Simulator Self Test Questions

Question 1

How are normal checklists called for and actioned?

Answer 1

PM carries out the procedure.
PF then calls for the checklist.
Procedure:Checklist! With nothing inbetween.
The PM must ensure the completion of each applicable item and observe its execution. He/she must indicate to the PF when each item, or when authorised in the appropriate FCOM, each checklist section is completed.

Question 2

Describe the critical data loading procedure.

Answer 2

This procedure must not be conducted until the Fuelling Procedure has been completed.
It should be done at a time of low workload.
Avoid distractions.
Ensure everyone is involved.

Question 3

Describe the SOP for FMA call-outs.

Answer 3

Maintain situational awareness at all times.
Both pilots must monitor AFDS mode annunciations and the current FMC flight plan and verify that the airplane is responding appropriately.

Question 4

Describe the FCTM handling techniques for taxi.

Answer 4

Common sense stuff.
High SA. Brief likely directions and closures.
Use minimal power
Stop if unsure
Keep speed slow
Keep hands on tiller and throttles etc.

Question 5

What are the ‘AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE’ memory actions?

Answer 5

Autopilot disengage switch Push
A/T ARM switches (both) OFF
F/D switches (both) OFF

Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
Flaps extended 10°/85% N1
Flaps up 4°/70% N1

Question 6

What approximate pitch and power datum’s for 220t at 5000 ft, S & L, FL200 and FL300?

Answer 6

5° 58%

2. 7° 74%
3. 5° 84%

Question 7

Describe the trap of failing to follow the FD pitch command during a descent with A/T HOLD (e.g. during a FLCH/VNAV SPD descent).

Answer 7

Both FLCH SPD and VNAV SPD pitch modes will force the A/T FMA out of the SPD mode and A/T wake up will not occur if speed is allowed to decay with the A/T activated but not controlling speed.
The only time you can be sure the A/T will try to maintain your selected speed is when SPD is annunciated in the Left Hand A/T FMA

Question 8

Describe the potential trap of turning off only one pilot’s FD.

Answer 8

Turning both FDs off will force the thrust FMA into SPD, helping to protect your speed. Leaving only one FD on will mean that HOLD can remain programmed, leaving you at risk from stalling

Question 9

Describe the SOP for handover of control for the descent.

Answer 9

Complete interactive brief.

PM sets VREF on the Approach page, Nav Radio page, Autobrake, Check the Landing Perf

PF sets Standby Altimeter and Transition Level

PM Recalls all Alert messages and Operational Notes
Both check messages, notes, set minima,

PF calls for the Descent checklist then PM reads it out.

Question 10

What is the take-off technique?

Answer 10

A rolling Takeoff is recommended.

Align the a/c with the centreline then set approx 55%N1. Pause, allowing the engine to stabilise, then press TOGA.

Question 11

Describe the B777 visual circuit.

Answer 11

At 1000’ Call `press A/T switch, Flap 5, F5 Speed. (VRef30+40). Start the turn 25° angle of bank.
1500’ level off using the FPV in the turn. You want about 5° attitude and 55-57% and F5.

After T/O checks, Descent and Approach checks
Double the drift using HDG SEL or 1x drift using TRK SEL ….2d from airfield

Abeam the runway threshold: Start timer
At 35 secs +/- headwind or tailwind
“Gear down Flap 20 F20 speed”.
Arm the Speedbrakes lever.

Up to 90secs+/- wind…..about 60secs, Call “F25/F30. Final speed”.
Level turn.
Turn at 25° AofB and really concentrate on not overbanking using the trend vector. Use the turning string on the map to asses how well you are turning
“Landing Checklist and FDs off “
On descent, set your datums.
Looking for 2° bottom hat F25 57% (below 2.5° line) or 1°Top Hat F30 NU(above horizon line) and 58% N1
FPV when on the Glide Path. For a 3°GP stick the tail on the horizon
Trim for speed
1000’ “Stable
Ask for heading adjustments as appropriate. Position trend vector…3 segments 30, 60, 90 secs
Check the GP is correct.
Adjust with small corrections but do it early.
Below 100’ maintain the crab. I was drifting off.

Question 12

How will you trim the aircraft whilst flying the circuit?

Answer 12

With every change in speed. Should be 2 second blips.

Question 13

What are the stabilized approach criteria?

Answer 13

By the 1000’ Autocall out An approach is considered stable when all of the following criteria are met:

In the planned landing configuration (gear down land flap achieved).

Stabilised on the correct vertical profile (see Note 1).

Stabilised at the target approach speed (see Note 2).

Note 1:
The vertical profile is defined as either:

An electronic glideslope/glidepath
A non-precision final approach path or in the absence of either,
An agreed visual profile:

Note 2:
Only in circumstances of rapid wind changes, turbulence or adherence to appropriate ATC speed requirements and if the speed is close to the target approach speed and reducing, can the approach be continued.

If the aircraft is not stable at the target approach speed before the 500 ft auto-callout then a go-around must be flown.

Question 14

What is the landing technique?

Answer 14

When the threshold passes out of sight under the airplane nose shift the visual sighting point to the far end of the runway. Shifting the visual sighting point assists in controlling the pitch attitude during the flare.

Initiate the flare when the landing gear is at 20-30’
Increase Pitch 2-3° to reduce descent rate.
If the autothrottle is not engaged, after the flare is initiated, (approx 25’) smoothly retard the thrust levers to idle, and make small pitch attitude adjustments to maintain the desired descent rate to the runway. Hold sufficient back pressure on the control column to keep the pitch attitude constant.

Question 15

To what height can you use the visual approach aids?

Answer 15

At a guess, until passing the threshold whereupon you will then look to the far end of the runway.

Question 16

Where is the runway aiming point?

Answer 16

Focus remains on TDZ rather than PAPIs.
TDZ can be different in the USA
PAPIs may be inappropriate depending on Eye- Wheel Height calibration and maintenance quality, especially below 200’
• PAPIs (particularly in the USA) may not be coincident with the electronic glideslope
Consistent RoD when using electronic guidance as opposed to having to adjust to a (possibly) different GP at a late stage
• F/D guidance remains valid

When the threshold passes out of sight under the airplane nose shift the visual sighting point to the far end of the runway. This assists with controlling the pitch attitude during the flare.

Question 17

When are speedbrake and reverse thrust selected on touchdown.

Answer 17

In the event auto extension fails, the speedbrakes need to be manually extended. After touchdown, fly the nose wheels smoothly to the runway while slowly raising the speedbrake to the up position.

After touchdown, with the thrust levers at idle, rapidly raise the reverse thrust levers up and aft to the interlock position, then apply reverse thrust as required.

Question 18

Is there a standard call for reverse idle?

Answer 18

No. It’s implied.

Question 19

Describe the crosswind take-off technique.

Answer 19

Brief to T/O on the roll, with strong winds. As the speed increases gradually add enough aileron into wind to keep wings level, slowly rotate on lift off, don’t over rotate. May need a little more aileron into wind, slowly remove cross controls starting with the rudder

Question 20

When would you apply forward control-column pressure during the take-off roll?

Answer 20

Light forward pressure on the control column during the initial phase of the takeoff roll (below approximately 80 knots) increases nose wheel steering effectiveness especially in a crosswind.

Question 21

When are the controls centralized after take-off?

Answer 21

After lift off, you may initially need a little more aileron into wind, then slowly remove the cross controls, rudder first.

Question 22

Describe the crosswind landing technique.

Answer 22

There are 3 methods. I only use 2 I do not use the side slip.

I use decrab in the flare which involves maintaining wings level all the way down. Just prior to touchdown while flaring the airplane, downwind rudder is applied to eliminate the crab and align the airplane with the runway centerline. Hold wings level with simultaneous application of aileron control into the wind

Landing with the crab still on if very slippery runways, reduces drift toward the downwind side at touchdown, permits rapid operation of spoilers and autobrakes because all main gears touchdown simultaneously, and may reduce pilot workload since the airplane does not have to be de-crabbed before touchdown. However, proper rudder and upwind aileron must be applied after touchdown to ensure directional control is maintained.

Question 23

What considerations are required for a landing runway that is less than 60 metres wide?

Answer 23

A 300 Series cannot do a 180° turn

?

Question 24

What are the crosswind limitations?

Answer 24

These depend on Runway surface conditions, aircraft weight and MACTOW.
The maximum crosswind limits are 40kts T/O and 45kts Landing.

Question 25

How would you deal with directional control problems during the landing roll?

Answer 25

Use a combination of rudder, differential braking, and control wheel input into wind to maintain runway centerline. If there is an issue, release brakes and select Reverse Idle, then when back on the centreline, reapply brakes and Symmetrical Reverse Thrust.

Question 26

What flight director modes could assist you the most?

Answer 26

The basic modes. V/S, HDG SEL, Alt Hold. | SPD is useful for A/T wake up.

Question 27

On what FMC page can you find the QFE reference selector?

Answer 27

Approach Ref Page

Question 28

What datum should the Standby Altimeter be set to when below transition?

Answer 28

QNH

Question 29

If an intruder is sighted and is assessed as an immediate threat, without an RA, what would you do?

Answer 29

Consider V/S with a speed. | Talk through your likely actions.

Question 30

If a TA is received close to levelling out, what could you consider?

Answer 30

Reduce your rate of climb/descent using V/S.

Question 31

Which ‘RA’ does not require an immediate manoeuvre?

Answer 31

A DESCEND (fly down) RA issued below 1000 feet AGL should not be followed

Question 32

If you receive a DESCEND ‘RA’ below 1000 ft, what would you do?

Answer 32

Ignore it. | Establish visual contact with aircraft. Manoeuvre to avoid.

Question 33

For a CLIMB ‘RA’ in the landing configuration, what is your pitch reference?

Answer 33

Smoothly adjust pitch to satisfy the RA command.

Question 34

How would you handle the autothrottle in an RA.

Answer 34

Disconnect it and add or subtract power as required. Then use FLCH as part of the MCP rebuild to reengage the A/T.

Question 35

Describe the handling characteristics when FLIGHT CONTROL MODE is displayed.

Answer 35

The flight control system is in the secondary mode. The airplane response is changed by simplified elevator feel and rudder ratio systems. Autopilot inop Envelope protection functions inop The yaw damper is degraded.

Question 36

Describe the handling characteristics when PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS is displayed.

Answer 36

The flight control system is operating in the direct mode. The airplane response is changed by simplified elevator feel and rudder ratio systems. Inoperative Items Autopilot inop Envelope protection functions inop Yaw damping inop Rudder manual trim cancel switch Inop Pitch trim moves slower than in normal mode.

Question 37

How do you set the flap and speed on the approach page for a non-normal landing?

Answer 37

Select the Flap, look up the VRef 30 speed in the FMC or QRH and then add whatever speed it tells you. Still may have to add a wind increment if the A/T is u/s.

Question 38

After completing the FLAPS DRIVE checklist, where can you find further advice on how to fly the approach?

Answer 38

FCTM Non Normal Operations Flight Control’s

Question 39

Which pilot is normally assigned control during a non-normal situation?

Answer 39

First Officer for the captain to then manage the situation.

Question 40

What considerations would you have following a HYD PRESS SYS R + C.

Answer 40

No Autoland. You need Cat1 weather. Multiple flight control surfaces inop. Handling qualities are degraded. Stabilizer inop.....so you will have to do the recall actions! Primary flap and slat operation inop. Plan more time for slower flap and slat operation using Secondary mode Main landing gear hydraulic operation inop. Alternate gear extension is needed. Right thrust reverser inop. Use max Reverse on Left Autobrake inop. Manual braking is available. Normal brakes and alternate brakes from center hydraulic source are inop. Alternate brakes from the reserve hydraulic source are available. Main gear steering inop. Tires may scrub during turns. Nose gear steering is available. No Autoland but A/P is available until 200'. Crosswind limit for landing is 20 knots. Do not arm the speedbrake lever. This prevents inadvertent in-flight speedbrake extension. Manually extend the speedbrakes after landing. Will not be able to retract the gear if you GA

Question 41

What do you understand by "Landing Assured"?

Answer 41

A landing is ‘assured’ if, in the judgment of the Commander, it could be completed in the event of any forecast deterioration in the weather and plausible single failures of ground and airborne facilities (e.g. a failure which could downgrade the planned landing status from say CAT IIIA to CAT II).

Question 42

When can a First Officer call ‘Stop’?

Answer 42

For any Fire, an Engine Failure or a predictive Windshear warning. If flying the a/c, also for a blocked runway or control difficulties. If a 300 series, also for a RAAS Runway Alert.

Question 43

When can a Captain call ‘Stop’?

Answer 43

Prior to 80 knots, the Captain (or First Officer where permitted) should call "STOP" for any of the following: ``` activation of the master caution system system failure(s) unusual noise or vibration tire failure abnormally slow acceleration takeoff configuration warning fire or fire warning* engine failure* predictive windshear warning* RAAS runway alert* if the airplane is unsafe or unable to fly ``` Above 80 knots and prior to V1, the Captain (or First Officer where permitted) shall call “STOP” for any of the following: fire or fire warning* engine failure* predictive windshear warning* if the airplane is unsafe or unable to fly At all times when the First Officer is PF he may, in addition call “STOP” for a significant handling difficulty or a blocked runway. In summery, below 80kts the Capt can call STOP for pretty much anything. Above 80kts it’s the same as an FO....

Question 44

What RAAS aural annunciations would you call ‘Stop’ for?

Answer 44

Accomplish the following manoeuvre for any of these aural alerts or ND annunciations. Alerts CAUTION ON TAXIWAY, ON TAXIWAY CAUTION SHORT RUNWAY, SHORT RUNWAY ON RUNWAY (RUNWAY IDENTIFIER) (METERS) AVAILABLE APPROACHING (RUNWAY IDENTIFIER) (METERS) AVAILABLE ND Annunciations ON TAXIWAY SHORT RUNWAY

Question 45

If ‘Stop’ were called, what would your actions be?

Answer 45

If PF: Close thrust levers, disconnect A/T, bring my hand over to the control column and if above 85kts, monitor the RTO braking or if necessary apply full braking with the intention of bringing the a/c to a complete stop. I will make sure the Park Brake is set, thrust levers are closed, A/T is disconnected, Reverse is cancelled and the Storm Light is switched ON. Then do the ATTTENTION CREW, AT STATIONS call. If PM: Verify actions as follows: Thrust levers closed. Autothrottles disengaged. Maximum brakes applied. Apply reverse thrust up to the maximum amount consistent with conditions. Monitor deployment of the Speedbrake and if necessary, deploy it manually, then make the call Speedbrake Up Reversers Normal, or Speedbrake not up or No Reverse.....Engine. From then on in I will monitor your braking and speed. I will make a call at 60kts, select Reverse Idle followed ever so slowly down to Forward Idle. Once the Park Brake is set, Captain takes Control. ATTRNTION CREW AT STATIONS. Manage the situation.

Question 46

If the First Officer were handling, when would the Captain take control on an RTO?

Answer 46

When the Park Brake is set.

Question 47

What sources of information can help decide if an evacuation is required? What PA should you make if an immediate evacuation is not required?

Answer 47

``` Instrumentation. Alarms. Cabin Crew Heavy Pilot Tower Fire Services. Other Aircraft ``` ATTENTION CREW AT STATIONS.

Question 48

What circumstances dictate the use of fire extinguishers following an RTO? How would you shut down an engine?

Answer 48

If an engine or APU fire warning occurs For an evacuation, if a fire exists in or is near an Engine or APU. There is NO requirement to fire bottles if you have left the paved surface.

Question 49

If passenger evacuation is not required, what would your actions be? When would you check the brake-cooling schedule?

Answer 49

Passengers and Crew Remain Seated and await further instructions. Tell the CSD your next intentions. Tell the customers you are taxiing off and will talk to them again soon. Coordinate with ATC a place to come off the runway and park Mention requirement for After Landing Checklist. Review the Brake Cooling before taxing off the runway

Question 50

Will TAC always be available to assist control? How would you recognize the engine failure while visual/on instruments?

Answer 50

Not always. In very simple terms, TAC determines a difference in thrust between the two engines and based on this it generates rudder commands. So, if the thrust of either engine cannot be determined and thus the thrust difference between the two engines then TAC will inhibit itself instead of generating potentially erroneous rudder command If visual, you will see the yaw. If on instruments, the Heading bug will move violently.

Question 51

How would you diagnose an engine failure?

Answer 51

There are lots of indications:- | An EICAS message, N1 and N2 gauges, Engine Vibration, High EGT’s

Question 52

When would you call for the ENG SEV DAMAGE/SEP checklist?

Answer 52

Once correctly diagnosed, Above 400’ and with LNAV or HDG SEL engaged. Call for the Eng Severe Damage/Separation L/R checklist. Do the recall actions then continue with the rest of the checklist once clean with CON Annunciated and Engine Out selected in the FMC.

Question 53

What are the memory items for the ENG LIM/SURGE/STALL checklist?

Answer 53

``` A/T ARM switch (affected side............Confirm. . . . .OFF Thrust lever (affected side)..................Confirm. . . . .Retard until engine indications stay within limits or the thrust lever is at idle ```

Question 54

How would you diagnose severe damage to an engine?

Answer 54

A bang and a large swing. No N1 rotation, maybe down at 8% (a seizure) or blank (a separation) and other damage eg High EGT or Vibration.

Question 55

With an EFATO What is the initial target pitch attitude and rotation rate? What is the target airspeed after take-off?

Answer 55

If using Improved Climb Performance in a 200 series it’s about 8°, 10° if not or in a 300 series. Then follow the FD’s. Always taught about 2-2.5° per second. The flight director commands a minimum of V2, or the existing speed up to a maximum of V2 + 15 knots.

Question 56

On a EFATO How is engine failure recognized and what will the FD command?

Answer 56

Can recognise with a bang and a swing, EICAS messages and instrumentation such as Low N1’, N2’s, High EGT’s, Vibration etc. The flight director commands a minimum of V2, or the existing speed up to a maximum of V2 + 15 knots. The flight director roll mode commands ground track after liftoff until LNAV engagement or another roll mode is selected. The AFDS limits the bank angle to 15° until V2 + 10 knots to maintain at least adequate maneuver margin. The bank angle limit increases to 25° by V2 + 20 knots if LNAV is engaged, or when HDG SEL or TRK SEL is engaged with the bank limit in AUTO.

Question 57

What are the PF’s actions on an EFATO How could the PF reduce the workload after take-off?

Answer 57

Fly the aircraft. Control yaw with rudder. Keep wings level. Pitch 8°-10°, then with the FD’s. Etc Stick an A/P in.

Question 58

On an EFATO, What thrust is commanded during the acceleration? What action takes place at MSA?

Answer 58

Climb thrust which is a near level acceleration in VNAV. With flaps up, the FMC commands a climb at flaps up maneuver speed and the autothrottles transition automatically to maximum continuous thrust if VNAV is engaged. Select the Engine Out Climb Thrust

Question 59

How do you fly an Emergency Turn? Are ATC aware of these procedures?

Answer 59

Initially in HDG SEL then LNAV. If you are in a terrain constrained environment, it is possible you will get a EGPWS warning or caution during the ETP. It is therefore vital to maximise the climb angle and continue to follow the prescribed ETP. Do not reduce below V2. Tell ATC your actions as they will not know your procedure and you will probably not meet their altitude restraints.

Question 60

In what order should you process the Non-normal ECL, the EICAS and the After Take-off checklist?

Answer 60

Non Normal Review EICAS messages After T/O checklist.

Question 61

What flap setting(s) may be used for a single engine approach? If landing distance was critical, what could be considered? How is the autopilot used? What is the autoland capability?

Answer 61

F20 and F30 F30 if Landing Distance is critical. Other considerations are Full braking, Full Reverse, Divert to a more appropriate Airfield etc. Can still do a Cat3B no DH Autoland on one Engine.

Question 62

What autobrake and reverse thrust would be used for a SE landing?

Answer 62

Whatever is appropriate for the conditions having completed a Landing Distance calculation.

Question 63

What is the technique for a single engine go-around? What flap setting(s) would be used?

Answer 63

The missed approach with an engine inoperative should be accomplished in the same manner as a normal missed approach except use flaps 5 for the go-around flap setting for a flaps 20 approach or use flaps 20 as the go-around flap setting for a flaps 25 or 30 approach. If flying manually, you need to add rudder commensurate with power

Question 64

On a SE GA, What lateral and vertical modes are selected? – When? What thrust settings would you expect on the go-around before/after clean? How and when would you ensure MCT is set?

Answer 64

At 400’ LNAV or HDG SEL Once you have the desired Flaps and speed, select FLCH. TOGA followed by CON

Question 65

When is it necessary to perform an engine run-up?

Answer 65

When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below, do an engine run up, as needed, to minimize ice build-up.

Question 66

What is the core-ice shedding procedure?

Answer 66

Trent engines when freezing fog with visibility 300 meters or less is reported. If takeoff cannot be achieved within 45 minutes total taxi time. If OAT is 0°C to -6°C....50% N1 for 60s every 45 minutes. If OAT is -7°C to -13°C....59% N1 for 60s every 45 minutes. If less than -13 degrees C, there is no effective run-up procedure and manual de-icing is required. Regardless of temperature, if the core ice shedding procedure described above is not accomplished within 45 minutes total taxi time in freezing fog, but takeoff can be achieved within 60 minutes total taxi time in freezing fog, takeoff is permitted. A borescope inspection will be required within 10 flights. A note must be made in the log book of this condition. See notes about taxi in time.

Question 67

When is a take-off alternate required?

Answer 67

A take-off alternate shall be specified and annotated on the flight plan if it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome of departure for meteorological or performance reasons based on weather conditions at the time of departure. Normal operating minima apply, engine failure limitations must be considered.

Question 68

For an ETOPS approved aeroplane, within what time/distance must it be located from a Take Off Alternate.

Answer 68

For ETOPs approved aeroplanes and crews, additionally, for all states except USA and Saudi Arabia: within 120 minutes flying time in still air standard conditions, or the approved ETOPS diversion time if this is less, at the one-engine-inoperative cruising speed based on the actual takeoff mass.

Question 69

What planning minima can be used for a take-off alternate?

Answer 69

Normal operating minima at the planned time of departure except the USA, Canada and Saudi Arabia, where at the time of departure, the weather at the take-off alternate (if required) shall not be below the alternate weather minima specified for that aerodrome.

Question 70

At the planning stage, what additional requirements must be met if the destination is forecast to be below minima?

Answer 70

Two destination alternate aerodromes shall be selected The weather at the Destination Alternate has to be 1 category better than the available approaches at the alternate. Again Ceiling is only considered if you need non precision weather. Destination alternate is your last chance therefore the forecast weather must be better..

Question 71

What AIS items should you check if the departure conditions require a PVD take-off?

Answer 71

Centreline lights are operating? RVR Transmomiters are working. LVO’s are available

Question 72

What selection is required for a PVD take-off? What additional take-off minima apply when only the Captain’s PVD is available?

Answer 72

The PVD switch is on an appropriate ILS frequency is tuned a valid front course localizer signal is present airplane heading is within 45 degrees of the front course RVR 75m regardless of whether F/O’s PVD’s work If nobody has PVD, it’s 125m.

Question 73

When does the PVD un-shutter? What are the wind limits for a PVD take-off?

Answer 73

When aeroplane heading is within 45° of the runway front course. The PVD system has been demonstrated to perform satisfactorily in non-LVO conditions with crosswinds up to 25 knots. Maximum crosswind allowed for LVOs where the PVD system is used is 15 knots.

Question 74

Describe the take-off ban requirements. How many lights should be visible at 15 metre (or 50 feet) spacing when you require 75m RVR

Answer 74

Take-off is not permitted if any of the following is below the relevant minimum: The RVR assessed by the Commander from the flight crew compartment when lined-up on the runway immediately before takeoff. The reported Touchdown Zone (TDZ) RVR or Met Visibility (see Note). The Mid-point RVR, when reported. The Stop-end (Rollout) RVR, for operations below 200 m RVR. The cloud-ceiling (if specified in the AOM) or: The runway is indistinguishable from its surroundings. Note: Pilot assessment of TDZ RVR when practical always overrides the reported TDZ RVR or Met visibility (either to increase or decrease the reported RVR). Pilot assessment may not be practical where runways are humped or the RVR limit is high. 4. 5 will guarantee it though as you can’t see the first 15m.

Question 75

What are the lowest 777 minima in the UK/US? Is the minima affected by an engine failure?

Answer 75

UK 75m T/O and 75m Landing USA 500’ (150m) T/O and 300’ (75m) Landing. Not affected by an Engine Inop.

Question 76

What EICAS messages will prevent a Low Vis approach?

Answer 76

``` No Autoland Potentially Land 2 or No Land3 SLATS DRIVE, SINGLE SOURCE ILS, SGL SOURCE RAD ALT, SGL SOURCE DISPLAYS. ```

Question 77

What autopilot modes would you expect during an LVO approach and landing?

Answer 77

Land 3 Rollout Flare

Question 78

When is the handover of control for an LVO landing? How does this differ from normal? After handover of control, what would you do if the autopilot failed?

Answer 78

At 1000’R Captain says Autoland, I have control. It’s different because with a normal landing, the pilot landing doesn’t have to take control until DA. GA

Question 79

What/when are the standard call-outs during a low visibility approach? What are the effects of an ILS deviation, and what would you do?

Answer 79

Essentially, the main one is at 1000’R. “Autoland, ....I have Control”. An ILS Deviation Will destabilise the Approach, aircraft will drift off the Localiser and GP. Must GA whether you are Above or Below the Alert Height.

Question 80

Is PVD guidance available after landing? When?

Answer 80

For landing, the PVD automatically blanks when leaving the runway, but must be manually turned off.

Question 81

Below 200RA, what EICAS messages require a go-around? Consider the effects of each message. How would it affect the go-around?

Answer 81

No Autoland Autopilot Disconnect......manually flying. Need to pitch up ILS Deviation Speedbrake...................stow it A/T disconnect. ............Manual Thrust levers

Question 82

On rollout, when is the autopilot normally disconnected? How would you ensure that you taxi off at the correct runway exit point?

Answer 82

The autopilot and autobrakes should remain engaged until a safe stop is assured and adequate visibility exists to control the airplane using visual references. Landing Distance Calculation. Pre brief exit Safe slow taxi speed Lead off Lights.

Question 83

How is severe windshear defined in OM A? (5 points)

Answer 83

Severe windshear is considered to be uncontrollable changes from normal steady flight conditions below 1000 AGL, in excess of the following: 15 kts indicated airspeed. 500 fpm vertical speed. 5° pitch attitude 1 dot displacement from the glideslope/glidepath. Unusual thrust levels for a significant period of time.

Question 84

When is GPWS windshear system active? When is the PWS windshear system active?

Answer 84

GPWS windshear detection begins at rotation. On the approach, it is enabled below 1,500 feet radio altitude. With PWS Windshear detection on the ground with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed, weather radar begins scanning for windshear when the thrust of either engine is in the takeoff range and thrust reversers are not unlocked or deployed. PWS is enabled to provide windshear alerts 12 seconds after weather radar begins scanning for windshear and is enabled below 1200R In flight with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed, weather radar begins scanning for windshear below 2,300 feet radio altitude and PWS alerts are enabled below 1,200 feet radio altitude.

Question 85

Prior to take-off, when does the weather radar begin scanning for windshear? In flight, when are PWS alerts enabled?

Answer 85

Weather radar begins scanning for windshear when the thrust of either engine is in the takeoff range and thrust reversers are not unlocked or deployed. PWS is enabled to provide windshear alerts 12 seconds after weather radar begins scanning for windshear. In flight with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed, weather radar begins scanning for windshear below 2,300 feet radio altitude and PWS alerts are enabled below 1,200 feet radio altitude.

Question 86

What flap setting is recommended if windshear is forecast for take-off?

Answer 86

20 but 15 will give near enough the same performance.

Question 87

How might you identify windshear during the take-off roll?

Answer 87

Fluctuating airspeed. Trend vector going crazy in either direction.

Question 88

What are the required actions if windshear is detected before/after V1?

Answer 88

Prior to V1, reject takeoff | After V1, perform the Windshear Escape Maneuver

Question 89

You receive a windshear warning during manual flight. What would your actions be?

Answer 89

``` MANUAL FLIGHT Call "WINDSHEAR, GO-AROUND". Disengage autopilot Push either TO/GA switch Aggressively apply maximum* thrust Disconnect autothrottle(s) Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate toward an initial pitch attitude of 15° Retract speedbrakes Follow flight director TO/GA guidance (if available)** ``` Do not change gear or flap configuration until windshear is no longer a factor Monitor vertical speed and altitude Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor Do not change gear or flap configuration until windshear is no longer a factor Monitor vertical speed and altitude Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor

Question 90

You receive a windshear warning during auto-flight. What would your actions be?

Answer 90

``` AUTOMATIC FLIGHT Call "WINDSHEAR, GO-AROUND". Push either TO/GA switch** Verify TO/GA mode annunciation Verify GA* thrust Retract speedbrakes Monitor system performance*** ```

Question 91

During the approach, you receive a go around windshear ahead warning. Do you have a choice of go-around techniques?

Answer 91

Yes it is Predictive, so you can manouever to avoid with a Normal GA or do a full Windshear GA.

Question 92

What is the maximum contaminant depth for take-off/landing?

Answer 92

Takeoffs are not recommended when slush, wet snow, or standing water depth is more than 1/2 inch (13 mm) or dry snow depth is more than 4 inches (102 mm). Landing is permitted in up to 10cm (4 ins) of dry snow using Normal landing weights. Wet snow should be treated as slush (13mm )1/2 inch and compacted snow as ice.

Question 93

With both braking action and contamination reported, how would you program CARD?

Answer 93

Use Contaminated Braking Action. It will be the most limiting.

Question 94

How would you determine autobrake selection for landing on a contaminated runway?

Answer 94

Ascertain Runway Condition Code or Reported Braking Action. Enter Normal Configuration Landing Distance table....will be Medium Poor or Worse. I would just use Max Autobrake and full Reverse.

Question 95

What do the colour codes represent on the TERRAIN display? Dotted or solid?

Answer 95

dotted green – obstacles or terrain from 2,000 feet below to 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below airplane altitude dotted amber – obstacles or terrain 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below to 2,000 feet above airplane altitude dotted red – obstacles or terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane altitude solid amber – look–ahead terrain caution alert is occurring solid red – look–ahead terrain warning alert is occurring Solid represents a caution or warning is occurring.

Question 96

For a “PULL UP GO AROUND”: How are the autopilot and autothrottle handled? What is your initial pitch attitude? If required, what is the maximum pitch attitude?

Answer 96

``` Disengage autopilot Disconnect autothrottle(s) Aggressively apply maximum* thrust ``` 20° then intermittent stick shaker up to the PLI’s

Question 97

For a Pull up Go Around Would you follow the flight directors? How does this differ from the windshear recovery? When clear of terrain, what speed must you attain before any change of flap setting?

Answer 97

No. Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude of 20° In all cases, the pitch attitude that results in intermittent stick shaker or initial buffet is the upper pitch attitude limit. Flight at intermittent stick shaker may be required to obtain positive terrain separation. You follow the FD’s with a Windshear Escape Manoeuvre if flying with the Automatics in, unless it is not enough in which case the pitch attitude that results in intermittent stick shaker or initial buffet is the upper pitch attitude limit. You would have to take the A/P out to do this.

Question 98

Within what area does the circling minima offer clearance, and how much clearance?

Answer 98

400’ within 5.3d

Question 99

What are the visual reference requirements when circling to the landing runway? What must you do if these references are lost?

Answer 99

Visual contact with the runway of intended landing or runway environment must be maintained at all times, otherwise GA.

Question 100

On a Circling Approach, how does the time to base turn differ from a normal visual circuit, and what effect would it have on your circuit pattern?

Answer 100

It’s more prescribed. We talk about 3 secs per 100’ altitude, although you could go out further as long as you remain within the Circling area. You may have to fly along a prescribed track. All meaning that your circuit pattern will be tighter and you may well have to descend as soon as you commence the turn onto base.

Question 101

How might you determine where/what the source of smoke is? If the cockpit visibility were low, how would you try to fly the a/c? Who could help you?

Answer 101

Use of the Smoke, Fire or Fumes Checklist. LESS acronym in speaking with the CC. Maximum use of the Automatics. Turn on all available lighting. ATC can help with speed, distance and height call outs

Question 102

At what point would the Smoke or Fumes Removal drill be considered?

Answer 102

Only when directed by the Smoke, Fire or Fumes Checklist

Question 103

In what sequence is the FMC ‘ENG OUT’ and MCP Altitude selection actioned in the event of an engine failure in the cruise?

Answer 103

Control the aircraft, Select VNAV Page on FMC. Select Engine out. Put the height into the MCP Then select Execute in the FMC

Question 104

What are the memory items for the DUAL ENG FAIL/STALL checklist? Why are the Fuel Control switches moved to Cut-off then run?

Answer 104

FUEL CONTROL switches (both)..........CUTOFF, then RUN RAM AIR TURBINE switch Push and hold for 1 second To clear a stall

Question 105

For a Dual Engine Failure, If auto-start wasn’t available how would you start the engines? What does RAT deployment provide?

Answer 105

With a Windmill start.....just select the Fuel Control switch to Run You lose electrics, ECL and Flight Control goes into Direct Mode so the RAT restores everything.

Question 106

What mode would the flight controls be in after a Dual Engine Failure? Is the autopilot available?

Answer 106

Direct Mode. Not until the flight control normal mode is restored after the deployment of the RAT

Question 107

What is the recommended airspeed for windmill start capability? (GE/RR) When attempting a restart if engine RPM is steadily increasing and EGT within limits, is there a problem with the start?

Answer 107

270 kts GE 250 kts RR No allow it to continue.

Question 108

What is the minimum runway width required for the 180 Degree Turn Procedure?

Answer 108

200 Series is 55m | 300 Series is 60m

Question 109

What direction would you turn in a turning pad?

Answer 109

Turns should be made from straight side of runway into turn pad unless otherwise directed.

Question 110

During a 180° turn, What clearance do the main wheels have when the pilot nearest the runway edge is sitting over the runway edge marking? In what sequence do you use the parking brake and thrust lever?

Answer 110

Nose and main wheels will be approximately 1 m from the edge markings. Apply park break. Apply full tiller. Release park break. Advance thrust lever(s)

Question 111

What different methods can be used to set up a diversion in the FMC?

Answer 111

Can pre-populate Route 2 or the Alternate page. Can change Route 1 and can check the Progress Page too.

Question 112

What is different about a LDA approach?

Answer 112

Localiser-type Directional Aid Approach are offset. Most will not have a Glideslope. The plate will mention it if it does. Use the autopilot until LDA Missed Approach Point since the FMC will map out the Missed Approach instead of the remainder of the Approach to the runway.

Question 113

When would you fly the CRI VOR 13L versus the RNV 13L?

Answer 113

There is no RNV 13L. Only the VOR 13L based on the CRI In the FMC there is a good weather approach coded as RNVY 13L and a Poor Weather approach coded as RNVX 13L.

Question 114

What are the preferred Flight Director modes for an LDA approach?

Answer 114

A/P in until MAPT. LNAV or LOC as a roll mode VNAV, V/S, FPA as a Pitch mode. If using V/S or FPA, Flight Directors must be off for landing.

Question 115

How do you fly a PRM breakout manoeuvre?

Answer 115

PF: Simultaneously: Disconnect the autopilot. Manoeuvre to PRM Breakout heading and vertical profile. PM:Switch off Flight Directors. Make MCP selections to follow PRM manoeuvre. PF: For climbing breakout use a maximum of 10 degrees pitch. For descending breakout, maintain previous descent rate. PM: Switch Flight Directors on once Breakout trajectory is established. PF: Verify Autothrottle is controlling speed appropriately. PM: Select a roll and pitch mode as directed by PF. PF: Engage autopilot if required. Set speed to the manoeuvre speed for the planned flap setting. Call “FLAPS___” according to the flap retraction schedule. Verify flap setting is 20 or less. Call “GEAR UP”. Call “AFTER TAKEOFF CHECKLIST”.

Question 116

What are the standard call-outs during pushback?

Answer 116

FD to GC–‘Are we ready to push?’ FD to GC–‘Push approved, face xxxxx’. FD to GC–‘Are we clear to start engines?’ FD to GC–‘Starting xxxx’. FD to GC–‘Brakes set to park’. FD to GC–‘Clear to disconnect – Awaiting visual clearance’.

Question 117

When does PF call for the After T/O checklist?

Answer 117

Essentially once Clean and cleared to climb above transition altitude set primary altimeter to standard pressure and call “SET STANDARD” Then call for the After takeoff checklist. However you may do it once clean if you are not going to climb to a FL. In addition, once you have completed all Non-Normal checklists that you may have had to deal with.

Question 118

In manual flight who makes changes to the MCP? In automatic flight who makes these changes?

Answer 118

PM | PF

Question 119

What is the SOP for announcing MCP changes? What is the SOP for announcing FMC changes?

Answer 119

Above 400’ AAL, PM must announce all manually selected, armed and automatic mode changes, All altitude selections; and changes to A/P and Autothrottle engagement status. Therefore if any of these are caused by a change to the MCP or FMC, then PM should call it out.

Question 120

How can you use the FMS to monitor the descent profile?

Answer 120

Combination of checking the Legs page, Fix Page, Progress page and Descent Page. Also have the option to use Off Path Descent Page on the Descent Page.

Question 121

When does PF call for the Approach checklist?

Answer 121

Once cleared below Transition and on setting the airport QNH.

Question 122

When does P1 resume control for the landing?

Answer 122

Essentially once Stable and Visual with the checklist complete. On an Automatic approach it is at the 1000R Callout

Question 123

When does PF call for the landing checklist?

Answer 123

After calling for and selection of the Final Flap

Question 124

When must the aircraft be fully established in the landing configuration?

Answer 124

By 1000R

Question 125

When does the PM select reverse?

Answer 125

After touchdown check/select Speedbrake then Select Reverse Thrust.

Question 126

What are the PM’s actions during an EFATO?

Answer 126

Monitor the aircraft path and FMA’s ``` “Engine Failure" “Positive rate" “Gear up" 200 feet restate the failure with a diagnosis. Remind PF autopilot is available 400' FMA call outs Recall items New FMA call out Call to ATC Pull up the checklist ```

Question 127

What are the preferred modes for a Non-ILS Database and non-Database approach?

Answer 127

Non ILS Database. LNAV, VNAV Non ILS Non-Database: LNAV or HDG SEL if not aligned and V/S or FPA.

Question 128

What four annunciations must be present for a successful Non-ILS (Database) approach if using LNAV and VNAV?

Answer 128

A/P | SPD, LNAV, VNAV PTH?