Session 1 - Background Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 5 different forms of DNA which occur, depending on the hydration of the environment.

A

B-DNA - most common A-DNA Z-DNA Cruciforms H-DNA G4-DNA

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2
Q

How is chromatin structure maintained?

A

Cohesins, CTCF, and histones

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3
Q

What histone modifications are possible?

A

Acetylation Phosphyorlation Methylation Ubiquitination Sumoylation

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4
Q

Name some proteins that are key architectural modellers associated with disease

A

SATBP1 - breast cancer prognosis CTCF - Silver-Russell and Beckwith Weidemann Cohesin - Cornelia de Lange MLL2 - Acute leukaemias MECP2 - Rett syndrome CREBBP - Rubenstein Taybi

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5
Q

What is the function of the centromere?

A

Chromosome segregation during mitosis and meiosis II Site of Kinetochore assembly

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6
Q

Describe the structure of the centromere

A

Alpha-satellite DNA repeats, constitutive heterochromatin, made of multiple centromeric proteins (CENPs)

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7
Q

Name two problems caused by centromere malfunction

A

Premature centromere division - age-depedent process Premature chromatid separation - diagnosed by puffing of the centromeres on Karyotype, cause of Roberts syndrome.

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8
Q

Name some diseases caused by telomere malfunction

A

Dyskeratosis congenita Cri-du-Chat - loss of hTERT gene

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9
Q

List the different types of chromosome banding techniques

A

R-banding G-banding DAPI/DA staining C-banding Q-banding CD-banding T-banding G11-banding Replication-banding (for SCE and chromosome breakage syndromes) NOR staining

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10
Q

Name some disorders associated with DNA replication problems

A

Dyskeratosis congenita Meier-Gorlin syndrome - mutation in one of the ORC components Hutchinson-Gilford Progeria Bloom syndrome - mutation in BLM, a topoisomerase

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11
Q

Whcih DNA polymerase is associated with synthesis of the leading strand and DNA repair?

A

DNA polymerase delta.

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12
Q

In which stage of the mieosis does Crossing over occur?

A

Pachytene of meiosis I

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13
Q

In which stage of the cell cycle so oocytes get halted during foetal development?

A

Diplotene in meiosis I

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14
Q

How is splicing regulated?

A

Regulated by cis-acting and trans-acting elements. Regulation is cell and tissue-specific. Requires the presence of Exonic Splice Enhancer and Intronic Splice Enhancers. SR proteins are required as they bind he ESE/ISE and components of the spliceosome. Exonic Splice Supressors and Intronic Splice Supressors also exist.

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15
Q

How can splicing aberrations cause disease?

A

Mutations disruption of a splicing element - Cancer Generation of toxic RNA - Myotonic Dystrophy Mutations affecting a splicing factor - SMN1 Overexpression of splice factors - Cancer

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16
Q

Name some therapies that target splicing mutations/aberrations

A

Antisense oligonucleotides - bind specific splicing targets and enhancing or repressing. Antisense oligos can also be used to target mutant transcripts. Trans-splicing - introduces artificial wildtype splice site into mutant sequence.

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17
Q

Name the three RNA surveillance mechanisms, and say what they detect.

A
  1. Nonsense mediated decay - premature stop mutation 2. Non-stop mediated decay - STOP lost. extended 3’ sequence and long Poly-A tail 3. No-go mediated decay - not well understood
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18
Q

How does the NMD pathway work?

A

Exon Junction Complexes attach to the exon-exon boundaries of the mRNA. The ribosome displaces EJCs as it traverses the transcript - if it detaches before all EJCs are removed the transcript is flagged for NMD.

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19
Q

Give an example of a target escaping NMD.

A

T cell receptor - NMD can be activated even if a premature STOP occurs within the last 50bp of the exon.

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20
Q

Give examples of how NMD is related to disease

A

NMD is triggered by frameshift mutations in dystrophin resulting in premature STOP codons. This results in haploinsufficiency. If the mutation is in-frame a much milder phenotype (Becker) is observed. Marfan Syndrome - NMD is correlated with disease severity.

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21
Q

How can NMD potentially be treated?

A
  1. Correct the premature STOP mutation - promote read through -CF, DMD, SMA. 2. Eliminate the portion of the gene with the STOP mutation in it 3. Inhibit the NMD pathway, e.g. SMG1 kinase inhibitors.
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22
Q

Name the 4 functions non-coding RNAs

A

rRNA - present in the NORs, transcribed as a single 13kb transcript. (Treacher-Collins) tRNA - transport the amino acid to the ribosome during translation. (MELAS, MERFF) snRNA - spliceosomal RNAs - two subclasses: Sm and Lsm. (SMN2, cancer, RP) snoRNA - RNA processing and modification (Cancer, PWS)

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23
Q

Name the 4 types of regulatory RNAs

A

miRNA - acts to regulate expession via the mRNA transcript - post-transcriptional gene silencing siRNA - acts to regulate transcription via the DNA. Dicer-depedent. piRNA - regulate transposon activity (Infertility) lncRNA - involved in X-inactivation and imprinting, regulate transcription factor activation and alternative splicing.

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24
Q

What roles do ncRNAs play in disease diagnosis and treatment?

A

Diagnostic biomarkers of disease Therapeutic agents to control gene expression: MRX34 drug acts to repress oncogenes in the TP53 pathway. Antisense oligos could be a potential treatment for Angelman syndrome (Anti-UBE3A).

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25
Q

List the types of normal genomic variation

A

Heterochromatic variation (1qh, 9qh, 16qh, Yqh) CNV - 8p, near GTA4 region. LCRs - repeat tracts SNPs Inversions (chromosome 9 inv common). Chr 11 inv Satellite DNA in centromeres and stalks Fragile sites/repeat regionc - may be BrdU inducible. FRA11B predisposes to del 11q (Jacobsen syndrome). Variable numbers of tandem repeats. Microsatellite repeats Epigenetics

26
Q

What can cause DNA damage?

A

UV, free-radicals, radiation, chemicals, mutations in proof-reading machinery

27
Q

What repair mechanisms do humans have?

A

MMR - MutS-Alpha and MutS-beta recruit the MutL complex - identify, and excise incorrect base, DNA ligase fills the gap Base Excision Repair - removed oxidative damage Nucleotide Excision repair - removes UV damage DSB repair - Homologous Recombination Repair - RAD51 required suring S-phase to repair from sister chromatid. BRCA1/2 part of this pathway DSB repair - NHEJ - no homology required, results in ligation of two non-homologous molecules, bases may be missing and leave a scar. DNA polymerase proof-reading and repairing. Gene conversion FoSTeS MMBIR NAHR

28
Q

What are the five types or pseudogene?

A

Non-processed Processed (reintroduced into the genome by reverse transcription) Unitary - deactivation of gene without duplication RNA pseudogenes Mitochondrial pseudogenes

29
Q

Why are pseudogenes clinically relevant?

A

Gene conversion can lead to inactivation of active gene (e.g. PMS2) Homologous recombination can lead to del/dup Difficult to accurately sequence

30
Q

Name some clinically relevant pseudogenes

A

SMA is caused by mutations in SMN1. It has a pseudogene (SMN2 - common mutations in exon 7). Recombination and gene conversion can result in loss of SMN1. However, if SMN2 is duplicated, this can restore some function and result in a less severe phenotype. CYP21A2 - CAH. Has a pseudogene CYP21A1P PKD1 PMS2 BRCA1

31
Q

How can we get around the pseudogene problem in the lab?

A

Design primers specific to parent gene Long range PCR for parent gene then nested primers to sequence cDNA methods

32
Q

How can dicentric chromosomes be created?

A

As a result of telomere erosion and breakage-fusion-bridge repair. May be the cause of chromosome instability in cancers

33
Q

What is chromothripsis?

A

The joining, likely by NHEJ, of multiple fragments of chromosomes. This may cause the highly complex rearrangements seen in cancer cells.

34
Q

Name the mechanisms via which reciprocal translocations can be formed?

A

NHEJ, FoSTeS, MMBIR, MMEJ.

35
Q

What often mediates recurrent translocation?

A

LCRs and NAHR

36
Q

Name some recurrent rearrangements

A

Prader-Willi/Angelman common deletion (3mb) Isodicentric 22q11.2 - cat-eye syndrome. AZFa/b/c deletion in male infertility Robertsonian translocations

37
Q

List the things that can go wrong during meiosis 1 to cause aneuploidy.

A

Premature homologue separation Anaphase lag Non-disjunction Recombination failure - the chromosomes remain attached.

38
Q

List the things that can go wrong in Meiosis 2 to cause aneuploidy.

A

Premature chromatid separation Non-disjunction Anaphase lag

39
Q

Define tertiary trisomy

A

The two normal chromosomes segregate with one derivative chromosome

40
Q

Define interchange trisomy

A

Two derivative chromosomes segregate with a normal chromosome

41
Q

What factors should be considered when estimating risk of recurrence of chromosome aneuploidy?

A

Location of imbalance and chromosome involved. If either parent has a balanced translocation Haploid Autsomal Length (basically, smaller chromosomes are more likely to be tolerated in imbalance than larger chromosomes as they contain a smaller proportion of the total genetic material)

42
Q

What should you be particularly aware of when analysing a case with a robertsonian translocation involving chromosomes 14 and 15?

A

UPD.

43
Q

How are inversions formed?

A

Inversion loops. Can be paracentric or pericentric. can result in loss/gain through recombination during meiosis 1

44
Q

What is the Minimal Processing Segment?

A

The shorted section of homology needed for LCR-mediated NAHR.

45
Q

What are the three forms of NAHR rearrangements?

A

Intrachromatid Intrachromosomal Interchromasomal

46
Q

Do reciprocal deletions and duplications appear at the same rate?

A

No - deletions are more commonly detected. Possibly because they have a more severe phenotype.

47
Q

Give an example of a reciprocal deleltion/duplication.

A

Potoki-Lupski syndrome and Smith-Magenis syndrome (17p11.2) - RAI1 gene DiGeorge syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome (22q11.2)

48
Q

Give some examples of recurrent deletions/duplications mediated by LCR/NAHR.

A

PWS/AS deletion - common deletion is 4mb, between BP1 or BP2 and BP3. Larger deletion extends to BP4. NF1 - common 1.5mb deletion DiGeorge syndrome and velocardiofacial syndrome (22q11.2) - common deletion between LCR22B and LCR22D; smaller deletion between LCR22A and LCR22B

49
Q

List the types of mosaicism

A

Somatic Gonadal Sex chromosome (review Hook’s tables) Confined placental mosacism Pseudomosaicism Chimaerism Methylation/X-inactivation Vanishing twin UPD

50
Q

How are genes methylated; what proteins are involved?

A

DNMT1 - maintains DNMT3A/B - de novo methylation

51
Q

Which nucleotide is methylated for epigenetic modidfication?

A

Cytosine. Forms 5MeC

52
Q

Give a brief overview on how imprints/methylation patterns are set

A

Gametogenesis - de novo methylation of genes in gametes Early embryogenesis - genome-wide demethylation Post implantation - Large-scale de novo methlation by DNMT3A/B

53
Q

Give some examples of diseases caused by aberrant epigenetic modification or imprinting.

A

FRAX - expansion in 5’ region of FMR1 becomes methylated and prevents gene expression Rett syndrome - duplication of MECP2 Beckwith Weidemann syndrome and Russel-Silver syndrome PW/AS

54
Q

How is epigenetic modification involved in cancer?

A

Hypermethylation of the MLH1 promoter can cause Lynch syndrome as the tumour suppressor gene function is supressed

55
Q

Give examples of Epigenetic therapies.

A

5-azacytodine inhibits DNA methylation to retain activity in otherwise inactivated genes. Drugs can also promote methylation. Need to be careful as any alterations to modification must be targeted.

56
Q

What are the two forms of UPD? Describe the differences between each.

A

Uniparental Isodisomy - 2 identical homologues from one parent. Uniparental Heterodisomy - 2 different homologues from one parent.

57
Q

What are the three types of UPD?

A
  1. Complete chromosomal UPD: all maternal = benign ovarian teratoma, all paternal = hydatidiform mole. 2. Whole chromosome UPD 3. Segmental UPD
58
Q

How can each type of UPD arise?

A
  1. Complete chromosomal UPD - a disomic gamete joins with a nullisomic gamete 2. Whole chromosome UPD - trisomy rescue, monosomy rescue
59
Q

Why don’t you see reciprocal segmental matUPD in Beckwith Weideman syndrome?

A

Considered to be lethal. See only patUPD.

60
Q

List the methods used to detect UPD.

A

Bisulphite modification and: 1. msPCR 2. Pyrosequencing 3. msPCR and restriction digest 4. SNP array 5. QF-PCR Non-modified DNA: 1. southern blotting - digest the sample with methylation sensitive enzymes to create bands on a gel. 2. msMLPA - two tube reaction, digest one tube with methylation sensitive enzymes 3. Whole Exome/Genome analysis

61
Q

Described 4 methods that ASOs can be used to interfere with gene translation

A

ASO/RNA can bind to mRNA and flag transcript for degradation by RNase H. ASO/RNA can bind to a specific target (mutation site) on the RNA and flag for degradation. ASO/RNA can bind to the mRNA and prevent binding of the ribosome to disrupt translation ASO/RNA can bind to the mRNA at S/R protein sites (ESE) to cause exon skipping.