Serology Flashcards

0
Q

Test that involves antigen antibody reaction

A

Serologic test

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1
Q

Main defense against extracellular organisms

A

Humoral immunity

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2
Q

Used to detect unknown antigen using known antibody

A

Forward or direct

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3
Q

Example of forward test

A

Red cell forward blood typing

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4
Q

Used to detect known antigen using unknown antibody

A

Backward/indirect or reverse

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5
Q

Physical inactivation of serum

A

Heat serum at 56C for 30mins

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6
Q

Reinactivation of serum

A

Heat at 56C for 10mins

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7
Q

Chemical inactivation of Serum

A

Add choline chloride

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8
Q

Immunologic reaction wherein the combinations of antigen and antibody is not visible

A

Primary

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9
Q

Immunologic reaction wherein Ab-Ag reaction is visible

A

Secondary

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10
Q

Immunologically in vivo. Biologic reaction is detectable

A

Tertiary

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11
Q

Type of antigen involve in precipitation reaction

A

Soluble antigen

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12
Q

Where optimum precipitation occurs

A

Zone of equivalence

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13
Q

The number of antigen and antibody is equal

A

Zone of equivalence

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14
Q

Hypothesis made by Marrack that is based on the assumptions that each antibody molecule must have at least two binding sites, and antigen must be multivalent

A

Lattice hypothesis

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15
Q

Many free antibody remains in the solution

A

Prozone

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16
Q

Excess antigen

A

Postzone

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17
Q

How to prevent prozone and postzone

A

Proper dilution

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18
Q

Measure of the cloudiness of the solution

A

Turbidimetry

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19
Q

Measures the light intensity due to reflection, absorption or scatter

A

Turbidimetry

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20
Q

Measures light that passes through using spectrophotometer

A

Turbidimetry

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21
Q

Measures the light that is scattered at a particular angle from the incident beam as it passes through a suspension

A

Nephelometry

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22
Q

Measures scattered light

A

Nephelometry

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23
Q

Helps to stabilize the diffusion process and allow visualization of the precipitin band

A

Agar and agarose

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24
Q

No electrical current is used

A

Passive immunodiffusion

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25
Q

The rate of diffusion is affected by the size of the particles, the temperature, the gel viscosity and the amount of hydration

A

Passive immunodiffusion

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26
Q

Preferred to agar

A

Agarose

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27
Q

Antibody was incorporated in a test tube

A

Oudin test

Single diffusion, single dimension

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28
Q

End result of Oudin test

A

Precipitin line

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29
Q

Single diffusion, double dimension modification of Oudin test

A

Radial immunodiffusion

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30
Q

Antibody is uniformly distributed to the support gel, and antigen is applied to a well cut into the gel

A

Radial immunodiffusion

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31
Q

End result of RID

A

Precipitin ring

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32
Q

In this technique antigen is allowed to diffuse in completion, and when equivalence is reached, there is no further change in the ring diameter

A

Mancini or end point method

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33
Q

Measurements are taken before the point of equivalence

A

Fahey and McKelvey or kinetic method

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34
Q

Square of diameter is directly proportional to antigen concentration

A

End point method

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35
Q

The diameter is proportional to the log of concentration

A

Kinetic method

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36
Q

Both antigen and antibody diffuse independently through a semi solid medium in two dimensions

A

Ouchterlony double diffusion

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37
Q

Smooth arc

A

Serological identity

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38
Q

Spur

A

Partial identity

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39
Q

Crossed lines

A

No identity

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40
Q

Separates molecules according to differences in their electric charges when they are placed in an electric field

A

Electrophoresis

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41
Q

Combination of RID and electrophoresis

A

Rocket immunoelectrophoresis
Laurel method
One dimension electroimmunodiffusion

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42
Q

For the identification of monoclonal antibodies

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

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43
Q

Double diffusion technique with electrophoresis

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

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44
Q

More sensitive than immunoelectrophoresis

A

Immunofixation

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45
Q

By grabar and williams

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

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46
Q

By alper and johnson

A

Immunofixation

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47
Q

In a precipitation reaction how can the ideal antibody be characterized

A

High affinity and avidity

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48
Q

Type of antigen used in agglutination reaction

A

Particulate antigen

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49
Q

Antibody that causes agglutination

A

Agglutinin

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50
Q

Biggest immunoglobulin

A

IgM

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51
Q

Non-agglutinating antibody

A

IgG

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52
Q

Initial combination of antigen and antibody

A

Sensitization

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53
Q

Formation of large aggregates

A

Lattice formation

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54
Q

Decreases the buffer’s ionic strength

A

Low ionic strength saline

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55
Q

Neutralizes the surface charge and allows red cell to approach each other closely

A

5-30% albumin

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56
Q

What makes red cell negative charge

A

Sialic acid

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57
Q

Reduces the water hydration around cells

A

Dextran

Polyethylene glycol

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58
Q

Grade for one solid clump

A

4+

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59
Q

Questionable grade

A

1+

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60
Q

Antigen are found naturally occurring on particles

A

Direct agglutination

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61
Q

Test for typhoid fever

A

Widal test

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62
Q

Test for typhus fever

A

Weil felix

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63
Q

What causes typus fever

A

Rickettsia

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64
Q

Test for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

A

Cold agglutinin

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65
Q

Test for serotypes of salmonella

A

Kauffman and White

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66
Q

Hemagglutination

A

ABO blood group

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67
Q

Antigen are not normally found on their surfaces. Artificially attached to a carrier

A

Passive agglutination

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68
Q

Passive agglutination detects

A

Antibody

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69
Q

Antibody is attached to a carrier

A

Reverse passive agglutination

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70
Q

Reverse passive detects

A

Antigen

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71
Q

Used bacteria as the inert particle to whic antibody is attached

A

Coagglutination

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72
Q

Based on competition of particulate and soluble antigen for a limited antibody binding sites

A

Agglutination inhibition

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73
Q

Detects nonagglutinating antibody

A

Antiglobulin mediated antibody

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74
Q

Detect in vivo sensitization

A

Direct antiglobulin test

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75
Q

No incubation needed

A

DAT

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76
Q

In vitro sensitization

A

Indirect antiglobulin test

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77
Q

Incubation temperature for IAT

A

37C

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78
Q

Reaction wherein antigen activity is stopped by its specific antibody

A

Neutralization

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79
Q

A primary immunologic reaction

A

Labeled immunoassay

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80
Q

Designed for antigen and antibody that may be small in size or present in very low concentration

A

Labeled immunoassay

81
Q

All the reactants are mixed together simultaneously

A

Competitive assay

82
Q

Often called capture antibody

A

Noncompetitive assay

83
Q

Amount of label is directly proportional to the amount of patient antigen

A

Noncompetitive assay

84
Q

Label used in radioimmunoassay

A

Radioactive substance

85
Q

Most popular isotope

A

125I

86
Q

Radioimmunoassay is measured by

A

Scintillation counter

87
Q

Label used for enzyme immunoassay

A

Enzymes

88
Q

HPO

A

Horse raddish peroxidase

89
Q

HRP

A

Histidine rich protein

90
Q

Enzyme immunoassay that requires separation

A

Heterogeneous

91
Q

No separation step is necessary

A

Homogeneous EIA

92
Q

Other name of Noncompetitive EIA

A

Indirect ELISA

93
Q

Best suited to antigen that have multiple determinant

A

Capture assay

94
Q

Membrane based cassette assay

A

Rapid immunoassay

95
Q

Principle of rapid immunoassay

A

Immunochromatography

96
Q

Uses fluorescent compounds

A

Fluorescent immunoassay

97
Q

Most common fluorochrome

A

Fluorescein isothiocyanate

98
Q

Phycocyanin color

A

Red

99
Q

FITC color

A

Green

100
Q

Main disadvantage of immunofluorescent test

A

Quenching

101
Q

Test that involves antigen antibody reaction

A

Serologic test

102
Q

Used to detect unknown antigen using known antibody

A

Forward or direct

103
Q

Example of forward test

A

Red cell forward blood typing

104
Q

Used to detect known antigen using unknown antibody

A

Backward/indirect or reverse

105
Q

Physical inactivation of serum

A

Heat serum at 56C for 30mins

106
Q

Reinactivation of serum

A

Heat at 56C for 10mins

107
Q

Chemical inactivation of Serum

A

Add choline chloride

108
Q

Immunologic reaction wherein the combinations of antigen and antibody is not visible

A

Primary

109
Q

Immunologic reaction wherein Ab-Ag reaction is visible

A

Secondary

110
Q

Immunologically in vivo. Biologic reaction is detectable

A

Tertiary

111
Q

Type of antigen involve in precipitation reaction

A

Soluble antigen

112
Q

Where optimum precipitation occurs

A

Zone of equivalence

113
Q

The number of antigen and antibody is equal

A

Zone of equivalence

114
Q

Hypothesis made by Marrack that is based on the assumptions that each antibody molecule must have at least two binding sites, and antigen must be multivalent

A

Lattice hypothesis

115
Q

Many free antibody remains in the solution

A

Prozone

116
Q

Excess antigen

A

Postzone

117
Q

How to prevent prozone and postzone

A

Proper dilution

118
Q

Measure of the cloudiness of the solution

A

Turbidimetry

119
Q

Measures the light intensity due to reflection, absorption or scatter

A

Turbidimetry

120
Q

Measures light that passes through using spectrophotometer

A

Turbidimetry

121
Q

Measures the light that is scattered at a particular angle from the incident beam as it passes through a suspension

A

Nephelometry

122
Q

Measures scattered light

A

Nephelometry

123
Q

Helps to stabilize the diffusion process and allow visualization of the precipitin band

A

Agar and agarose

124
Q

No electrical current is used

A

Passive immunodiffusion

125
Q

The rate of diffusion is affected by the size of the particles, the temperature, the gel viscosity and the amount of hydration

A

Passive immunodiffusion

126
Q

Preferred to agar

A

Agarose

127
Q

Antibody was incorporated in a test tube

A

Oudin test

Single diffusion, single dimension

128
Q

End result of Oudin test

A

Precipitin line

129
Q

Single diffusion, double dimension modification of Oudin test

A

Radial immunodiffusion

130
Q

Antibody is uniformly distributed to the support gel, and antigen is applied to a well cut into the gel

A

Radial immunodiffusion

131
Q

End result of RID

A

Precipitin ring

132
Q

In this technique antigen is allowed to diffuse in completion, and when equivalence is reached, there is no further change in the ring diameter

A

Mancini or end point method

133
Q

Measurements are taken before the point of equivalence

A

Fahey and McKelvey or kinetic method

134
Q

Square of diameter is directly proportional to antigen concentration

A

End point method

135
Q

The diameter is proportional to the log of concentration

A

Kinetic method

136
Q

Both antigen and antibody diffuse independently through a semi solid medium in two dimensions

A

Ouchterlony double diffusion

137
Q

Smooth arc

A

Serological identity

138
Q

Spur

A

Partial identity

139
Q

Crossed lines

A

No identity

140
Q

Separates molecules according to differences in their electric charges when they are placed in an electric field

A

Electrophoresis

141
Q

Combination of RID and electrophoresis

A

Rocket immunoelectrophoresis
Laurel method
One dimension electroimmunodiffusion

142
Q

For the identification of monoclonal antibodies

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

143
Q

Double diffusion technique with electrophoresis

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

144
Q

More sensitive than immunoelectrophoresis

A

Immunofixation

145
Q

By grabar and williams

A

Immunoelectrophoresis

146
Q

By alper and johnson

A

Immunofixation

147
Q

In a precipitation reaction how can the ideal antibody be characterized

A

High affinity and avidity

148
Q

Type of antigen used in agglutination reaction

A

Particulate antigen

149
Q

Antibody that causes agglutination

A

Agglutinin

150
Q

Biggest immunoglobulin

A

IgM

151
Q

Non-agglutinating antibody

A

IgG

152
Q

Initial combination of antigen and antibody

A

Sensitization

153
Q

Formation of large aggregates

A

Lattice formation

154
Q

Decreases the buffer’s ionic strength

A

Low ionic strength saline

155
Q

Neutralizes the surface charge and allows red cell to approach each other closely

A

5-30% albumin

156
Q

What makes red cell negative charge

A

Sialic acid

157
Q

Reduces the water hydration around cells

A

Dextran

Polyethylene glycol

158
Q

Grade for one solid clump

A

4+

159
Q

Questionable grade

A

1+

160
Q

Antigen are found naturally occurring on particles

A

Direct agglutination

161
Q

Test for typhoid fever

A

Widal test

162
Q

Test for typhus fever

A

Weil felix

163
Q

What causes typus fever

A

Rickettsia

164
Q

Test for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection

A

Cold agglutinin

165
Q

Test for serotypes of salmonella

A

Kauffman and White

166
Q

Hemagglutination

A

ABO blood group

167
Q

Antigen are not normally found on their surfaces. Artificially attached to a carrier

A

Passive agglutination

168
Q

Passive agglutination detects

A

Antibody

169
Q

Antibody is attached to a carrier

A

Reverse passive agglutination

170
Q

Reverse passive detects

A

Antigen

171
Q

Used bacteria as the inert particle to whic antibody is attached

A

Coagglutination

172
Q

Based on competition of particulate and soluble antigen for a limited antibody binding sites

A

Agglutination inhibition

173
Q

Detects nonagglutinating antibody

A

Antiglobulin mediated antibody

174
Q

Detect in vivo sensitization

A

Direct antiglobulin test

175
Q

No incubation needed

A

DAT

176
Q

In vitro sensitization

A

Indirect antiglobulin test

177
Q

Incubation temperature for IAT

A

37C

178
Q

Reaction wherein antigen activity is stopped by its specific antibody

A

Neutralization

179
Q

A primary immunologic reaction

A

Labeled immunoassay

180
Q

Designed for antigen and antibody that may be small in size or present in very low concentration

A

Labeled immunoassay

181
Q

All the reactants are mixed together simultaneously

A

Competitive assay

182
Q

Often called capture antibody

A

Noncompetitive assay

183
Q

Amount of label is directly proportional to the amount of patient antigen

A

Noncompetitive assay

184
Q

Label used in radioimmunoassay

A

Radioactive substance

185
Q

Most popular isotope

A

125I

186
Q

Radioimmunoassay is measured by

A

Scintillation counter

187
Q

Label used for enzyme immunoassay

A

Enzymes

188
Q

HPO

A

Horse raddish peroxidase

189
Q

HRP

A

Histidine rich protein

190
Q

Enzyme immunoassay that requires separation

A

Heterogeneous

191
Q

No separation step is necessary

A

Homogeneous EIA

192
Q

Other name of Noncompetitive EIA

A

Indirect ELISA

193
Q

Best suited to antigen that have multiple determinant

A

Capture assay

194
Q

Membrane based cassette assay

A

Rapid immunoassay

195
Q

Principle of rapid immunoassay

A

Immunochromatography

196
Q

Uses fluorescent compounds

A

Fluorescent immunoassay

197
Q

Most common fluorochrome

A

Fluorescein isothiocyanate

198
Q

Phycocyanin color

A

Red

199
Q

FITC color

A

Green

200
Q

Main disadvantage of immunofluorescent test

A

Quenching