Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Semester 3 - Infection > Session 10 - Antimicrobials > Flashcards

Session 10 - Antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

Give four types of antimicrobial

A
  • Antibacterial
    • Antifungal
    • Antiviral
    • Anti protozoal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give three ways in which antibacterial agents can be classified

A
  • Bacteriacidal or bacteriostatic
    • Target site (mechanism of action)
    • Chemical structure (antibacterial class)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Give four targets of antibacterials and their mechanism of action

A
  • Cell wall synthesis
    • Cell membrane function
    • Protein synthesis
    • Nucleic acid synthesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Give two antibacterial which effects cell wall synthesis

A
  • Beta-lactams (penicillin derivatives)

* Glycopeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Give an antibacterial which effects cell membrane function

A

• Polymixins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Give an antibacterial (three) which effect protein synthesis

A
  • Tetracycline - 30s Ribosomes
    • Aminoglycosides (gentomycine) - 30s ribosome
    • Macrolides - 50s ribosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give an antibacterial which effects nucleic acid synthesis

A

• Quinolones
○ Trimethoprim

Rifampicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the aim of antibiotics?

A

• Effective prevention and treatment of infections whilst minimising
○ Resistance
○ Unwanted effects

Avoidable costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Give fiveunwanted side effects of antibiotic use

A
  • GI upsets (nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea)
    • Allergies (skin rashes)
    • Haematological disturbances
    • Organ toxicity (liver, ear, kidney)
    • Super infections (C. Difficile, MRSA, fungal)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are three areas of antimicrobial usage?

A 
• Intrinsic empiric therapy (best guess)
	• Specific or definitive treatment
		○ Wherever possible narrow spectrum
	• Prophylaxis
		○ Surgical and medical examples
		○ "Dirty" GI surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What three factors must be taken into account when selecting antibiotics when you don’t have a lab?

A
  • Clinical diagnosis
    • Probable pathogens
    • Predicted sensitivities (best guess)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What three factors can be used to help decide antibiotic treatment when lab available?

A
  • Specimens
    • Pathogens

Sensitivity testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Give 5 factors which you need to take into account when choosing antibiotics

A
  • Spectrum of activity
    • Site of infection
    • Patient factors
    • Guidance
    • Hospital/primary care guidance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is spectrum of activity?

A

• Whether antibiotic works on gram pos/neg bacilli, anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Give four patient factors which determine choice of antibiotic

A
  • Age, organ function, pregnancy, allergies
    • Severity of infection
    • Route of administration oral/IV (rectal, topical)
    • Interactions with other drugs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What guidance is given to aid choice of antibiotic in a PCT?

A
  • National/local
    • Based on epidemiology and resistance patterns
    • Epidemiology of healthcare-associated pathogens

Costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What written guidance is available to guide antibiotic choice?

A
  • UHL antimicrobial website

* BNF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give two indications for combined therapy antibiotics

A
  • Pathogen unknown

* Multiple pathogens possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two positives of using combined therapy?

A

• Prevent emergence of resistance
• Enhanced activity - addition or synergy
○ Infective endocarditis (tricky to treat due to poor blood supply to heart valve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Give four types of beta-lactams

A
  • Penicillins
    • Cephalosporins
    • Carbapenems
    • Monobactams
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Give three types of penicillins

A
  • Penicillin
    • Amoxicillin
    • Flucloxacillin
    • B lactamase inhibitor combinations
22
Q

What is penicillin active against?

A

• Mainly active against streptococci

23
Q

What is amoxicillin mainly active against?

A

• Active against gram -‘ves and streptococci

24
Q

What is fulcloxacillin active against?

A

• Staphylococci and streptococci

25
Q

Give two b lactamase inhibitor combinations

A
  • Co-amoxiclave

* Piperacillin/tazobactam

26
Q

What does amoxiclav do?

A
  • Active against streptococci
    • Lots of Gram -‘ve
    • Staphylococci
    • Anaerobes
27
Q

What is piperacillin used for?

A
  • Active against streptococci
    • Lots of Gram -‘ve
    • Staphylococci
    • Pseudomonas
28
Q

Give a good cephalosporin

A

Cetriaxone

29
Q

What is a cephalosporin used for?

A
  • Gram -‘ve
    • Broad spectrum
    • NO anaerobic activity
30
Q

Why is cetriaxone (a cephalosporin) used for meningitis?

A

• Good activity in the CSF

31
Q

Give a type of carbapenem

A

Meropenem

32
Q

What is meropenem used for?

A
  • Very broad spectrum
    • Active against most gram negs
    • Generally safe in penicillin allergy
33
Q

Name a glycopeptide antibiotic

A
  • Vancomycin

* Teicoplanin

34
Q

What is vancomycin?

A
  • Active against most gram pos
    • Some enterococci resistance
    • Resistance in staphs rare
    • Not absorbed (oral for c fii only
    • Therapeutic monitoring
35
Q

Give two types of tetracycline

A

• Tetralcycline and doxycycline

36
Q

What do tetracylcine and doxycylcine do?

A
  • Similar spectrum
    • Broad spectrum, but specific use in penicillin aleergy useually for gram pos
    • Active in atypical pathogens in pneumonia
    • Used for Chlamydia
    • Must not be used for children
37
Q

Give a type of aminoglycosides

A

Gentamicin

38
Q

What can gentamicin (an aminoglycoside) be used for?

A
  • Profound activity against Gram negs
    • Good activity in the blood/urine
    • Potentially nephrotoxic/ototoxic
    • Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)
    • required
    • Generally reserved for severe Gram neg
    • sepsis
39
Q

Name a macrolide

A

Erythromycin

40
Q

What does erythromycin (a macrolide) do?

A
  • Well distributed including intracellular penetration
    • Alternative to penicillin for mild gram positive infections
    • Also active against atypical respiratory pathogens
41
Q

Give an example of a quinolone

A

Ciprofloxacin

42
Q

What does ciprofloxacin do? (quinolone)

A
  • Inhibit DNA gyrase
    • Very active against gram negs
    • Also active against atypical pathogens
    • Increasing resistance and risk of CDI
43
Q

What does trimethoprim and suphonamides do?

A
  • Inhibitors of folic acid synthesis

* Trimethoprim used for UTI

44
Q

What is co-trimoxazole?

A
  • Combination of trimethoprim and sulphamethoxazole
    • Used to treat PCP
    • Has activity against MRSA
45
Q

Name two types of antifungals

A

• Azoles
• Polyenes
○ Nystatin and amphotericin

46
Q

What do azoles do?

A
  • Active against yeasts and molds

* Inhibit cell-membrane synthesis

47
Q

Name two polyenes (antifungals)

A
  • Nystatins

* Amphotericin

48
Q

What do polyenes do?

A

• Inhibit cell membrane functiom

49
Q

Name two antivirals

A
  • Aciclovir

* Tamiflu

50
Q

What does aciclover do?

A
  • When phosphorylated inhibits viral DNA polymerase
    • Herpes simplex - Genital herpes, encephalitis
    • Varicella zost - Chicken pox & Shingles
51
Q

What does tamiflu do?

A
  • Inhibits viral neuraminidase

* Influenza A & B

52
Q

Name an antibiotic effective against anaerobic bacteria and protozoa

A

Metronidazole

Semester 3 - Infection (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions