Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

my comptia a+ studyguide > Services Provided by Network Devices > Flashcards

Services Provided by Network Devices Flashcards

1
Q

What network resources can a server provide access to?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the components of a FQDN?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is IoT?

A

IoT is a system of connected computing devices and other things that use unique identifiers and the ability to send data over a network without requiring human interaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the most common IoT communication protocols?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What CPUs can be used in an embedded system?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Domain Name System

A

Translates hostnames to IP addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)

A

Host names inside domains that are added to the beginning of the domain name. For example, any name given that is placed in front of Microsoft.com, such as support.Microsoft.com, is a fully qualified domain name.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Forward lookup zone

A

DNS record that matches a hostname to its IP address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Reverse lookup zone

A

DNS record that matches a IP address to its hostname

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

A

Automatically assigns the IP configuration when a device connects to the network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

A

-The Internet standard protocol for transferring e-mail messages between hosts.
-SMTP assumes that both host and client are constantly connected, but you can use both permanent and dial-up connections to an SMTP host.
-Used for outgoing emails and operates on port 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3)

A

-A mail-drop protocol designed to work with clients that are not always connected to the network.
-It allows a mail server to receive mail messages and store them on a server until the client comes back on line and requests them.
-Used for incoming emails and operates on port 110.
-Emails are downloaded to the local computer and then removed from the email server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

A

Like POP3, IMAP4 is a protocol that allows a client to download messages from a server. (It does not allow you to send messages.) IMAP4 is much more powerful than POP3. For example, with IMAP4, you can open all folders in your mailbox, not just the Inbox, as well as public folders on the server.
Used for incoming emails and operates on port 143. Emails are kept on the email server allowing users to access their email from multiple devices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Load balancer

A

-Load balancing is the capability of a router to distribute traffic over all of its network ports that are the same metric from the destination address.
-Internet appliance that monitors servers and distributes network traffic so one server does not get overwhelmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Spam gateway

A

Internet appliance that monitors incoming and outgoing emails to reduce the amount of spam affecting the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Proxy server

A

-A computer on the network that keeps a cache of resolved names and responds to queries for names outside the local subnet.
-An internet appliance typically configured to monitor all incoming and outgoing network traffic and determines if the traffic is allowed or not.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Unified Threat Management (UTM) Appliance

A

combines multiple functions into one single device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Internet of Things (IoT)

A

IoT is a system of connected computing devices and other things that use unique identifiers and the ability to send data over a network without requiring human interaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Internet of Everything (IoE)

A

IoE is another name for IoT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Embedded System

A

-complete computer system that is designed to perform a specific dedicated task.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Application-specific integrated circuit (ASIC)

A

-created to perform a single function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

System-on-chip (SoC)

A

A System-on-chip incorporates all components on the board

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Field-Programmable Gate Array (FPGA)

A

A field-programmable gate array is physically setup like a ASIC or SoC, but the programming is configured by the end-user.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Industrial Control Systems (ICS)

A

Industrial control systems (ICSs) handle the workflow and automation process for all sorts of machinery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Programmable logic controller (PLC)

A

PLC is a specialized controller that can be programmed to perform specific tasks. Multiple PLCs can be combined and configured to work together to carry out complex tasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA)

A

SCADA controllers are used to monitor and control PLC systems. They gather data and adjust the system based on the data acquired from sensors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Human-machine interface (HMI)

A

The HMI can be either a touch-screen control panel or software running on a typical computer system. The HMI allows the operator to make configuration changes in the ICS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Distributed control system (DCS)

A

A DCS is a customized all-in-one package that contains the needed PLCs, SCADA controller, and HMI.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Modbus

A

Modbus is a special network protocol that controller systems use to communicate with each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

-one of the key components for any network
- is a computer with a special operating system that can provide different roles on the network
-Depending on the needs of the network, a single ____________ can handle multiple roles or one specific role

A

server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Providing and managing access to _____ is one of the more common roles you can configure servers to handle

A

files and folders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

_____ can be stored on the server in _____ that are then shared to other users on the network.

A

-files
-folders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When sharing _____ on the network, you can set permissions (such as read-only, write access, or full control) to manage user access. In some instances, it may be necessary to explicitly deny users access to certain _____.

A

-folders
-folders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

You can also configure access to network _____ from outside the network if needed

A

folders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

You can use the _____ for this or you can configure the Remote Web Access role on a Windows server to provide remote access to network folders.

A

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Only folders can be shared and managed on the server, not individual files. (true/false)

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

You can configure servers to manage network _____.

A

printers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When enabling the print server roles, you can configure the server to do three things:

A

-manage security settings
-monitor printer usage
-provide access to internet printing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

_____ have become an integral component of many organizations’ business models

A

Web sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Maintaining its (web site) own web server gives an organization the ability to make changes and manage its site as needed.
(true/false)

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

You can configure a web server to host an internal web site called an _____

A

intranet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Microsoft servers use the _____ web server platform

A

Internet Information Services (IIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

______servers use Apache which is open-source and the most widely used web server platform.

A

Linux

44
Q

All networks need to focus on _____.

A

security

45
Q

The three components of network security are:

A

-Authentication to verify the user’s identity.
-Authorization to verify that the user is allowed to access resources.
-Accounting to monitor and account for all activity.

46
Q

_____ can be used to provide the accounting component

A

System log files

47
Q

Whenever a significant event occurs on a network, a system log (syslog) file is generated. (true/false)

A

true

48
Q

These _____ files contain pertinent information, such as what happened, who did it, when it happened, etc.

A

system log

49
Q

A _____ should be configured as a central repository to gather and manage all syslog files that are generated across the network.

A

server

50
Q

On a network, including the internet, computers use IP addresses to identify each other and specify where data should go. However, it is much easier for users to use hostnames or words to identify computers or websites. (true/false)

A

true

51
Q

-translates hostnames to IP addresses
-This is what makes using the internet so easy

A

domain name system (DNS)

52
Q

_____ is a hierarchical naming system.

A

DNS

53
Q

_____ means that the system is organized with a root level at the top and everything branches from that.

A

Hierarchical

54
Q

_____ is a domain name that spells out each level of the hierarchy.

A

A fully qualified domain name (FQDN)

55
Q

An example of FQDN is

A

www.testout.com.

56
Q

The _____ level is the highest level in the DNS hierarchy

A

root

57
Q

The DNS root level is represented by a period at the end of the of the FQDN. When typing the FQDN into a web browser, the period is typically not included. The period is mainly used when defining DNS records on the server.

A

facts

58
Q

_____ names have extensions such as com, edu, gov, org, etc

A

The top-level domain (TLD)

59
Q

The _____ is unique to each organization

A

domain name

60
Q

The DNS domain is referred to as distributed because this portion is unique to each organization or group. Each organization is responsible for maintaining its own namespace. (true/false)

A

true

61
Q

_____ is the name of specific hosts on the network

A

Hostname

62
Q

On an _____ network, an example of a hostname could be server1 or server2.

A

internal

63
Q

On the internet, this is typically www. On a webserver, www is the name of the root folder that all website files are stored in. (true/false)

A

true

64
Q

_____ zones are used to maintain and define the domain namespace (e.g., testout in www.testout.com).

A

DNS

65
Q

_____ (e.g., labs.testout) are also defined and managed in DNS zones.

A

Subdomains

66
Q

Multiple subdomains can be managed on one server or defined in their own DNS zone as needed. (true/false)

A

true

67
Q

_____ is defined using a DNS zone file

A

DNS zone

68
Q

_____ is a text document stored on each server and defines the DNS zone and how it should function.

A

DNS zone file

69
Q

Each DNS zone must have its own zone file. (true/false)

A

true

70
Q

When defining a DNS zone, you must specify a forward lookup zone or a reverse lookup zone (true/false)

A

true

71
Q

A _____ lookup zone matches the hostname to the IP address.

A

forward

72
Q

A _____ lookup zone matches the IP address to the hostname.

A

reverse

73
Q

These zones need to be defined because limitations in DNS do not allow this to happen automatically. (true/false)

A

true

74
Q

Maps an IPv4 (32-bit) DNS host name to an IP address. This is the most common resource record type.

A

A (host address)

75
Q

Maps an IPv6 (128-bit) DNS host name to an IP address.

A

AAAA (quad-A)

76
Q

Maps an IP address to a host name (by pointing to an A record).

A

Pointer
(PTR)

77
Q

Provides alternate names (or aliases) to hosts that already have a host record. For example:
sales.testout can be mapped to the IP address of testout.com
If a single A record is used with multiple CNAME records, only the A record needs to be modified when the IP address changes.

A

Canonical Name
(CNAME)

78
Q

Identifies servers used for handling email

A

Mail Exchange
(MX)

79
Q

Stores plaintext notes in a DNS zone. This record type can be used to help prevent email spam and verify domain ownership.

A

TXT

80
Q

Stores all the administration information about the DNS zone. For example, the administrator’s email address, TTL values, primary name server, etc., is recorded in this file.
SOA records are very important in the zone transfer process.

A

Start of Authority
(SOA)

81
Q

Defines the authoritative server for a specific domain. This record identifies all name servers that can perform name resolution for the zone.
Typically, there is an entry for the primary server and all secondary servers for the zone (all authoritative DNS servers).

A

Name Server
(NS)

82
Q

Defines a host and port for a specific service such as voice over IP (VoIP). This allows clients to find services through DNS. Windows automatically creates these records as needed.

A

DNS Service
(SRV)

83
Q

setting up _____ on a network allows the IP configuration to be assigned automatically when a device connects to the network.

A

DHCP

84
Q

The IP configuration for DHCP can include:

A

-unique IP address
-Subnet mask
-Default gateway
-DNS server (only if needed)
-Windows Naming Service (WINS) server (only if needed)

85
Q

To setup DHCP, you must define the DHCP scope. (true/false)

A

true

86
Q

Depending on the network, different devices may serve as the DHCP server such as:

A

SOHO router
Windows or Linux server

87
Q

The _____ defines the range of IP addresses that the DHCP server can assign.

A

IP range

88
Q

When a new device connects to the network, the _____ will assign the next available address.

A

DHCP server

89
Q

When you define the IP range, be aware that you can assign:

A

-All available addresses in the network.
-Specific ranges (e.g., 192.168.5.50 - 192.168.5.100). Specifying a limited number of addresses can help limit the number of connections to the network.

90
Q

_____ mask defines the network ID and host ID

A

subnet

91
Q

_____ are IP addresses that the DHCP server will not assign

A

Exclusions

92
Q

These addresses (exclusions) are typically used for devices such as servers, printers, routers, or other network devices that must have a static IP address.
These IP addresses must be manually configured on each device.

A

facts

93
Q

It’s important to remember that the exclusion addresses must fall within the configured IP range. (true/false)

A

true

94
Q

Reservation IP addresses will also not be assigned by the DHCP server. (true/false)

A

true

95
Q

Instead of manually configuring the IP information on each device that needs a static IP, you can assign _____ on the DHCP server using the device’s MAC address. Whenever that device connects to the network, the DHCP server assigns it the reserved IP configuration.

A

reservations

96
Q

_____ is an IP configuration that assigns to a device for a specified amount of time.

A

DHCP lease time

97
Q

_____ defines where data packets that are leaving the network (e.g., internet packets), should go.

A

Default gateway

98
Q

Email allows users to communicate with each other whenever they want regardless of physical location. A server can be configured to manage emails for an organization. (true/false)

A

true

99
Q

Used for outgoing emails and operates on port 25.

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) -

100
Q

Post Office Protocol version 3 (POP3) - Used for incoming emails and operates on port 110. Emails are downloaded to the local computer and then removed from the email server. (true/false)

A

true

101
Q

Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) - Used for incoming emails and operates on _____. Emails are kept on the email server, allowing users to access their email from multiple devices.

A

port 143

102
Q

Spam email is one of the major concerns with emails. Spam mail can lead to issues including the introduction of malware into the network. (true/false)

A

true

103
Q

_____ protects against spoofed emails by verifying the sender’s domain address

A

DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

104
Q

facts about DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM)

A

A spoofed email looks like it comes from a legitimate user, but in fact comes from somewhere else.
DKIM creates a DNS TXT file on the sender’s email server. The recipient can check the DNS record to verify the sender’s domain is legitimate.
DKIM also creates a pair of encryption keys, one private key and one public key.
The public key is sent along with the email to digitally sign the email.
The private key is kept on the email server, so the receiver is able validate the sender’s identity.

105
Q

_____ is also used to protect against spoofed emails. Instead of using encryption keys, a SPF record is created in the sender’s DNS server.

A

Sender Policy Frameworks (SPF)

106
Q

facts about Sender Policy Frameworks (SPF)

A

The SPF contains:
The SPF version being used.
The IPs that are authorized to send emails for the domain.
Any other third-party domains that are authorized to send emails for the domain.
An all tag at the end which indicates the policy that should be applied when the receiving server detects a server that is not part of the SPF record.
The recipient can check the SPF record and verify the IP address of the domain the email comes from. If the IP address matches the DNS records, the email is marked as safe. If the IP address does not match the DNS records, the email is flagged and blocked.

107
Q

_____ combines the protections of both DKIM and SPF to protect users from malicious emails.

A

Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance (DMARC)

my comptia a+ studyguide (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions