?

A

Depressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What classification of fracture is shown?

A

Oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What classification of fracture is shown?

A

Spiral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What classification of fracture is shown?

A

Compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Where are stress fractures ussually seen in the body?

A

Tibia and metatarsals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the main reason for stress fractures?

A

Response of bone to repeated stresses (micro trauma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How long does it ussually take for a stress fracture to appear?

A

10-20 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the radiographical signs to look for a stress fracture?

A

Periosteal reaction (fluffiness) or thin translucent line (bone starting to be reabsorbed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where in the body is a pathological fracture most commonly seen?

A

Humerus, spine (older patients), femur

Be extra gentle and safe with these patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What type of fracture is shown on the Medial border of the 3rd metatarsal?

A

Stress fracture

(see the pariosteal reaction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of fracture is this describing?

Incomplete fracture in children

A

Greenstick fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What type of fracture is this describing?

One cortex is intact and the other is buckled

A

Buckle or Torus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What type of fracture is shown here?

A

A greenstick fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of fracture is this describing?

Fractures involving an epiphyseal plate (growth plate

A

Salter-Harris Fractures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Describe the 5 types of Salter-harris fractures:

A

S-Straight across-not going through the plate at all
A: Above-Comes across and goes up
L: Lower/below
T: Two through
ER: erasure of growth plate or Crush

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Label the type of Salter-Harris fractures in the four images below:

A

A: Straight across (greenstick fracture shown too)
B:Above
C: Lower
D: Two through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Describe undisplaced fractures:

A

Fracture fragments remain aligned and unseparated

(How to describe if the bones are together and will heal back to the way it was before)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F

Displaced fractures are described by direction of distal fragment in relation to proximal fragment

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the two treatment options for displaced fractures?

A
  1. Closed Reduction-Fracture manipulated without surgical incision
  2. Open Reduction-Surgically manipulate into better alignment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the three steps of bone healing?

A
  1. Bone reabsorption
  2. Bony callus formation
  3. Bone remodelling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the three pathologies involved in fracture healing?

A
  1. Mal-union
  2. Delayed Union
  3. Non-Union
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Fractures heals in a faulty position
(Bone fused together but misaligned)

A

Mal-union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Fractures takes longer than normal to heal. Result of decreased blood flow, inadequate immobilization, infection

A

Delayed Union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Healing has completely stopped and fractures remain un-united. Surgical intervention is required

A

Non-Union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Anterior/palmar/volar angulation of distal fragment on metatarsal

A

Boxer’s #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Where is the boxers # located?

A

Neck of 5th metacarpal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T/F

A Boxers # is a transverse fracture

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What pathology is shown here?

A

Boxers #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Where is a Bennetts fracture located?

A

At the base of the 1st metacarpal of the thumb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the Bennetts fracture a result of?

A

Result of hyperabduction of the thumb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the classification of a Bennetts fracture?

A

Avulsion fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Bennetts fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Where is a volar plate fracture located?

A

Volar surface of proximal part of the middle phalanx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the classification of a Volar plate fracture?

A

Avulsion #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is a volar plate fracture a result of?

A

From hyperextension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What pathology is shown here?

A

Volar plate fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where is a Mallett fracture located and what is the classification of fracture?

A

-Dorsal surface of distal phalanx
-Avulsion #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What pathology is shown here?

A

Mallet fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the mechanism of injury for a Colles fracture?

A

FOOSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the most common type of wrist fracture?

A

Colles fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Dorsal (posterior) displacement/ angulation of distal fragment in the wrist

A

Colles fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What pathology is shown here?

A

colles fracture?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the mechanism of injury for a Smiths fracture?

A

Falling onto flexed wrists or direct blow to dorsal (posterior) forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Ventral (anterior) displacement/ angulation of distal fragment in the wrist

A

Smiths fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?

A

The scaphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the method of injury for the scaphoid?

A

FOOSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What risks are assosiated with scaphoid fractures?

A

Risk of AVN (avascular necrosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Scaphoid fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft, with anterior dislocation of the radial head

A

Monteggia #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is the method of injury for a Monteggia #?

A

Falling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Monteggia #

One bone fractured, other bone dislocated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Fracture of the distal third of the radius, with posterior dislocation of the distal ulna

A

Galeazzi #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Galeazzi #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the most common elbow fracture in adults?

A

Radial head #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the mechanism of injury for a radial head fracture?

A

FOOSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the radiographic signs of a radial head fracture?

A

Look for raised anterior fat pad (“Sail sign”) and posterior fat pad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Where does the posterior fat pad of the elbow normally sit?

A

-Posterior fat pad should sit within the olecranon fossa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Radial head fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the most common elbow fracture in children?

A

Supracondylar #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the mechanism of injury for a Supracondylar #?

A

FOOSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Normally, where should the humeral line be in relation to the capitulum?

A

Anterior humeral line should pass through the middle third of the capitulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Supracondylar #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the types of common fractures of the shoulder? Describe the two:

A
  1. Impacted #’s (compress into itself)
  2. Avulsion #’s of greater tuberosity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

T/F

The majority of shoulder dislocations are posterior.

A

False; the majority of shoulder dislocations are anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are the three types of pathologies of the shoulder? Describe them:

A
  1. Hill-Sachs deformity is a compression # of humeral head
  2. Bony Bankart # is a fracture of the glenoid
  3. Subluxation: Partial dislocation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Anterior or posterior dislocation?

A

Anterior dislocation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How should you image for a bony Bankart lesion?

A

Use a caudad angle

Not to be confused with a Bony Bankart #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How many grades of AC seperation are there?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What are the two common fractures to the foot?

A

-March
-Jones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is a march fracture?

A

Stress # of 2nd, 3rd, 4th metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is a radiographic sign that a march fracture is present?

A

Pariosteal reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What pathology is present?

A

March fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Jones fracture

Don’t mix up jones with the apophyses of the 5th metatarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What classification and where is the Jones fracture located?

A

Transverse # of the 5th metatarsal distal to the tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is the risk assosiated with a Jones fracture?

A

Clinical concern of blood supply which can result in non-union, delayed healing, or avascular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are the three common types of fractures of the ankle?

A
  1. Pott’s # or Bimalleolar #
  2. Trimalleolar #
  3. Maisonneuve #
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the mechanism of injury for a Pott’s # or Bimalleolar #

A

Caused by forced abduction, eversion, and external rotation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Pott’s # or Bimalleolar #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Where is the fracture located in a Pott’s # or Bimalleolar #

A

Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What part of the ankle is affected in a Trimalleolar #?

A

Medial, lateral, and posterior malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Trimalleolar #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Spiral # of the proximal fibula and unstable ankle due to torn syndesmosis and deltoid

A

Maisonneuve #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Maisonneuve #

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Where is an Intertrochanteric # located?

A

Through the trochanters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the most common type of femoral fracture

A

Femoral neck fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the risk of a subtrochanteric fracture?

A

Risk of malunion because there are so many muscles/ligaments and tendons around the hip, muscles can twist the femur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Intertrochanteric fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What are the two types of compresssion fractures?

A

-Wedges
-Bursts

115
Q

What is a compression fracture ussually assosiated with?

A

Typically associated with poor bone quality (tumour, osteoporosis)

116
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Burst fracture of C1

A

Jeffersons fracture

117
Q

What is the mechanism of injury for a Jeffersons fracture?

A

Axial load injury (head first)

118
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Jeffersons fracture

C1 is wider

119
Q

What type of compression fracture is this describing?

When a disc/bone in your spine is extremely compressed, becoming crushed, spreading fragments throughout the spine.

A

Burst fracture

120
Q

What type of compression fractures is this describing?

Result of degeneration of the spine or trauma

A

Wedge fracture

121
Q

How many types of Odontoid fractures are there?

122
Q

Where is a type 1 odontoid fracture located?

A

At the tip of the odontoid

123
Q

Where is a type two fracture of the odontoid located?

A

Through the base

not as stable

124
Q

Where is a type 3 odontoid fracture located?

A

Through the body of C2

125
Q

What is the mechanism of injury for a Hangmans fracture?

A

Acute hyperextension of the head on the neck

126
Q

T/F

A hangmans fracture results in anterior subluxation of C2 on C3

127
Q

What part of the vertebra is fractured in a hangmans fracture?

A

Both pedicles of C2

128
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Hangmans fracture

129
Q

What classification of fractures is a Clay-Shoveler’s #?

A

Avulsion fracture

130
Q

Where is the Clay-Shoveler’s # located?

A

Through the spinous process of C7 (or C6)

131
Q

What is a Facet Dislocation?

A

Sliding of the vertebral bodies without a fracture

132
Q

What is the mechanism of injury for a faucet dislocation?

A

Acute flexion

133
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Clay shovellers fracture

134
Q

What part of the spine is affected with Fracture through the pars interarticularis

A

Fracture through the pars interarticularis in L3-L5

135
Q

What is Spondylolisthesis?

A

Forward displacement of one vertebra on the one below

136
Q

What is Spondylolisthesis
caused by?

A

Caused by bilateral spondylolysis or severe Degenerative Disc Disease

137
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Spondylolysis

138
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Spondylolisthesis

139
Q

What are the classifications of abnormalities within the skeletal system?

A
  1. Congenital / Hereditary Diseases of Bone
  2. Inflammatory & Infectious Disorders
  3. Metabolic Bone Disease
  4. Neoplasms of the Skeletal System
140
Q

What are the types of Congenital / Hereditary Diseases of Bone? (5)

A
  1. Spina Bifida
  2. Osteopetrosis
  3. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
  4. Achondroplasia
  5. Congenital Hip Dysplasia (Dislocation)
141
Q

What is Spina Bifida?

A

Failure of the posterior vertebral arch to close (laminae)

142
Q

What physical signs are present with Spina Bifida Occulta?

A

Tuft of hair and some discolouration over defect, no issues with spinal cord

143
Q

What are the 3 types of Spina Bifida?

A
  1. Spina Bifida Occulta
  2. Meningocele
  3. Myelomeningocele
144
Q

What occurs in the spine with Meningocele?

A

Meninges herniate out the lesion

145
Q

What occurs in the spine with Myelomeningocele?

A

Spinal cord and meninges herniate out of the defect
and Chiari Malformations

146
Q

What are Chiari Malformations?

A

Causes part of the brain to herniate, increasing pressure

147
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Spina Bifida

148
Q

What are the risks of of osteopetrosis?

A

-Could cause anemia (low blood because they are not producing as much as they should)
-Bones become more fragile and fracture easily

149
Q

What is the cause of osteopetrosis?

A

Genetic mutation

“Marble Bones”

150
Q

What pathology is shown here?

A

Osteopetrosis

151
Q

What are the clinical indications of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

A

Multiple fractures (at different stages of healing)
Blue sclera of the eye

152
Q

What is another name for Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI)?

A

Brittle Bone Disease

153
Q

How many types of Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) are there?

154
Q

T/F

Osteogenesis Imperfecta (OI) is a generalized disorder of connective tissue

155
Q

What is another name for Achondroplasia?

156
Q

What is the physiological cause of Achondroplasia

A

Diminished proliferation of cartilage in the growth plate (specifically with the long bones)

157
Q

What are the physical signs of Achondroplasia?

A

Normal trunk, but short limbs
Bulging frontal bone and mandible (some effects on the normal bones)

158
Q

What pathology is present?

A

Achondroplasia

Scalloping of the vertebra (curving of the posterior body)

159
Q

What does congenital hip displasia result from?

A

Results from incomplete acetabulum formation

160
Q

What two projections are used for congenital jip displasia?

A

AP
Bilateral Frog

161
Q

What physical test is done to look for congenital hip displasia?

A

Flex and abduct the hip

162
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Congenital hip displasia

163
Q

T/F

Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease is congenital

A

False; it is not something you are born with, develops later in life

164
Q

What is Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease?

A

Ischemic or avascular necrosis of the femoral head (aseptic necrosis)

165
Q

T/F

Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease ussualy affects woman.

A

False; Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease ussually affects males

166
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease

Femoral head dying because of avascular necrosis

167
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Legg–Calvé–Perthes disease

Left femoral head is flatter and shorter than the typical femoral head

168
Q

What type of fracture is Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)?

A

Salter harris type 1

169
Q

What line do you use to measure for SCFE?

A

Klein’s line

170
Q

What population does SCFE mostly affect?

A

Common condition of overweight adolescent males

171
Q

What are the risk(s) associated with SCFE?

A

Failure to treat leads to AVN

172
Q

What images are done for SCFE?

A

AP and bilateral frog-leg images

173
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

SCFE

-Follow line on the superior border of the femoral head; seeing the head slipping

174
Q

What are the 6 common types of Inflammatory and Infectious Disorders of the skeletal system?

A

Osteoarthritis
Osteochondritis Dissecans
Rheumatoid Arthritis
Ankylosing Spondylitis
Osteomyelitis
Osgood-Schlatter’s

175
Q

What is osteoarthritis?

A

Degenerative joint disease

176
Q

What bones of the body does osteoarthritis typically affect?

A

Spine, hip, knee, ankle
Medial side narrowed more than the lateral side of the knee
(Typically affects the weight-bearing joints)

177
Q

What is osteoarthritis a result of?

A

Wear and tear of the aging process-accelerated with trauma or septic and inflammatory arthritis that destroys the cartilage

178
Q

What are the four radiographic signs of osteoarthritis?

A
  1. Joint space narrowing (loosing cartilage)
  2. Osteophyte formation (new bone formation; or bone spur formation)
  3. Sclerosis along the joint margin
  4. Subchondral cyst (darker) formation (geodes)
179
Q

What is sclerosis?

A

Scaring; whiter bone formation along the edge of the joint

180
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Osteoarthritis (OA)
(look for the four radiographic signs)

181
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Osteoarthritis (no picture frame appearance associated with OA)

182
Q

What pathology is seen here?

183
Q

What joint does Heberden’s node affect with OA?

A

The distal phalange

184
Q

What are the two types of bone spurs seen with OA?

A

Types of bone spurs (Heberden’s-distal joint), and (Bouchard’s-IPJ)

185
Q

What is Osteochondritis Dissecans?

A

Necrotic separation of segment of bone and cartilage

186
Q

What is the cause of Osteochondritis Dissecans?

A

Idiopathic

187
Q

What bones does Osteochondritis Dissecans primarily affect?

A

Primarily affects knee, ankle, elbow

188
Q

What does Osteochondritis Dissecans progress to over time?

189
Q

What are the four radiographic signs of Osteochondritis Dissecans (x-ray)

A
  1. Radiolucency or flattening about cortical surface
  2. Contour abnormalities
  3. Density Changes (lucency and sclerosis)
  4. Fragmentation (one chip pulled away)
190
Q

What are the two MR signs of Osteochondritis Dissecans?

A
  1. High intensity at interface and through articular cartilage (between the area of necrosis and normal bone you will see high signal)
  2. Fluid cysts beneath lesion
191
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Osteochondritis Dissecans (Clear area of the bone where it is darker)

192
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Osteochondritis Dissecans-Not seeing the free fragments but seeing the free bone

193
Q

What is the cause of Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

A

Idiopathic, auto-immune disease

194
Q

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

A

Body starts to attack the joints

195
Q

Where does RA begin and where does it progress to in the body?

A

Typically symmetrical starting with the small joints in the fingers, hands, toes, and feet.
Progresses toward the trunk affecting all joints.

196
Q

What population does RA mostly affect?

197
Q

What are the progressive steps of RA?

A
  1. Begins as a synovitis
  2. Joint space narrowing and cortical erosions
  3. Erosions lead to deformities and subluxations or dislocations
198
Q

What is synovitis?

A

Periarticular soft tissue swelling

199
Q

What pathology is seen here?

200
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

RA
Subfluxation of C1/C2
-Black arrow-Anterior arch

201
Q

What is another name for Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A

“Bamboo spine” or Marie Strumpell Disease

202
Q

T/F

Ankylosing Spondylitis
is a variant of rheumatoid arthritis

203
Q

What population is affected most with Ankylosing Spondylitis?

204
Q

What are the progressive steps of Ankylosing Spondylitis

A
  1. Begins in SI joints and progresses up
  2. Joints get inflamed, tissues become ossified
  3. Ossification of the paravertebral tissues and longitudinal ligament
205
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

Bony formation along lateral and anterior borders

206
Q

What are the sign and symptoms of Osteomyelitis

A

Fever or chills
Pain in the area of the infection
Swelling, warmth and redness over the area of the infection

207
Q

What are the 3 ways in which individuals can get Osteomyelitis?

A

Hematogenous spread (through the blood)
Extension from adjacent site of infection
Direct introduction or from a wound

208
Q

What is Osteomyelitis?

A

Inflammation of bone and bone marrow

209
Q

What occurs to the body as osteomyelitis starts and then begins to spread?

A
  1. Begins as an abscess (hard to see at the beginning)
  2. Spreads down the medullary cavity and towards the surface
  3. Lifts the periosteum and may spread a long way
210
Q

T/F

Osteomyelitis may take 1-2 weeks to appear radiographically.

211
Q

What are the two types of Osteomyelitis?

A
  1. Acute
  2. Chronic
212
Q

What happens to the body physiologically with chronic osteomyelitis?

A

-Layered periosteal reaction
-Bony destruction with sclerosis (inner whiter part)

213
Q

What happens to the body physiologically with acute osteomyelitis?

A

Deep soft tissue swelling (not seen well on x ray)

214
Q

What is the best modality to image acute osteomyelitis?

215
Q

Define the following term:
Sequestrum

A

Destructed bone area (separate it, inner part sealed off)

216
Q

Define the following term:
new surrounding bone (new bone to contain it)

A

Involucrum

217
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Osteomyelitis

218
Q

What is Osgood-Schlatter’s Disease and what age group is it most common in?

A

-Apophysitis of the tibial tubercle/inflammation of the patellar ligament (ripping away bone)
-Active adolescents

219
Q

What is the best modality for imaging Osgood-Schlatter’s Disease?

A

MRI or Ultrasound

220
Q

What are the imaging signs of Osgood-Schlatter’s Disease

A

-Patellar ligament is not as distinct in affected knee
-Possible bone fragmentation
-Soft tissue swelling

221
Q

T/F

Osgood-Schlatter’s Disease
can be bilateral or unilateral

222
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Osgood-Schlatter’s Disease

See the swelling

223
Q

What are the 5 types of Metabolic Bone Diseases?

A

Osteoporosis
Osteomalacia
Rickets
Gout
Paget’s Disease

224
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Bone Metastases
(note the osteolytic lesions)

225
Q

What is the most common malignant bone tumours?

A

Bone Metastases

226
Q

How does bone metastases spread?

A

Spread via bloodstream, lymphatics or direct extension

227
Q

What areas of the body do bone metastases originate from?

A

prostatic, breast, kidney, thyroid, lung
(PBKTL)

228
Q

What is the best type of imaging for bone metastases?

A

NM bone scan or PET scans

229
Q

What are the two types of bone metastases? Which will appear whiter in a radiographic image?

A
  1. Osteoblastic (appears whiter)
  2. Osteolytic
230
Q

What bone metastases are osteoblastic

A

Prostatic cancer

231
Q

What bone metastases are both osteoblastic and osteolytic?

A

Breast cancer

232
Q

What bone metastases are osteolytic?

A

kidney, thyroid, lung

233
Q

What is Multiple Myeloma and what age group does it mostly affect?

A

Widespread malignancy of plasma cells most common in ages 40 to 70

234
Q

What imaging process is done for Multiple Myeloma

A

Skeletal survey (AP and a lateral of every bone in the body)

235
Q

What types of bones are mostly affected with Multiple Myeloma

A

Marrow-containing flat bones most affected

236
Q

What can multiple myeloma lead to?

A

Bone destruction, bone marrow failure, hypercalcemia, renal failure, and recurrent infections

237
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Multiple myeloma
-Don’t mix up with Pagents: (with pagents you will see white area)

238
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Multiple myeloma

239
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma
(Tend to be in larger areas and spread further into the shaft compared to Osteogenic Sarcoma or Osteosarcoma)

240
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma (Note the area of lysis, areas of the periosteum moving)

241
Q

What is Ewing’s Sarcoma and what age group does it affect mostly?

A

Tumour of children and young adults (rare over 30)

242
Q

What radiographic signs are visible with Ewing’s Sarcoma

A

-Permeative (large area) lytic lesions with periosteal reaction
-“Onion-skin” appearance

243
Q

What modality is used for staging Ewing’s sarcoma?

A

MRI is used for staging

244
Q

What T score indicates Osteoperosis?

245
Q

What is Osteoporosis? What can it lead to?

A

-Cortical thinning of the bone + loss of bone density
-Leads to pathological and compression/wedge fractures (hip, spine)

246
Q

What T score indicates Osteopenia?

A

-1.5 to -2.5 is osteopenia

247
Q

What modality is used to diagnose osteoporosis?

A

BMD DXA scan is used to diagnose osteoporosis

248
Q

What radiographic signs do you look for with osteoporosis?

A

Picture frame appearance

249
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Osteoporosis

250
Q

What is Osteomalacia and what is it caused by?

A

-Loss of bone density which creates “soft bone”
-Caused by insufficient calcium, phosphorus, or vitamin D

251
Q

What are the two common radiographic signs of Osteomalacia?

A

Bowing deformities and protrusio acetabuli

252
Q

What is bowing Protrusio acetabuli?

A

Acetabulum is soft and causes it to protrude inwards toward the pelvis

253
Q

What is a variation of osteomalacia and what is it caused by?

A

-Rickets-same but in
children
-Caused from not enough calcium or vitamin D

254
Q

What types of bones is rickets seen in more?

A

Seen more in faster-growing portions of bones

255
Q

What pathology is seen here

A

Osteomalacia
(difference btwn this and Osteoporosis is that you cannot see the fine detail of the cortex with osteomalacia where as with OP you can)

256
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Protrusio acetabuli -Osteomalacia

257
Q

What pathology is this image showing?

A

Kid with rickets before and after vit. D supplements (in the top image-flatter looking)

258
Q

What pathology is this describing?

Disorder in the metabolism of purine

259
Q

What does a disorder of the metabolism of purine lead to?

A

Turns and Leads to elevated levels of uric acid in blood (hyperuricemia)
which deposits of uric acid crystals in joints, cartilage, and kidney as seen in GOUT

260
Q

What is the cause of “rat bite lesions” as seen in GOUT?

A

Caused by Tophi (uric acid crystals) form along the joint margin and eventually erode away the bone

261
Q

What are the INITIAL radiographic signs of GOUT?

A

Initially produces inflammation, joint effusion, and peri-articular swelling

262
Q

Where is the most common spot for GOUT to appear?

A

The big toe

263
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

GOUT

Overhanging edges, swelling around the joint
Rat bite lesions

264
Q

What pathology is seen here

(aplogies to your eyes)

A

Gout
uric acid formation (calcified)

265
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Osteosarcoma (Periosteum lifting away seen)

266
Q

What is Osteosarcoma and in what age/population does it appear in?

A

-Aggressive, malignant tumour
-Typically arises between ages of 10 to 25 or in older patients with Paget’s disease

267
Q

What are the radiographic signs of Osteosarcoma?

A

-Periosteal reaction (elevation); lifted away from the bone)
-Codman’s Triangle (looks like SAIL sign)
-Associated soft tissue mass

268
Q

Where does Osteogenic Sarcoma or Osteosarcoma typically appear in the body?

A

Metaphysis of long bones especially knee

269
Q

What pathology is shown here?

A

Osteochondromas

-Neoplasm gets more radiolucent at the top
-Cortex is smooth even though its growing in a weird shape
-Chance for pathological fracture
-Do not see the periosteum lifting off of it

270
Q

What is Osteochondromas? Where is the most common site for it to appear?

A

-Projection of bone (exostosis-projecting outwards) with a cartilaginous cap
-Most common at the knee

271
Q

T/F

Osteochondromas can be painful, and can also become malignant.

272
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Simple Bone Cyst-Benign

Septations (not irregular radiolucency), pathological fracture

273
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Simple bone cyst-Benign

Single area filled with fluid (common area)

274
Q

What is a simple bone cyst? Can they hurt?

A

-Fluid-filled cyst with a fibrous wall (may have septations-not irregular radiolucency)
-Sometimes can hurt

275
Q

Where are simple bone cysts ussually found?

A

Often found in the proximal humerus or femur mataphyses

276
Q

T/F

Simple bone cysts may be an Incidental finding or may produce a pathological #

277
Q

What are 3 charecteristics of benign tumours?

A
  1. As tumour expands, cortex remains intact
  2. Smooth borders (could be weird shapes, but smooth)
  3. Well defined margins
278
Q

What are 4 characteristics of malignant tumours?

A
  1. Cortical bone erosion as tumour expands
  2. Poorly defined margins
  3. Effects the edges of the bone
  4. Periosteal reaction
279
Q

What is Paget’s Disease
“Osteitis Deformans”
and what is it caused by?

A

-Common chronic metabolic disease of the skeleton which causes excessive bone breakdown and disorganized new bone formation

-Idiopathic diseases

280
Q

What parts of the body does Paget’s Disease
“Osteitis Deformans” affect?

A

Affects pelvis, femurs, skull, tibias, vertebrae, clavicles, and ribs

281
Q

What is one of the main risks of Pagets disease?

A

May develop into osteosarcoma

282
Q

What are the radiographic signs of Paget’s disease

A

Bones affected have a mottled, cotton-wool appearance (from irregular formation)

283
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Paget’s disease

284
Q

What pathology is seen here?

A

Paget’s disease (note cotton ball appearance)

Pathology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions