Simulator Self Test Questions Flashcards

1
Q

How are normal checklists called for and actioned?

A

PM carries out the procedure.
PF then calls for the checklist.
Procedure:Checklist! With nothing inbetween.
The PM must ensure the completion of each applicable item and observe its execution. He/she must indicate to the PF when each item, or when authorised in the appropriate FCOM, each checklist section is completed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the critical data loading procedure.

A

This procedure must not be conducted until the Fuelling Procedure has been completed.
It should be done at a time of low workload.
Avoid distractions.
Ensure everyone is involved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the SOP for FMA call-outs.

A

Maintain situational awareness at all times.
Both pilots must monitor AFDS mode annunciations and the current FMC flight plan and verify that the airplane is responding appropriately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe the FCTM handling techniques for taxi.

A
Common sense stuff.
High SA. Brief likely directions and closures.
Use minimal power
Stop if unsure
Keep speed slow
Keep hands on tiller and throttles etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the ‘AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE’ memory actions?

A

Autopilot disengage switch Push
A/T ARM switches (both) OFF
F/D switches (both) OFF

Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
Flaps extended 10°/85% N1
Flaps up 4°/70% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What approximate pitch and power datum’s for 220t at 5000 ft, S & L, FL200 and FL300?

A

5° 58%

  1. 7° 74%
  2. 5° 84%
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe the trap of failing to follow the FD pitch command during a descent with A/T HOLD (e.g. during a FLCH/VNAV SPD descent).

A

Both FLCH SPD and VNAV SPD pitch modes will force the A/T FMA out of the SPD mode and A/T wake up will not occur if speed is allowed to decay with the A/T activated but not controlling speed.
The only time you can be sure the A/T will try to maintain your selected speed is when SPD is annunciated in the Left Hand A/T FMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the potential trap of turning off only one pilot’s FD.

A

Turning both FDs off will force the thrust FMA into SPD, helping to protect your speed. Leaving only one FD on will mean that HOLD can remain programmed, leaving you at risk from stalling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the SOP for handover of control for the descent.

A

Complete interactive brief.

PM sets VREF on the Approach page, Nav Radio page, Autobrake, Check the Landing Perf

PF sets Standby Altimeter and Transition Level

PM Recalls all Alert messages and Operational Notes
Both check messages, notes, set minima,

PF calls for the Descent checklist then PM reads it out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the take-off technique?

A

A rolling Takeoff is recommended.

Align the a/c with the centreline then set approx 55%N1. Pause, allowing the engine to stabilise, then press TOGA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the B777 visual circuit.

A

At 1000’ Call `press A/T switch, Flap 5, F5 Speed. (VRef30+40). Start the turn 25° angle of bank.
1500’ level off using the FPV in the turn. You want about 5° attitude and 55-57% and F5.

After T/O checks, Descent and Approach checks
Double the drift using HDG SEL or 1x drift using TRK SEL ….2d from airfield

Abeam the runway threshold: Start timer
At 35 secs +/- headwind or tailwind
“Gear down Flap 20 F20 speed”.
Arm the Speedbrakes lever.

Up to 90secs+/- wind…..about 60secs, Call “F25/F30. Final speed”.
Level turn.
Turn at 25° AofB and really concentrate on not overbanking using the trend vector. Use the turning string on the map to asses how well you are turning
“Landing Checklist and FDs off “
On descent, set your datums.
Looking for 2° bottom hat F25 57% (below 2.5° line) or 1°Top Hat F30 NU(above horizon line) and 58% N1
FPV when on the Glide Path. For a 3°GP stick the tail on the horizon
Trim for speed
1000’ “Stable
Ask for heading adjustments as appropriate. Position trend vector…3 segments 30, 60, 90 secs
Check the GP is correct.
Adjust with small corrections but do it early.
Below 100’ maintain the crab. I was drifting off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How will you trim the aircraft whilst flying the circuit?

A

With every change in speed. Should be 2 second blips.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the stabilized approach criteria?

A

By the 1000’ Autocall out An approach is considered stable when all of the following criteria are met:

In the planned landing configuration (gear down land flap achieved).

Stabilised on the correct vertical profile (see Note 1).

Stabilised at the target approach speed (see Note 2).

Note 1:
The vertical profile is defined as either:

An electronic glideslope/glidepath
A non-precision final approach path or in the absence of either,
An agreed visual profile:

Note 2:
Only in circumstances of rapid wind changes, turbulence or adherence to appropriate ATC speed requirements and if the speed is close to the target approach speed and reducing, can the approach be continued.

If the aircraft is not stable at the target approach speed before the 500 ft auto-callout then a go-around must be flown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the landing technique?

A

When the threshold passes out of sight under the airplane nose shift the visual sighting point to the far end of the runway. Shifting the visual sighting point assists in controlling the pitch attitude during the flare.

Initiate the flare when the landing gear is at 20-30’
Increase Pitch 2-3° to reduce descent rate.
If the autothrottle is not engaged, after the flare is initiated, (approx 25’) smoothly retard the thrust levers to idle, and make small pitch attitude adjustments to maintain the desired descent rate to the runway. Hold sufficient back pressure on the control column to keep the pitch attitude constant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

To what height can you use the visual approach aids?

A

At a guess, until passing the threshold whereupon you will then look to the far end of the runway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is the runway aiming point?

A

Focus remains on TDZ rather than PAPIs.
TDZ can be different in the USA
PAPIs may be inappropriate depending on Eye- Wheel Height calibration and maintenance quality, especially below 200’
• PAPIs (particularly in the USA) may not be coincident with the electronic glideslope
Consistent RoD when using electronic guidance as opposed to having to adjust to a (possibly) different GP at a late stage
• F/D guidance remains valid

When the threshold passes out of sight under the airplane nose shift the visual sighting point to the far end of the runway. This assists with controlling the pitch attitude during the flare.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When are speedbrake and reverse thrust selected on touchdown.

A

In the event auto extension fails, the speedbrakes need to be manually extended. After touchdown, fly the nose wheels smoothly to the runway while slowly raising the speedbrake to the up position.

After touchdown, with the thrust levers at idle, rapidly raise the reverse thrust levers up and aft to the interlock position, then apply reverse thrust as required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is there a standard call for reverse idle?

A

No. It’s implied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the crosswind take-off technique.

A

Brief to T/O on the roll, with strong winds. As the speed increases gradually add enough aileron into wind to keep wings level, slowly rotate on lift off, don’t over rotate. May need a little more aileron into wind, slowly remove cross controls starting with the rudder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When would you apply forward control-column pressure during the take-off roll?

A

Light forward pressure on the control column during the initial phase of the takeoff roll (below approximately 80 knots) increases nose wheel steering effectiveness especially in a crosswind.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When are the controls centralized after take-off?

A

After lift off, you may initially need a little more aileron into wind, then slowly remove the cross controls, rudder first.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the crosswind landing technique.

A

There are 3 methods. I only use 2 I do not use the side slip.

I use decrab in the flare which involves maintaining wings level all the way down. Just prior to touchdown while flaring the airplane, downwind rudder is applied to eliminate the crab and align the airplane with the runway centerline. Hold wings level with simultaneous application of aileron control into the wind

Landing with the crab still on if very slippery runways, reduces drift toward the downwind side at touchdown, permits rapid operation of spoilers and autobrakes because all main gears touchdown simultaneously, and may reduce pilot workload since the airplane does not have to be de-crabbed before touchdown. However, proper rudder and upwind aileron must be applied after touchdown to ensure directional control is maintained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What considerations are required for a landing runway that is less than 60 metres wide?

A

A 300 Series cannot do a 180° turn

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the crosswind limitations?

A

These depend on Runway surface conditions, aircraft weight and MACTOW.
The maximum crosswind limits are 40kts T/O and 45kts Landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How would you deal with directional control problems during the landing roll?

A

Use a combination of rudder, differential braking, and control wheel input into wind to maintain runway centerline.
If there is an issue, release brakes and select Reverse Idle, then when back on the centreline, reapply brakes and Symmetrical Reverse Thrust.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What flight director modes could assist you the most?

A

The basic modes. V/S, HDG SEL, Alt Hold.

SPD is useful for A/T wake up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

On what FMC page can you find the QFE reference selector?

A

Approach Ref Page

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What datum should the Standby Altimeter be set to when below transition?

A

QNH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If an intruder is sighted and is assessed as an immediate threat, without an RA, what would you do?

A

Consider V/S with a speed.

Talk through your likely actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

If a TA is received close to levelling out, what could you consider?

A

Reduce your rate of climb/descent using V/S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which ‘RA’ does not require an immediate manoeuvre?

A

A DESCEND (fly down) RA issued below 1000 feet AGL should not be followed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If you receive a DESCEND ‘RA’ below 1000 ft, what would you do?

A

Ignore it.

Establish visual contact with aircraft. Manoeuvre to avoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

For a CLIMB ‘RA’ in the landing configuration, what is your pitch reference?

A

Smoothly adjust pitch to satisfy the RA command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How would you handle the autothrottle in an RA.

A

Disconnect it and add or subtract power as required. Then use FLCH as part of the MCP rebuild to reengage the A/T.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe the handling characteristics when FLIGHT CONTROL MODE is displayed.

A

The flight control system is in the secondary mode.
The airplane response is changed by simplified elevator feel and rudder ratio systems.
Autopilot inop
Envelope protection functions inop
The yaw damper is degraded.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Describe the handling characteristics when PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS is displayed.

A

The flight control system is operating in the direct mode.
The airplane response is changed by simplified elevator feel and rudder ratio systems.
Inoperative Items
Autopilot inop
Envelope protection functions inop
Yaw damping inop
Rudder manual trim cancel switch Inop
Pitch trim moves slower than in normal mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How do you set the flap and speed on the approach page for a non-normal landing?

A

Select the Flap, look up the VRef 30 speed in the FMC or QRH and then add whatever speed it tells you.
Still may have to add a wind increment if the A/T is u/s.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

After completing the FLAPS DRIVE checklist, where can you find further advice on how to fly the approach?

A

FCTM Non Normal Operations Flight Control’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which pilot is normally assigned control during a non-normal situation?

A

First Officer for the captain to then manage the situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What considerations would you have following a HYD PRESS SYS R + C.

A

No Autoland. You need Cat1 weather.
Multiple flight control surfaces inop. Handling qualities are degraded.
Stabilizer inop…..so you will have to do the recall actions!
Primary flap and slat operation inop. Plan more time for slower flap and slat operation using Secondary mode
Main landing gear hydraulic operation inop. Alternate gear extension is needed.
Right thrust reverser inop. Use max Reverse on Left
Autobrake inop. Manual braking is available.
Normal brakes and alternate brakes from center hydraulic source are inop. Alternate brakes from the reserve hydraulic source are available.
Main gear steering inop. Tires may scrub during turns. Nose gear steering is available.

No Autoland but A/P is available until 200’.
Crosswind limit for landing is 20 knots.
Do not arm the speedbrake lever. This prevents inadvertent in-flight speedbrake extension. Manually extend the speedbrakes after landing.
Will not be able to retract the gear if you GA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What do you understand by “Landing Assured”?

A

A landing is ‘assured’ if, in the judgment of the Commander, it could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and airborne facilities (e.g. a failure which could downgrade the planned landing status from say CAT IIIA to CAT II).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

When can a First Officer call ‘Stop’?

A

For any Fire, an Engine Failure or a predictive Windshear warning.
If flying the a/c, also for a blocked runway or control difficulties.
If a 300 series, also for a RAAS Runway Alert.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When can a Captain call ‘Stop’?

A

Prior to 80 knots, the Captain (or First Officer where permitted) should call “STOP” for any of the following:

activation of the master caution system
system failure(s)
unusual noise or vibration
tire failure
abnormally slow acceleration
takeoff configuration warning
fire or fire warning*
engine failure*
predictive windshear warning*
RAAS runway alert*
if the airplane is unsafe or unable to fly

Above 80 knots and prior to V1, the Captain (or First Officer where permitted) shall call “STOP” for any of the following:
fire or fire warning*
engine failure*
predictive windshear warning*
if the airplane is unsafe or unable to fly
At all times when the First Officer is PF he may, in addition call “STOP” for a significant handling difficulty or a blocked runway.

In summery, below 80kts the Capt can call STOP for pretty much anything. Above 80kts it’s the same as an FO….

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What RAAS aural annunciations would you call ‘Stop’ for?

A

Accomplish the following manoeuvre for any of these aural alerts or ND annunciations.
Alerts
CAUTION ON TAXIWAY, ON TAXIWAY

CAUTION SHORT RUNWAY, SHORT RUNWAY
ON RUNWAY (RUNWAY IDENTIFIER) (METERS) AVAILABLE
APPROACHING (RUNWAY IDENTIFIER) (METERS) AVAILABLE

ND Annunciations
ON TAXIWAY
SHORT RUNWAY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If ‘Stop’ were called, what would your actions be?

A

If PF:
Close thrust levers, disconnect A/T, bring my hand over to the control column and if above 85kts, monitor the RTO braking or if necessary apply full braking with the intention of bringing the a/c to a complete stop. I will make sure the Park Brake is set, thrust levers are closed, A/T is disconnected, Reverse is cancelled and the Storm Light is switched ON.
Then do the ATTTENTION CREW, AT STATIONS call.

If PM:
Verify actions as follows:
Thrust levers closed.
Autothrottles disengaged.
Maximum brakes applied.
Apply reverse thrust up to the maximum amount consistent with conditions.
Monitor deployment of the Speedbrake and if necessary, deploy it manually, then make the call Speedbrake Up Reversers Normal, or Speedbrake not up or No Reverse…..Engine.
From then on in I will monitor your braking and speed. I will make a call at 60kts, select Reverse Idle followed ever so slowly down to Forward Idle.
Once the Park Brake is set, Captain takes Control.
ATTRNTION CREW AT STATIONS.
Manage the situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If the First Officer were handling, when would the Captain take control on an RTO?

A

When the Park Brake is set.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What sources of information can help decide if an evacuation is required?

What PA should you make if an immediate evacuation is not required?

A
Instrumentation. Alarms.
Cabin Crew
Heavy Pilot
Tower
Fire Services.
Other Aircraft

ATTENTION CREW AT STATIONS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What circumstances dictate the use of fire extinguishers following an RTO?

How would you shut down an engine?

A

If an engine or APU fire warning occurs
For an evacuation, if a fire exists in or is near an Engine or APU.

There is NO requirement to fire bottles if you have left the paved surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

If passenger evacuation is not required, what would your actions be?

When would you check the brake-cooling schedule?

A

Passengers and Crew Remain Seated and await further instructions.

Tell the CSD your next intentions. Tell the customers you are taxiing off and will talk to them again soon.
Coordinate with ATC a place to come off the runway and park
Mention requirement for After Landing Checklist.

Review the Brake Cooling before taxing off the runway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Will TAC always be available to assist control?

How would you recognize the engine failure while visual/on instruments?

A

Not always. In very simple terms, TAC determines a difference in thrust between the two engines and based on this it generates rudder commands. So, if the thrust of either engine cannot be determined and thus the thrust difference between the two engines then TAC will inhibit itself instead of generating potentially erroneous rudder command

If visual, you will see the yaw. If on instruments, the Heading bug will move violently.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How would you diagnose an engine failure?

A

There are lots of indications:-

An EICAS message, N1 and N2 gauges, Engine Vibration, High EGT’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When would you call for the ENG SEV DAMAGE/SEP checklist?

A

Once correctly diagnosed, Above 400’ and with LNAV or HDG SEL engaged. Call for the Eng Severe Damage/Separation L/R checklist. Do the recall actions then continue with the rest of the checklist once clean with CON Annunciated and Engine Out selected in the FMC.

53
Q

What are the memory items for the ENG LIM/SURGE/STALL checklist?

A
A/T ARM switch (affected side............Confirm. . . . .OFF
Thrust lever (affected side)..................Confirm. . . . .Retard until
                                                                          engine indications stay within limits     or the thrust lever is at idle
54
Q

How would you diagnose severe damage to an engine?

A

A bang and a large swing. No N1 rotation, maybe down at 8% (a seizure) or blank (a separation) and other damage eg High EGT or Vibration.

55
Q

With an EFATO What is the initial target pitch attitude and rotation rate?

What is the target airspeed after take-off?

A

If using Improved Climb Performance in a 200 series it’s about 8°,
10° if not or in a 300 series. Then follow the FD’s.
Always taught about 2-2.5° per second.

The flight director commands a minimum of V2, or the existing speed up to a maximum of V2 + 15 knots.

56
Q

On a EFATO How is engine failure recognized and what will the FD command?

A

Can recognise with a bang and a swing, EICAS messages and instrumentation such as Low N1’, N2’s, High EGT’s, Vibration etc.
The flight director commands a minimum of V2, or the existing speed up to a maximum of V2 + 15 knots.
The flight director roll mode commands ground track after liftoff until LNAV engagement or another roll mode is selected.
The AFDS limits the bank angle to 15° until V2 + 10 knots to maintain at least adequate maneuver margin. The bank angle limit increases to 25° by V2 + 20 knots if LNAV is engaged, or when HDG SEL or TRK SEL is engaged with the bank limit in AUTO.

57
Q

What are the PF’s actions on an EFATO

How could the PF reduce the workload after take-off?

A

Fly the aircraft.
Control yaw with rudder. Keep wings level. Pitch 8°-10°, then with the FD’s. Etc

Stick an A/P in.

58
Q

On an EFATO, What thrust is commanded during the acceleration?

What action takes place at MSA?

A

Climb thrust which is a near level acceleration in VNAV. With flaps up, the FMC commands a climb at flaps up maneuver speed and the autothrottles transition automatically to maximum continuous thrust if VNAV is engaged.

Select the Engine Out Climb Thrust

59
Q

How do you fly an Emergency Turn? Are ATC aware of these procedures?

A

Initially in HDG SEL then LNAV.
If you are in a terrain constrained environment, it is possible you will get a EGPWS warning or caution during the ETP. It is therefore vital to maximise the climb angle and continue to follow the prescribed ETP. Do not reduce below V2.

Tell ATC your actions as they will not know your procedure and you will probably not meet their altitude restraints.

60
Q

In what order should you process the Non-normal ECL, the EICAS and the After Take-off checklist?

A

Non Normal
Review EICAS messages
After T/O checklist.

61
Q

What flap setting(s) may be used for a single engine approach?

If landing distance was critical, what could be considered?

How is the autopilot used?

What is the autoland capability?

A

F20 and F30

F30 if Landing Distance is critical. Other considerations are Full braking, Full Reverse, Divert to a more appropriate Airfield etc.

Can still do a Cat3B no DH Autoland on one Engine.

62
Q

What autobrake and reverse thrust would be used for a SE landing?

A

Whatever is appropriate for the conditions having completed a Landing Distance calculation.

63
Q

What is the technique for a single engine go-around?

What flap setting(s) would be used?

A

The missed approach with an engine inoperative should be accomplished in the same manner as a normal missed approach except use flaps 5 for the go-around flap setting for a flaps 20 approach or use flaps 20 as the go-around flap setting for a flaps 25 or 30 approach.

If flying manually, you need to add rudder commensurate with power

64
Q

On a SE GA, What lateral and vertical modes are selected? – When?

What thrust settings would you expect on the go-around before/after clean?

How and when would you ensure MCT is set?

A

At 400’ LNAV or HDG SEL
Once you have the desired Flaps and speed, select FLCH.

TOGA followed by CON

65
Q

When is it necessary to perform an engine run-up?

A

When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below, do an engine run up, as needed, to minimize ice build-up.

66
Q

What is the core-ice shedding procedure?

A

Trent engines when freezing fog with visibility 300 meters or less is reported.
If takeoff cannot be achieved within 45 minutes total taxi time.
If OAT is 0°C to -6°C….50% N1 for 60s every 45 minutes.
If OAT is -7°C to -13°C….59% N1 for 60s every 45 minutes.
If less than -13 degrees C, there is no effective run-up procedure and manual de-icing is required.

Regardless of temperature, if the core ice shedding procedure described above is not accomplished within 45 minutes total taxi time in freezing fog, but takeoff can be achieved within 60 minutes total taxi time in freezing fog, takeoff is permitted. A borescope inspection will be required within 10 flights. A note must be made in the log book of this condition.

See notes about taxi in time.

67
Q

When is a take-off alternate required?

A

A take-off alternate shall be specified and annotated on the flight plan if it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for meteorological or performance reasons based on weather conditions at the time of departure. Normal operating minima apply, engine failure limitations must be considered.

68
Q

For an ETOPS approved aeroplane, within what time/distance must it be located from a Take Off Alternate.

A

For ETOPs approved aeroplanes and crews, additionally, for all states except USA and Saudi Arabia: within 120 minutes flying time in still air standard conditions, or the approved ETOPS diversion time if this is less, at the one-engine-inoperative cruising speed based on the actual takeoff mass.

69
Q

What planning minima can be used for a take-off alternate?

A

Normal operating minima at the planned time of departure except the USA, Canada and Saudi Arabia, where at the time of departure, the weather at the take-off alternate (if required) shall not be below the alternate weather minima specified for that aerodrome.

70
Q

At the planning stage, what additional requirements must be met if the destination is forecast to be below minima?

A

Two destination alternate aerodromes shall be selected

The weather at the Destination Alternate has to be 1 category better than the available approaches at the alternate. Again Ceiling is only considered if you need non precision weather. Destination alternate is your last chance therefore the forecast weather must be better..

71
Q

What AIS items should you check if the departure conditions require a PVD take-off?

A

Centreline lights are operating?
RVR Transmomiters are working.
LVO’s are available

72
Q

What selection is required for a PVD take-off?

What additional take-off minima apply when only the Captain’s PVD is available?

A

The PVD switch is on
an appropriate ILS frequency is tuned
a valid front course localizer signal is present
airplane heading is within 45 degrees of the front course

RVR 75m regardless of whether F/O’s PVD’s work
If nobody has PVD, it’s 125m.

73
Q

When does the PVD un-shutter?

What are the wind limits for a PVD take-off?

A

When aeroplane heading is within 45° of the runway front course.

The PVD system has been demonstrated to perform satisfactorily in non-LVO conditions with crosswinds up to 25 knots.
Maximum crosswind allowed for LVOs where the PVD system is used is 15 knots.

74
Q

Describe the take-off ban requirements.

How many lights should be visible at 15 metre (or 50 feet) spacing when you require 75m RVR

A

Take-off is not permitted if any of the following is below the relevant minimum:

The RVR assessed by the Commander from the flight crew compartment when lined-up on the runway immediately before takeoff.

The reported Touchdown Zone (TDZ) RVR or Met Visibility (see Note).

The Mid-point RVR, when reported.

The Stop-end (Rollout) RVR, for operations below 200 m RVR.

The cloud-ceiling (if specified in the AOM) or:

The runway is indistinguishable from its surroundings.

Note:
Pilot assessment of TDZ RVR when practical always overrides the reported TDZ RVR or Met visibility (either to increase or decrease the reported RVR). Pilot assessment may not be practical where runways are humped or the RVR limit is high.

  1. 5 will guarantee it though as you can’t see the first 15m.
75
Q

What are the lowest 777 minima in the UK/US?

Is the minima affected by an engine failure?

A

UK 75m T/O and 75m Landing
USA 500’ (150m) T/O and 300’ (75m) Landing.

Not affected by an Engine Inop.

76
Q

What EICAS messages will prevent a Low Vis approach?

A
No Autoland
Potentially Land 2 or No Land3
SLATS DRIVE, 
SINGLE SOURCE ILS, 
SGL SOURCE RAD ALT, 
SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS.
77
Q

What autopilot modes would you expect during an LVO approach and landing?

A

Land 3
Rollout
Flare

78
Q

When is the handover of control for an LVO landing? How does this differ from normal?

After handover of control, what would you do if the autopilot failed?

A

At 1000’R Captain says Autoland, I have control.
It’s different because with a normal landing, the pilot landing doesn’t have to take control until DA.

GA

79
Q

What/when are the standard call-outs during a low visibility approach?

What are the effects of an ILS deviation, and what would you do?

A

Essentially, the main one is at 1000’R. “Autoland, ….I have Control”.

An ILS Deviation Will destabilise the Approach, aircraft will drift off the Localiser and GP. Must GA whether you are Above or Below the Alert Height.

80
Q

Is PVD guidance available after landing? When?

A

For landing, the PVD automatically blanks when leaving the runway, but must be manually turned off.

81
Q

Below 200RA, what EICAS messages require a go-around?

Consider the effects of each message. How would it affect the go-around?

A

No Autoland
Autopilot Disconnect……manually flying. Need to pitch up
ILS Deviation
Speedbrake……………….stow it
A/T disconnect. …………Manual Thrust levers

82
Q

On rollout, when is the autopilot normally disconnected?

How would you ensure that you taxi off at the correct runway exit point?

A

The autopilot and autobrakes should remain engaged until a safe stop is assured and adequate visibility exists to control the airplane using visual references.

Landing Distance Calculation.
Pre brief exit
Safe slow taxi speed
Lead off Lights.

83
Q

How is severe windshear defined in OM A? (5 points)

A

Severe windshear is considered to be uncontrollable changes from normal steady flight conditions below 1000 AGL, in excess of the following:

15 kts indicated airspeed.

500 fpm vertical speed.

5° pitch attitude

1 dot displacement from the glideslope/glidepath.

Unusual thrust levels for a significant period of time.

84
Q

When is GPWS windshear system active?

When is the PWS windshear system active?

A

GPWS windshear detection begins at rotation. On the approach, it is enabled below 1,500 feet radio altitude.

With PWS Windshear detection on the ground with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed, weather radar begins scanning for windshear when the thrust of either engine is in the takeoff range and thrust reversers are not unlocked or deployed. PWS is enabled to provide windshear alerts 12 seconds after weather radar begins scanning for windshear and is enabled below 1200R
In flight with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed, weather radar begins scanning for windshear below 2,300 feet radio altitude and PWS alerts are enabled below 1,200 feet radio altitude.

85
Q

Prior to take-off, when does the weather radar begin scanning for windshear?

In flight, when are PWS alerts enabled?

A

Weather radar begins scanning for windshear when the thrust of either engine is in the takeoff range and thrust reversers are not unlocked or deployed. PWS is enabled to provide windshear alerts 12 seconds after weather radar begins scanning for windshear.

In flight with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed, weather radar begins scanning for windshear below 2,300 feet radio altitude and PWS alerts are enabled below 1,200 feet radio altitude.

86
Q

What flap setting is recommended if windshear is forecast for take-off?

A

20 but 15 will give near enough the same performance.

87
Q

How might you identify windshear during the take-off roll?

A

Fluctuating airspeed. Trend vector going crazy in either direction.

88
Q

What are the required actions if windshear is detected before/after V1?

A

Prior to V1, reject takeoff

After V1, perform the Windshear Escape Maneuver

89
Q

You receive a windshear warning during manual flight. What would your actions be?

A
MANUAL FLIGHT
Call "WINDSHEAR, GO-AROUND".
Disengage autopilot
Push either TO/GA switch
Aggressively apply maximum* thrust
Disconnect autothrottle(s)
Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate toward an initial pitch attitude of 15°
Retract speedbrakes
Follow flight director TO/GA guidance (if available)**

Do not change gear or flap configuration until windshear is no longer a factor
Monitor vertical speed and altitude
Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor

Do not change gear or flap configuration until windshear is no longer a factor
Monitor vertical speed and altitude
Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor

90
Q

You receive a windshear warning during auto-flight. What would your actions be?

A
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
Call "WINDSHEAR, GO-AROUND".
Push either TO/GA switch**
Verify TO/GA mode annunciation
Verify GA* thrust
Retract speedbrakes
Monitor system performance***
91
Q

During the approach, you receive a go around windshear ahead warning. Do you have a choice of go-around techniques?

A

Yes it is Predictive, so you can manouever to avoid with a Normal GA or do a full Windshear GA.

92
Q

What is the maximum contaminant depth for take-off/landing?

A

Takeoffs are not recommended when slush, wet snow, or standing water depth is more than 1/2 inch (13 mm) or dry snow depth is more than 4 inches (102 mm).

Landing is permitted in up to 10cm (4 ins) of dry snow using Normal landing weights. Wet snow should be treated as slush (13mm )1/2 inch and compacted snow as ice.

93
Q

With both braking action and contamination reported, how would you program CARD?

A

Use Contaminated Braking Action. It will be the most limiting.

94
Q

How would you determine autobrake selection for landing on a contaminated runway?

A

Ascertain Runway Condition Code or Reported Braking Action.
Enter Normal Configuration Landing Distance table….will be Medium Poor or Worse.

I would just use Max Autobrake and full Reverse.

95
Q

What do the colour codes represent on the TERRAIN display? Dotted or solid?

A

dotted green – obstacles or terrain from 2,000 feet below to 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below airplane altitude
dotted amber – obstacles or terrain 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below to 2,000 feet above airplane altitude
dotted red – obstacles or terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane altitude

solid amber – look–ahead terrain caution alert is occurring
solid red – look–ahead terrain warning alert is occurring

Solid represents a caution or warning is occurring.

96
Q

For a “PULL UP GO AROUND”:

How are the autopilot and autothrottle handled?

What is your initial pitch attitude? If required, what is the maximum pitch attitude?

A
Disengage autopilot
Disconnect autothrottle(s)
Aggressively apply maximum* thrust

20° then intermittent stick shaker up to the PLI’s

97
Q

For a Pull up Go Around

Would you follow the flight directors? How does this differ from the windshear recovery?

When clear of terrain, what speed must you attain before any change of flap setting?

A

No.
Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude of 20°
In all cases, the pitch attitude that results in intermittent stick shaker or initial buffet is the upper pitch attitude limit. Flight at intermittent stick shaker may be required to obtain positive terrain separation.

You follow the FD’s with a Windshear Escape Manoeuvre if flying with the Automatics in, unless it is not enough in which case the pitch attitude that results in intermittent stick shaker or initial buffet is the upper pitch attitude limit. You would have to take the A/P out to do this.

98
Q

Within what area does the circling minima offer clearance, and how much clearance?

A

400’ within 5.3d

99
Q

What are the visual reference requirements when circling to the landing runway?

What must you do if these references are lost?

A

Visual contact with the runway of intended landing or runway environment must be maintained at all times, otherwise GA.

100
Q

On a Circling Approach, how does the time to base turn differ from a normal visual circuit, and what effect would it have on your circuit pattern?

A

It’s more prescribed. We talk about 3 secs per 100’ altitude, although you could go out further as long as you remain within the Circling area.
You may have to fly along a prescribed track.

All meaning that your circuit pattern will be tighter and you may well have to descend as soon as you commence the turn onto base.

101
Q

How might you determine where/what the source of smoke is?

If the cockpit visibility were low, how would you try to fly the a/c? Who could help you?

A

Use of the Smoke, Fire or Fumes Checklist.
LESS acronym in speaking with the CC.

Maximum use of the Automatics. Turn on all available lighting.
ATC can help with speed, distance and height call outs

102
Q

At what point would the Smoke or Fumes Removal drill be considered?

A

Only when directed by the Smoke, Fire or Fumes Checklist

103
Q

In what sequence is the FMC ‘ENG OUT’ and MCP Altitude selection actioned in the event of an engine failure in the cruise?

A

Control the aircraft,
Select VNAV Page on FMC. Select Engine out.
Put the height into the MCP
Then select Execute in the FMC

104
Q

What are the memory items for the DUAL ENG FAIL/STALL checklist?

Why are the Fuel Control switches moved to Cut-off then run?

A

FUEL CONTROL switches (both)……….CUTOFF, then RUN
RAM AIR TURBINE switch Push and hold for 1 second

To clear a stall

105
Q

For a Dual Engine Failure, If auto-start wasn’t available how would you start the engines?

What does RAT deployment provide?

A

With a Windmill start…..just select the Fuel Control switch to Run

You lose electrics, ECL and Flight Control goes into Direct Mode so the RAT restores everything.

106
Q

What mode would the flight controls be in after a Dual Engine Failure?

Is the autopilot available?

A

Direct Mode.

Not until the flight control normal mode is restored after the deployment of the RAT

107
Q

What is the recommended airspeed for windmill start capability? (GE/RR)

When attempting a restart if engine RPM is steadily increasing and EGT within limits, is there a problem with the start?

A

270 kts GE
250 kts RR

No allow it to continue.

108
Q

What is the minimum runway width required for the 180 Degree Turn Procedure?

A

200 Series is 55m

300 Series is 60m

109
Q

What direction would you turn in a turning pad?

A

Turns should be made from straight side of runway into turn pad unless otherwise directed.

110
Q

During a 180° turn, What clearance do the main wheels have when the pilot nearest the runway edge is sitting over the runway edge marking?

In what sequence do you use the parking brake and thrust lever?

A

Nose and main wheels will be approximately 1 m from the edge markings.

Apply park break. Apply full tiller. Release park break. Advance thrust lever(s)

111
Q

What different methods can be used to set up a diversion in the FMC?

A

Can pre-populate Route 2 or the Alternate page.

Can change Route 1 and can check the Progress Page too.

112
Q

What is different about a LDA approach?

A

Localiser-type Directional Aid Approach are offset. Most will not have a Glideslope. The plate will mention it if it does.
Use the autopilot until LDA Missed Approach Point since the FMC will map out the Missed Approach instead of the remainder of the Approach to the runway.

113
Q

When would you fly the CRI VOR 13L versus the RNV 13L?

A

There is no RNV 13L. Only the VOR 13L based on the CRI

In the FMC there is a good weather approach coded as RNVY 13L and a Poor Weather approach coded as RNVX 13L.

114
Q

What are the preferred Flight Director modes for an LDA approach?

A

A/P in until MAPT.
LNAV or LOC as a roll mode
VNAV, V/S, FPA as a Pitch mode.

If using V/S or FPA, Flight Directors must be off for landing.

115
Q

How do you fly a PRM breakout manoeuvre?

A

PF: Simultaneously:
Disconnect the autopilot.
Manoeuvre to PRM Breakout heading and vertical profile.

PM:Switch off Flight Directors.
Make MCP selections to follow PRM manoeuvre.

PF:
For climbing breakout use a maximum of 10 degrees pitch.
For descending breakout, maintain previous descent rate.

PM: Switch Flight Directors on once Breakout trajectory is established.

PF: Verify Autothrottle is controlling speed appropriately.
PM: Select a roll and pitch mode as directed by PF.

PF: Engage autopilot if required.
Set speed to the manoeuvre speed for the planned flap setting.
Call “FLAPS___” according to the flap retraction schedule.
Verify flap setting is 20 or less. Call “GEAR UP”.
Call “AFTER TAKEOFF CHECKLIST”.

116
Q

What are the standard call-outs during pushback?

A

FD to GC–‘Are we ready to push?’
FD to GC–‘Push approved, face xxxxx’.
FD to GC–‘Are we clear to start engines?’
FD to GC–‘Starting xxxx’.
FD to GC–‘Brakes set to park’.
FD to GC–‘Clear to disconnect – Awaiting visual clearance’.

117
Q

When does PF call for the After T/O checklist?

A

Essentially once Clean and cleared to climb above transition altitude set primary altimeter to standard pressure and call “SET STANDARD” Then call for the After takeoff checklist.
However you may do it once clean if you are not going to climb to a FL.
In addition, once you have completed all Non-Normal checklists that you may have had to deal with.

118
Q

In manual flight who makes changes to the MCP?

In automatic flight who makes these changes?

A

PM

PF

119
Q

What is the SOP for announcing MCP changes?

What is the SOP for announcing FMC changes?

A

Above 400’ AAL, PM must announce all manually selected, armed and automatic mode changes, All altitude selections; and changes to A/P and Autothrottle engagement status. Therefore if any of these are caused by a change to the MCP or FMC, then PM should call it out.

120
Q

How can you use the FMS to monitor the descent profile?

A

Combination of checking the Legs page, Fix Page, Progress page and Descent Page. Also have the option to use Off Path Descent Page on the Descent Page.

121
Q

When does PF call for the Approach checklist?

A

Once cleared below Transition and on setting the airport QNH.

122
Q

When does P1 resume control for the landing?

A

Essentially once Stable and Visual with the checklist complete.
On an Automatic approach it is at the 1000R Callout

123
Q

When does PF call for the landing checklist?

A

After calling for and selection of the Final Flap

124
Q

When must the aircraft be fully established in the landing configuration?

A

By 1000R

125
Q

When does the PM select reverse?

A

After touchdown check/select Speedbrake then Select Reverse Thrust.

126
Q

What are the PM’s actions during an EFATO?

A

Monitor the aircraft path and FMA’s

“Engine Failure"
“Positive rate"
“Gear up"
200 feet restate the failure with a diagnosis. Remind PF autopilot is available
400' FMA call outs
Recall items
New FMA call out
Call to ATC
Pull up the checklist
127
Q

What are the preferred modes for a Non-ILS Database and non-Database approach?

A

Non ILS Database. LNAV, VNAV

Non ILS Non-Database: LNAV or HDG SEL if not aligned and V/S or FPA.

128
Q

What four annunciations must be present for a successful Non-ILS (Database) approach if using LNAV and VNAV?

A

A/P

SPD, LNAV, VNAV PTH?