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Immunology And Serology > Cytokines, Complement, Immuno Disorders > Flashcards

Cytokines, Complement, Immuno Disorders Flashcards

0
Q

Regulates immune response

A

Cytokines

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1
Q

Small soluble proteins that regulate the immune system

A

Cytokines

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2
Q

Endogenous pyrogen and induces fever in the acute phase reactants. Produced by macrophages

A

Interleukin 1

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3
Q

Has cytotoxic activity against tumor cells and virally infected cells

A

Tumor necrosis factor - TNF

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4
Q

TNF that produced by macrophages. Also called cachetin

A

TNF alpha

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5
Q

TNf that produced by CD47 and CD8. Also called lymphotoxin

A

TNF beta

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6
Q

Stimulates B cells to proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells and induces CD4+ T cells to produce greater quantities of both pro and anti inflammatory cytokines

A

Interleukin 6

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7
Q

For activation and proliferation. Also known as T cell growth factor

A

Interleukin 2

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8
Q

Enhance motility and promote migration of many types of white blood cells

A

Chemokines

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9
Q

Acts as a control to help down-regulate the inflammatory response when no longer needed

A

Transforming growth factor

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10
Q

Proteins produced by virally infected cells and protect the neighboring cells

A

Interferon

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11
Q

Type of interferon that is associated with non specific immunity. Activates natural killer cells and enhanced the expression of MHC class 1 proteins, thus increasing the recognition and killing of virus infected cells

A

Type 1

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12
Q

Type 1 alpha and beta is secreted by?

A

Alpha-leukocytes

Beta-fibroblasts

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13
Q

Type of interferon that is associated with specific immunity

A

Type 2

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14
Q

IFN gamma is secreted by?

A

T cells

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15
Q

Released by platelet during coagulation. Action against gram positive bacteria

A

Beta lysin

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16
Q

Chemical name of beta lysin

A

3,6-diaminohexanoic acid

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17
Q

Increases cytolytic ability of natural killer cells. It also serves as an important link between the innate and adaptive immune responses by enhancing defenses against intracellular pathogens

A

Interleukin 12

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18
Q

Enhances the immune response in a number of key ways

A

IFN gamma

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19
Q

Enhanced activity of:
Cytotoxic T cells
Natural killer cells
Antigen presentation

A

T helper Cell 1 (Th1)

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20
Q 
Enhanced activity of:
Antibody formation
Allergic response
Antiparasite response
Antigen presentation
A

Th2 cell

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21
Q

Establishment of peripheral tolerance inhibition of:
Th1 cells
Th2 cells
Antigen presenting cells

A

Treg cells

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22
Q

Antibody responsible for immunoregulation

A

IgD

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23
Q

A substance that coats particle and makes them more susceptible to phagocytes

A

Opsonin

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24
Q

Most abundant complement protein

A

C3

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25
Q

Set of proteins that plays a role in cytolytic destruction of cellular antigens by specific antibody

A

Complement system

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26
Q

Complements the action of antibody in destroying microorganisms

A

Complement proteins

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27
Q

Initiates membrane attack complex

A

C5

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28
Q

Produced by intestinal epithelial cells

A

C1 components

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29
Q

Made in adipose tissue

A

Factor D

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30
Q

Heaviest trimolecular complex

A

C1

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31
Q

Main antibody-directed mechanism for triggering complement activation

A

Classical pathway

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32
Q

Initiated by antigen antibody reaction. Especially IgG and IgM

A

Classical pathway

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33
Q

Recognition unit of classical pathway

A

C1

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34
Q

Binds to FC region of IgM and IgG

A

C1q

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35
Q

Activation unit of classical pathway

A

C4, C2, C3

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36
Q

C3 convertase of classical pathway

A

C4b2a

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37
Q

Major constituent of the complement system.

Privotal point for all three pathways

A

C3

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38
Q

C5 convertase of classical pathway

A

C4b2a3b

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39
Q

Initiates membrane attack complex

A

C5

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40
Q

Membrane attack complex (MAC)

A

C5-C9

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41
Q

Magnesium dependent pathway

A

Alternative pathway

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42
Q

Stabilizes C3bBb-C3 convertase

A

Properdin

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43
Q

Also known as the by pass pathway

A

Alternative pathway

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44
Q

C3 convertase of alternative pathway

A

C3bBb3b

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45
Q

C5 convertase of alternative pathway

A

C3bBb3bP

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46
Q

Cleaves factor B

A

Factor D

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47
Q

Binds to C3b to form C3 convertase

A

Factor B

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48
Q

Binds to mannose or related sugars in a calcium dependent manner to initiate this pathway

A

Lectin lathway

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49
Q

Recognition unit of lectin pathway

A

MASP-1, 2, 3

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50
Q

Cleaves C4 and C2

A

MASP-2

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51
Q

Inhibits activation at the first stages of both classical and lectin pathways. It inactivates C1 by binding to active site of C1r and C1s

A

C1 inhibitor

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52
Q

Inactivates or cleaves C3b and C4b

A

Factor I

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53
Q

Complement protein that competes with factor B. Prevents binding of B to C3b

A

Factor H

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54
Q

acts as cofactor with I to inactivate C4b

A

C4 binding protein

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55
Q

Prevents attachment of the C5b67 complex to all cell membranes

A

S protein or vitronectin

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56
Q

Most common complement deficiency

A

C2 complement deficiency

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57
Q

Red blood cells that are deficient in DAF

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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58
Q

Deficiency or lack of C1INH

A

Hereditary angioedema

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59
Q

Prevents insertion of C9 into cell membrane

A

MIRL or CD59

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60
Q

Measures the total complement activity

A

CH50 assay

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61
Q

Tests use complement as a reagent to detect the presence of antigen or antibody

A

Complement fixation

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62
Q

Initial force of attraction between single FAB and single epitope

A

Affinity

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63
Q

Sum of all attractive forces between an antigen and an antibody

A

Avidity

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64
Q

How body recognizes and defend itself from foreign antigen

A

Immune response

65
Q

Presence of immune response. Production of antibody

A

Log phase

66
Q

Antibody production is equivalent to antibody degradation

A

Stationary

67
Q

No immune response. Absence of antibody production

A

Lag phase

68
Q

Antibody destruction is greater than antibody production

A

Decline phase

69
Q

Type of immune response wherein there is longer lag, lower antibody. Presence of IgM

A

Primary response or first exposure

70
Q

Shorter lag, higher antibody, IgG

A

Secondary exposure or subsequent exposure

71
Q

Heightened state of immune responsiveness

A

Hypersensitivity

72
Q

Exaggerated response to a harmless antigen that results in injury

A

Hypersensitivity

73
Q

Cell bound antibody reacts with antigen to release physiologically active substances

A

Type 1 reactions

74
Q

Sensitized T cells rather than antibody are responsible for the symptoms that develop

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

75
Q

Antibody reacts with soluble antigen to form complexes that precipitate in the tissues

A

Type III hypersensitivity

76
Q

Free antibody reacts with antigen associated with cell surfaces

A

Type II hypersensitivity

77
Q

Inherited tendency to respond to naturally occurring inhaled and ingested allergens with continued production of IgE

A

Atopy

78
Q

Antigen that triggers formation of IgE

A

Allergen

79
Q

Immune mediator of type I

A

IgE

80
Q

Most severe type off allergic response

A

Anaphylaxis

81
Q

Most common form of atopy or allergy

A

Rhinitis

82
Q

Recurrent airflow obstruction that leads to intermittent sneezing, breathlessness

A

Asthma

83
Q

Small amount of antigen is injected

A

Cutaneous or prick test

84
Q

Uses greater amount of antigen

More sensitive

A

Intradermal test

85
Q

Principle of RIST and RAST

A

Competitive immunoassay

86
Q

Measures total IgE

A

Radioimmunosorbent test RIST

87
Q

Measures allergen specific IgE

A

Radioallergosorbent test RAST

88
Q

Immune mediator of type II

A

IgG

89
Q

Free antibody will bind to an antigen

A

Type II hypersensitivity

90
Q

Clinical manifestation associated with type II

A

Transfusion reaction
Hemolytic disease of the newborn
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

91
Q

Associated with free antibody that attached to soluble antigens

A

Type III HYPERSENSITIVITY

92
Q

Type III will cause immune complex or antigen antibody complex that can lead to?

A

Precipitation

93
Q

Clinical manifestation of type III

A

Arthus reaction
Serum sickness
Autoimmune disorders

94
Q

Localized type III reaction

A

Arthus reaction

95
Q

Generalized type III reaction. Results from passive immunization with animal serum

A

Serum sickness

96
Q

Chronic or delayed sensitivity.

Most significant

A

Type IV

97
Q

Type IV immune mediator

A

T cells

98
Q

Clinical manifestation of type IV

A

Contact dermatitis
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Tuberculin type sensitivity

99
Q

Most common causes of contact dermatitis

A

Poison ivy, poison oak and poison sumac

100
Q

Gold standard for contact dermatitis

A

Patch test

101
Q

Condition in which damages to organs or tissues results from the presence of autoantibody or autoreactive cells

A

Autoimmune disease

102
Q

Horror autotoxicus

A

Autoimmune disorder

103
Q

Individual viral or bacterial agents contains antigen that closely resemble self antigen

A

Molecular mimicry

104
Q

Poliovirus VP2

A

Acethylcholine

105
Q

Measles virus

A

Myelin basic protein

106
Q

Papilloma virus E2

A

Insulin receptor

107
Q

Manifests itself by skin lesions

A

SLE

108
Q

Diagnostic feature of SLE

A

Butterfly rash

109
Q

First clue in the mystery of lupus. A neutrophil that has engulfed the antibody coated nucleus of another neutrophil

A

LE CElls

110
Q

Extractable nuclear antigen

A

Anti-Sm

111
Q

Commonly used. Positive in about 95% of patients with lupus.

A

Fluorescent antinuclear antibody

112
Q

Principle behind FANA

A

Indirect immuno fluorescent

113
Q

Staining of the entire nucleus

A

Homogenous

114
Q

Staining throughout the nucleus

A

Speckled pattern

115
Q

Staining of the nucleolus

A

Nucleolar pattern

116
Q

Antibody most specific for SLE? Staining pattern?

A

Anti-DS DNA

Homogenous

117
Q

Detected in almost all patients with drug induced lupus. Nonspecific

A

Anti histone antibody

118
Q

Specific for lupus. Produces coarsely speckled pattern of nuclear fluorescent

A

Anti Sm antibody

119
Q

Autoimmune disease causing chronic inflammatory on joints and periarticular tissue

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

120
Q

Non specific marker of RA

A

Rheumatoid factor

121
Q

Specific marker for RA

A

Anti cyclic citrulinated peptide

122
Q

IgM class directed against the Fc portion of the IgG

A

Rheumatoid factor

123
Q

Antibody present in the Grave’s disease

A

Anti thyroglobulin antibody

124
Q

Organ specific condition

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis

125
Q

Immunoglobulin class associated with hyperviscosity syndrome

A

IgM

126
Q

Common leukocyte antigen

A

CD45

127
Q

Predominant protein seen in plasma dyscrasias

A

M protein

128
Q

Substance releases by mast cell that initiates allergic reaction

A

Histamine

129
Q

Classical marker for hodgkin lymphoma

A

Reed Sternberg cells

130
Q

Due to the infiltration of the malignant cells into the bone marrow, the spleen, and the lymph nodes. With the overproduction of monoclonal IgM

A

Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia

131
Q

Coagulation temperature of bence jones protein

A

40-60C

132
Q

Test used to identify hairy cell leukemia

A

Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase

133
Q

Free immunoglobulin seen in the urine of person with multiple myeloma

A

Bence jones protein

134
Q

Precipitate at cold temperature and can occlude small vessels in the extremities in cold weather

A

Cryoglobulin

135
Q

CD markers of B cells

A

CD19, CD20, Cd22

136
Q

CD markers of T cells

A

CD2, CD3, CD5, CD7

137
Q

CD markers of NK cells

A

CD16, CD56, CD57

138
Q

Increase in the production of lymphocyte

A

Immunoproliferative disease

139
Q

Malignant cells arise from the secondary lymphoid tissue

A

Lymphomas

140
Q

Virus in Hodgkin lymphomas

A

Epstein barr virus

141
Q

CD20 positive

A

Nodular lymphocyte predominant HL

142
Q

CD15 CD30 positive

A

Classic hodgkin lymphoma

143
Q

Four classification of classic HL

A

Lymphocyte rich HL
Lymphocyte depleted HL
Mixed cellularity HL
Nodular sclerosis HL

144
Q

Malignant cells arise from the bone marrow

A

Leukemia

145
Q

Characterized by the presence of very poorly differentiated precursor cells in the bone marrow and peripheral blood

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia

146
Q

Slow progressive disease characterized by the infiltration of the bone marrow by leukemic cells. Irregular hairy appearance

A

Hair cell leukemia

147
Q

Overproduction of single immunoglobulin components called a myeloma protein

A

Plasma cell dyscrasias

148
Q

Malignancy of mature plasma cell

A

Multiple myeloma

149
Q

Deficiencies of immunoglobulin

A

Agammaglobulinemias

150
Q

Deficiency in all antibodies, especially IgG

A

Transient hypogammaglonulinemia of infancy

151
Q

beginning of antibody production?

A

4-6mos old

152
Q

All antibody isotypes are reduced. Common among males.

A

X-linked agammaglobulinemia or Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

153
Q

Most common congenital immunodeficiency

A

IgA deficiency

154
Q

Developmental abnormality of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches that affects thymic development

A

DiGeorge anomaly

155
Q

Rare autosomal recessive trait. Affects an enzyme involved in the metabolism of purines.

A

Purine nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency

156
Q

Most serious of the congenital immune deficiencies. Affect all T and B cells

A

Severe combined immunodeficiency SCID

157
Q

Defined by the triad of immunodeficiency, eczema, and thrombocytopenia

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

158
Q

Problem of the blood vessels

A

Ataxia-Telangiectasia

159
Q

Automated system in which single cells in a fluid suspension are analyzed in terms of their intrinsic light scattering characteristics and are simultaneously evaluated for extrinsic properties using fluorescent labeled antibodies or probes

A

Cell flow cytometry

160
Q

Major components of flow cytometer

A 
Fluidics
Laser light source
Optics
Photodetector 
Computer

Immunology And Serology (5 decks)

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