Shit ton of Immunology terms Flashcards

1
Q

IL-1

A

secreted by endothelial cells along with TNF as a function of innate immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Fas Receptor

A

On infected target cells, will bind Fas ligand from CTLs which results in apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Th

A

T helper cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ITIM

A

inhibits T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

J-chain

A

links dimers of IgA binds poly-Ig-receptor in order to transport IgA across the epithelium to neutralize pathogens in gut lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

HLA-B27

A

93% of individuals with Ankylosing Spondylitis have this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ζ

A

with CD3 forms the TCR complex, signal transduction by TCR complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

VLA-4

A

T cell homing receptor, effector phase, Integrin, enhances tighter adhesion to VCAM1 on endothelium cells at site of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does C3a stimulate?

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

THP

A

Tamm-Horsfall protein, inhibits uropathogenic E. coli from binding to epithelia along urinary tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

TAP transporter

A

Transported associated with antigen processing, transports peptides into the ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

On which chromosome is the MCH located?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

IgG and IgA effector functions

A

neutralization of microbe and toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

IL-12

A

Interleukin-12, produced by macrophages and NK cells respond to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

αβ T cells

A

most abundant, MHC restricted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Breyer’s patch

A

oval shaped areas in MALT with numerous follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

MPO

A

myeloperoxidase, catalyzes the production of HOCL from H2O2 and Cl in lysosomes and phagosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Adjuvant

A

a subsdtance that when mixed with the antigen enhances immunogenicity of that antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

AS

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis, an inflammatory possibly autoimmune disease of vertebral joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IL2Rα

A

upon recognition of AG, T cells upregulate this chain to establish the high-affinity receptor to ensure only activated clones will proliferate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FcγRIIIA

A

low affinity for Ig distributed in NK cells ADCC (antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity) stimulates perforin and granzyme mediated killing of Ag coated cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Factor B

A

Bb is a serine protease and the active enzyme of C3 and C5 convertases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

iNOS

A

nitric oxide synthase, in cytosol, catalyzes formation of NO from arginine for phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

IgG and IgE effector functions

A

Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ag

A

antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

CLIP

A

the portion of the Invariant chain left in the MCH II molecule after cleavage, bumped out by HLA-DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

C5-convertase

A

C3bBb3b or C4b2aC3b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

MHC class II genes

A

HLA-DR, -DQ, -DP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Th2 activity

A

activate B cells –> secrete antibodies to parasites/allergens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Ub

A

Ubiquitin, added to lysine residues on proteins destined for degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

immunoproteasome

A

proteasome with LMPs incorporated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

APC

A

antigen presenting cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

B7

A

costimulator on APC’s recognized by CD28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

E- or P-selectin

A

T cell homing receptor, effector phase, binds to E- or P-selectin in the endothelium at the site of infection, rolling to tissue specific sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DC

A

dendritic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Th1 activity

A

activate macrophage –> kill intracellular bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CD40L

A

on the T cell, binds to CD40 (APC) providing an amplification signal to maintain the immune response inside the APC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Alloreactivity

A

Graft rejection, some of the positively-selected TCRs that bind weakly to self MHC + self peptide may bind strongly to non-self MHC and peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Live Attenuated Vaccines induce which kind of response?

A

Cellular Response (T cells), stronger, life-long immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CCR7

A

T cell homing receptor, induction phase, chemokine receptor, lymphatic tissues, binding to CCL19 or CCL21 activates integrins and chemotaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

poly-Ig-receptor

A

binds to J-chain to transport IgA across the epithelium to neutralize pathogens in the gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CR1

A

cofactor for Factor I to cleave C3b or C4b into inactive forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ADCC

A

Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (NK cells), Fc regions of the bound antibodies (IgG) on infected cells are recognized by Fcγ receptors of NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

C1

A

initiates classical pathway binds Fc region of bound Ig (IgM and IgG), cross-links 2 Fc regions and is enzymatically active cleaves C&C2 into C4b & C2a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How are phagocytes activated?

A

PAMPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

SALT

A

skin associated lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

FcγRIIB

A

low affinity for Ig distributed in B lymphocytes, DCs, macrophages, PMNs, mast cells feedback inhibition of B cells, attenuation of inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

PMNs

A

polymorphonuclear cells (neutrophils)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

unfoldases

A

Unfolds the proteins destined for degradation by the proteosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

C4

A

cleaved by C1 along with C2 (C2a) to form C4b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

MAC

A

Membrane Attack Complex C5b+C6+C7+C8+multiple C9 Osmotic cytolysis of microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

INFγ

A

interferon gamma, cytokine produced by NK cells and Th cells to activate macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

HLA-DR7

A

A high percentage of people who do not respond to Hepatitis B vaccine have this

38
Q

ITAM

A

immunoreceptor activation motif on the T cell, ACTIVATING SIGNAL, activates CD28

39
Q

FcγRI

A

high affinity for Ig distributed in macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils functions to activate phagocytes/phagocytosis

40
Q

IL-2Rβγc

A

Low affinity IL-2 receptor on T cells, is joined by an α portion to increase receptor affinity after recognition of Ag to ensure only activated clones will proliferate (becomes IL-2Rαβγc)

41
Q

Classical C3-convertase

A

C4b2a

43
Q

DAF

A

inhibits Bb binding to C3b to block formation of C3 convertase

44
Q

Fcγ receptors

A

receptors on NK cells that recongize the Fc regions of IgG antibodies bound to infected cells, initiates ADCC

45
Q

isopeptidase

A

Removes the Ub’s from intracellular proteins before the proteasome can act on it

46
Q

TdT

A

enzyme that adds nucleotides to the CDR chains that causes junctional antigenic diversity

48
Q

CD1

A

Presents lipid antigens, strikingly similar to class I & II MHC’s but not encoded in the MHC, they bind to β2-m, not highly polymorphic

50
Q

MCP

A

cofactor for Factor I to cleave C3b and C4b into inactive proteins and prevent C3 convertase formation

52
Q

CD8

A

class I-TCR co-receptor

53
Q

Granzymes

A

Induces apoptosis in targeted cells, released by NK cells into the cytoplasm by a perforin-dependent mechanism

54
Q

AMPs

A

antimicrobial peptides

55
Q

Perforin

A

Creates pores in membranes of infected cells, released by NK cells

57
Q

Immunophenotype: CD56neg, CD16neg

A

Eosinophils, basophils, mast cells, dendritic cells, B cells, plasma cells

57
Q

Cytokines involved in Th17 differentiation

A

TGFβ, IL6, IL23

58
Q

CTLs

A

cytotoxic T lymphocytes

60
Q

Cytokines involved in Th2 differentiation

A

IL4

62
Q

tapasin

A

thought to tether the newly synthesized class 1 MHC molecule to TAP, keeping it in close proximity to incoming peptides

64
Q

neonatal FcRn

A

expressed on the epithelial cell surface and trasnport maternal antibodies to the neonate, which acquires the others IgG profile also expressed by the placenta to transport maternal IgG to fetal circulation

65
Q

anergy

A

describes a lack of reaction by the body’s defense mechanisms to foreign substances

67
Q

POP QUIZ!

What does CD stand for in CD3, CD4, CD8, etc.

A

Cluster of Differentiation

69
Q

L-selectin

A

T cell homing receptor, induction phase, binds to L-selectin ligand of endothelial venule in lymph node

69
Q

Aluminum hydroxide gel (alum)

A

only adjuvant used in the US induction of antibody responses independent of TLR signaling directly activate DCs to secrete IL-1

70
Q

Epitope

A

that part of an antigen that is recognized by lymphocyte antigen receptors

70
Q

CDR

A

Complementarity-determining regions, 3 regions of hypervariability in the TCR chains

72
Q

C2

A

cleaved by C1 along with C4 (C4b) to form C2a

74
Q

NK

A

natural killer cells

75
Q

NK-T cells

A

CD1-specific T cells, express classical T cell receptors (alpha/beta) that recognize lipid antigens held in the grove of CD1

76
Q

Waldeyer’s tonsillar ring

A

oral-nasopharyngeal tonsils, first line of defense against ingested or inhaled antigens and pathogens

78
Q

β2-m

A

Non-MHC-encoded polypeptide that the α-chains of class 1 MHC’s associated with NON-covalently

79
Q

TGFβ

A

production at mucosal surfaces increases class switching within mucosal lymphoid tissues

80
Q

Ii

A

Invariant chain, forms a trimer with 3 class II molecules and 3 invariant chains to keep cytosolic peptides from binding to the MHC class II receptor in the ER

81
Q

Cytokines involved in Th1 differentiation

A

IFN-γ, IL-12

81
Q

Fas ligand

A

Expressed by CTLs which can induce apoptosis by binding Fas Receptor on target cells

83
Q

CD3

A

signaling receptor expressed on ALL T cells, singal transduction by TCR complex

84
Q

VCAM1

A

Ligand on endothelial cells, effector phase, firmly adheres to VLA4 integrin of activated T cells during infection

85
Q

IgG2a

A

opsonizing antibody produced by Th1

87
Q

C1 INH

A

C1 inhibitor, C1r and C1s protease activity to prevent initiation of Classical complement cascade

88
Q

IL-2

A

cytokine secreted by activated T cells

89
Q

FcεRI

A

high affinity for Ig distributed in mast cells, basophils, eosinophils activation of mast cells and basophils (degranulation), release of proteolytic enzymes to digest cell walls of parasite

90
Q

MBL

A

mannose binding lectin, bind to microbial cell surface mannose residues, mimics the C1 enzyme

91
Q

Th17 activity

A

activate PMNs –> kill bacteria and fungi, autoimmunity

92
Q

HOCl

A

hypochlorous acid

93
Q

LMPs

A

large multifunctional peptidase, beta proteasome subunits which increase the production of peptides suitable for Ag presentation, makes the proteasome an immunoproteasome

94
Q

CD4

A

class II-TCR co-receptor

96
Q

What does IgE bind to and activate?

A

It binds to FcγRI receptors on granulocytes to activate them

98
Q

Immunophenotype: CD56pos, CD16neg

A

Th cells, CTLs

99
Q

Factor I

A

proteolytically cleaves C3b and C4b into inactive forms, thereby preventing formation of the C3 convertase

100
Q

Main cytokines produced by Th2 cells

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, IL-13

101
Q

LFA1

A

T cell integrin, involved in adhesion and signal transduction, binds to ICAM1 on APCs

103
Q

ICAM1

A

adhesion molecule on APCs recognized by LFA1

104
Q

PAMP

A

pathogen associated molecular pattern, recognized by PRRs on macrophages

105
Q

FcγRI

A

high affinity for Fc region of IgE, ACTIVATES, receptor found on epidermal Langerhans cells, eosinophils, mast cells, and basophils

106
Q

IgG effector functions

A

opsonization and phagocytosis of microbes neutralization of microbe and toxins antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity complement activation

107
Q

What are intraepithelial lymphocytes (IEL)?

A

gamma-delta TCR T cells that recognize and respond to lipid antigens in MALT

109
Q

Main cytokines produced by Th1 cells

A

IFN-γ

110
Q

CXCR10

A

T cell homing receptor, effector phase, trafficking to peripheral/regional tissues, site of infection, binding to CXCL10 activates integrins and chemotaxis

111
Q

PRRs

A

pattern recognition receptors on macrophages, recognize PAMPs which activates the macrophage

112
Q

CD40

A

on the APC, binds to CD40L (T cell) providing an amplification signal to maintain the immune response inside the APC

113
Q

IL-7

A

Interleukin-7, produced by bone marrow stromal cells & provides the mitogenic signal for developing lymphocytes to proliferate

114
Q

Main cytokines produced by Th17 cells

A

IL-17, IL-22

115
Q

CD28

A

T cell co-stimulator receptor that recognizes B7 on APC’s

116
Q

Immunophenotype: CD56pos, CD16pos

A

NK cells

117
Q

Inactivated Vaccines induce which kind of response?

A

Humoral Response (B cells), weaker, more stable and safer

118
Q

γδ T cells

A

common in gut mucosa, not-MHC restricted

120
Q

IgG and IgM effector functions

A

Complement activation

121
Q

Alternative C3-convertase

A

C3bBb

122
Q

Immunophenotype: CD56neg, CD16pos

A

Neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages

123
Q

HLA

A

human leukocyte antigen

124
Q

MALT

A

mucosa associated lymphoid tissue

125
Q

Factor D

A

Plasma serine protease that cleaves factor B when it is bound C3b

126
Q

HLA-DM

A

catalyzes the exchange between CLIP and antigenic peptide on the MHC II in the lysosome

127
Q

CTLA4

A

Co-stimulator receptor, recognizes B7 but results in NEGATIVE regulation, ITIM

128
Q

How are granulocytes activated?

A

Ag-bound IgE binding cell surface FcγRI

129
Q

MHC class I genes

A

HLA-A, -B, -C

130
Q

C3

A

binds to the surface of a microbe where it functions as an opsonin and as a component of C3 and C5 convertases