Sense Organs Flashcards

1
Q

List the 4 senses

A

Hearing, Sight, Smell, Taste

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2
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the ear?

A

The 8th cranial nerve - Vestibulocochlear nerve

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3
Q

Anatomically the ear can be divided into 3 parts. Name them.

A

Outer, middle, inner

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4
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the ear / hearing?

A

Nerve 8 - Vestibulocochlear nerve

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5
Q

Which structure connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?

A

The eustachian tube (or ‘pharyngotympanic tube’)

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6
Q

Name the 3 bones found in the middle ear.

A
  1. Malleus (hammer)
  2. Incus (anvil)
  3. Stapes (stirrup)
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7
Q

What is the auricle, or pinna?

A

The outermost structure of the ear.

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8
Q

What is the role of the auricle/pinna?

A

It traps and directs sound waves into the external auditory canal

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9
Q

What is the tympanic membrane?

A

A thin, semi-transparent membrane between the external auditory canal and the middle ear. Also known as the ear drum.

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10
Q

What is the role of the tympanic membrane?

A

It converts sound waves into mechanical vibrations.

It transmits sound waves from outside the ear, to the auditory ossicles.

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11
Q

What are the auditory ossicles?

A

The 3 tiny bones found in the middle ear (the 3 smallest bones in the body)

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12
Q

Where in the ear structure would you find the tympanic membrane (ear drum)?

A

In the outer ear

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13
Q

List the 3 components of the outer ear.

A
  1. Auricle/pinna
  2. External auditory canal
  3. Tympanic membrane (ear drum)
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14
Q

Define the ‘middle ear’

A

A small air-filled cavity in the temporal bone which contains the auditory ossicles.

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15
Q

What is the role of the auditory ossicles?

A

They transmit sound (in the form of vibration) from the tympanic membrane to the cochlea.

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16
Q

How/where does stapes connect to the cochlea?

A

At the oval window

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17
Q

In terms of the structure of the ear, what is the oval window?

A

The point at which stapes (the 3rd auditory ossicle) meets the cochlea.

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18
Q

What is the name of the small muscle in the middle ear which dampens large vibrations (protecting the oval window) and is innervated by the facial nerve?

A

Stapedius

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19
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the stapedius muscle?

A

The facial nerve

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20
Q

Why might a patient with Bell’s Palsy experience hearing/auditory symptoms?

A

Because Bell’s Palsy affects the facial nerve, which is the nerve that innervates the stapedius muscle (which dampens large sound vibrations, thus producing clear hearing)

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21
Q

What is the inner ear also known as (because of its complicated series of canals) ?

A

The labyrinth

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22
Q

The inner ear consists of an outer bony labyrinth that encloses an inner ________ labyrinth.

A

Membranous

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23
Q

The bony labyrinth (inner ear) consists of 3 parts. Name them.

A
  1. Three semicircular canals
  2. Vestibule
  3. Cochlea
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24
Q

Which parts of the inner ear have receptors for balance?

A

The semicircular canals and vestibule

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25
Q

Which part of the inner ear has receptors for hearing?

A

The cochlea (snail shell!)

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26
Q

The labyrinth contains 2 types of fluid. Name them.

A

The perilymph and endolymph

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27
Q

Where would you find the perilymph and endolymph?

A

In the inner ear / labyrinth

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28
Q

Which part of the ear provides information on balance and hearing?

A

The inner ear

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29
Q

Which ear structure sits anterior to the vestibule and is a spiralled, hollow chamber that makes almost 3 turns around a central bony core?

A

The cochlea

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30
Q

What are stereocilia?

A

Sensory cells in the inner ear, which are topped with 40 - 80 cilia each.

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31
Q

What is the name given to the receptor cells for hearing, which extend into the endolymph?

A

Stereocilia

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32
Q

What initiates a nerve impulse / action potential from the inner ear?

A

The movement of stereocilia in endolymph fluid, caused by vibration

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33
Q

What can kill stereocilia?

A

Strong movement of endolymph fluid (very loud noise)

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34
Q

Name cranial nerve 8

A

Vestibulocochlear nerve

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35
Q

What is the role of cranial nerve 8, the Vestibulocochlear nerve?

A

It provides sensory information for hearing and balance.

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36
Q

Is the Vestibulocochlear nerve sensory, motor or both?

A

Sensory

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37
Q

The vestibulocochlear nerve contains 2 parts: _________ fibres and _______ fibres

A

Vestibular fibres and cochlear fibres

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38
Q

Where are the ganglia of the vestibulocochlear nerve located (where does it feed into / originate from)?

A

The brainstem (between the pons and medulla oblongata)

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39
Q

List the 4 stages of sound sensation.

A

Sound waves > Mechanical vibration > Fluid waves > Nerve Impulse

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40
Q

What are sound waves?

A

Vibrations in the air

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41
Q

What causes fluid waves in the cochlear perilymph?

A

The footplate of stapes rocking at the oval window.

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42
Q

The vestibulocochlear nerve transmits nerve impulses to the hearing area in the _______ (area of the brain) where sound is perceived.

A

Cerebrum

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43
Q

Define ‘pitch’

A

The frequency of sound waves

the higher the frequency of vibration, the higher the pitch

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44
Q

Define ‘volume’

A

The amplitude of sound waves

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45
Q

What is pitch measured in?

A

Hertz (Hz)

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46
Q

What is volume measured in?

A

Decibels (Db)

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47
Q

Prolonged noise above ____ Db can result in permanent hearing loss. An example of this would be a lawnmower.

A

90 decibels

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48
Q

Define ‘white noise’

A

A constant noise that contains all the different frequencies of sound / a mixture of different sound waves.

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49
Q

What is the name given to a background noise that the brain ignores?

A

White noise

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50
Q

What is white noise used for?

A

To mask other sounds

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51
Q

The eustachian tube connects the nasopharynx to the _____ ear.

A

Middle ear

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52
Q

Why is the eustachian tube a common route for middle ear infection?
In which population is this more common and why?

A

Because it also functions to drain mucus.
More common in children because their eustachian tube is more horizontal (and so less effective at draining mucus away from the ears).

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53
Q

Which structure can open in order for air to equalise pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere?

A

The eustachian tube.

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54
Q

Which 2 structures in the ear specifically provide information about head position?

A

The semi-circular canals and vestibule.

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55
Q

The walls of the vestibule and semi-circular canals contain specialised hair cells with ________

A

Stereocilia

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56
Q

What is the otolithic membrane?

A

A fibrous, gelatinous structure located in the vestibular system of the inner ear, in which the hairs of stereocilia are floating.

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57
Q

Where would you find the otolithic membrane?

A

In the vestibular system of the inner ear

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58
Q

Is the otolithic membrane involved in hearing or balance?

A

Balance

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59
Q

A dense layer of ________ _________ crystals extends over and rests on the otolithic membrane.

A

Calcium carbonate crystals

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60
Q

What type of crystals would you find in the inner ear?

A

Calcium carbonate crystals.

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61
Q

Any change in _____ position causes movement in the perilymph and endolymph, bending hair cells and stimulating sensory nerve endings.

A

Head position

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62
Q

Which part of the brain interprets and makes postural changes in order to maintain balance?

A

The cerebellum

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63
Q

Which 3 sources of information does the cerebellum need in order to maintain physical balance of the body?

A
  1. Vestibular feedback (from the inner ear)
  2. Visual feedback (from the eyes)
  3. Proprioception (from the muscles, joints and ligaments)
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64
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the eye?

A

The optic nerve (cranial nerve 2)

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65
Q

Name the 3 layers of the eyeball.

A
  1. Sclera & cornea (outer layer)
  2. Uvea (middle layer)
  3. Retina (Inner layer)
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66
Q

What is the sclera?

A

The white of the eye

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67
Q

The middle layer of the eye is called the Uvea and consists of 3 parts. Name them.

A
  1. Iris
  2. Ciliary body
  3. Choroid
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68
Q

What is the function of the iris?

A

It controls the amount of light reaching the retina, by adjusting pupil size

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69
Q

Where in the eye is the lens located?

A

Behind the pupil

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70
Q

What is the role of the lens?

A

To further focus light (along with the cornea)

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71
Q

List 3 accessory organs that function to protect the eye.

A
  1. Eyebrows - prevent sweat entering the eye
  2. Eyelids - spread secretions over the eye
  3. Conjunctiva - Thin membrane, protects the cornea
72
Q

What is the conjunctiva?

A

A thin, transparent membrane lining the internal eyelids and anterior eyeball, which protects the cornea.

73
Q

What is the role of the lacrimal apparatus?

A

Production of tears

74
Q

Why is blinking important?

A

It spreads tears across the eye and closing the eyelids protects the eye from injury.

75
Q

Why are tears essential?

A

They protect the eye from infection (they contain IgA) and lubricate the eye’s movement.

76
Q

Which cranial nerve controls the secretion of tears?

A

Trigeminal nerve (CN5)

77
Q

How do tears contribute to immunity?

A

They contain IgA and lysozymes. They also have an emotional function.

78
Q

What does the lacrimal gland do?

A

Produces tears

79
Q

How do tears move across the eye?

A

Tears are produced by the lacrimal gland and swept across the eye by blinking. They enter the lacrimal punctum and then drain down the nose via the nasolacrimal duct.

80
Q

What is the lacrimal punctum?

A

The small fleshy part in the inner corner of the eyes. Tears enter the lacrimal punctum then are drained down the nose via the nasolacrimal duct.

81
Q

To achieve clear vision, light must be focused on the retina. This involves:

  1. __________ of the light rays
  2. __________ of the eyes
  3. Changing the ______ of the pupils
A
  1. Refraction of the light rays
  2. Accommodation of the eyes
  3. Changing the size of the pupils
82
Q

Light is part of the ________ spectrum.

A

Electromagnetic

83
Q

What is refraction?

A

The bending of light rays

84
Q

When does refraction occur?

A

When light moves from one substance to another with a different density.

85
Q

The _______ and ______ refract light rays, helping to focus the image on the retina.

A

Cornea and lens

86
Q

What is ‘accommodation’ of the eyes?

A

When the lens curvature becomes greater, to increase its focusing power.

87
Q

When the curvature on the lens becomes greater, its focusing power ________.

A

Increases

88
Q

Which muscle contracts to make the lens more convex (increasing refraction and therefore focusing power)?

A

The ciliary muscle

89
Q

Which muscle is associated with accommodation of the eye?

A

The ciliary muscle

90
Q

Why does looking at objects close up tire the eyes?

A

Because close objects require more focusing power from the lens, which in turn requires the ciliary muscle to contract. Lots of ciliary muscle contraction = tired eyes.

91
Q

In relation to the iris:

Sympathetic stimulation contracts the ______ muscle fibres to ______ the pupils.

A

Radial muscles, dilate the pupils

92
Q

Pupil size is dictated by the contraction of muscles in the ______

A

Iris

93
Q

There are 2 types of muscle in the iris, which function to adjust pupil size. Name them.

A
  1. Circular muscle (innermost) - constricts pupils

2. Radial muscles (outer) - dilates pupils

94
Q

Define eyeball convergence

A

The movement of the 2 eyeballs so that both are directed towards the same object.

95
Q

If eyeball convergence is not complete, two different images are sent to the brain leading to ______ vision (also known as _____)

A

Double vision (diplopia)

96
Q

In humans, both eyes focus on one object, which allows for the perception of ______ and ____ nature.
This is called ________ vision.

A

Depth and 3D nature.

Binocular vision.

97
Q

What is the optic chiasma?

A

The point at which the optic nerve crosses over in the brain.

98
Q

The two images from the two eyes are fused in the ______ area of the brain, so that only one image is perceived.

A

Cerebrum

99
Q

What is the optic chiasma located next to in the brain?

A

The pituitary gland.

100
Q

Why can pituitary tumours often cause double vision?

A

Because the pituitary gland sits right next to the optic chiasma (the point at which the optic nerve crosses over in the brain and 2 images from 2 eyes becomes one single perceived image).

101
Q

What is the retina?

A

The inner layer of the eye.

102
Q

What lines the posterior three-quarters of the eyeball?

A

The retina

103
Q

The retina can be viewed using which medical instrument?

A

An opthalmoscope

104
Q

Which part of the eye is the only place in the body where blood vessels and a nerve can be seen?

A

The retina

105
Q

What is the optic disc?

A

The location where the optic nerve exits the eyeball.

106
Q

Which structure exits the eyeball at the optic disc?

A

The optic nerve

107
Q

Where is the ‘blind spot’?

A

At the point of the optic disc.

108
Q

Describe the anatomy of the retina

A

It contains a pigmented layer of melanin-containing epithelial cells, and a layer of photoreceptors.

109
Q

What are photoreceptors and where are they found?

A

Specialised visual cells. Found in the retina.

110
Q

Do our eyes contain more rod cells or cone cells?

A

Rod cells - around 120 million

Cone cells - around 6 million

111
Q

Which cells allow us to see in dim light?

A

Rod cells

112
Q

Which cells provide vision in black, white and greyscale?

A

Rod cells

113
Q

Which cells allow us to see in colour?

A

Cone cells

114
Q

Name the 3 types/colours of cone cell.

A

Blue, red and green

115
Q

Why is the optic disc also called the blind spot?

A

Because it doesn’t contain any rod or cone cells.

116
Q

What is the macula lutea?

A

A yellowish spot at the exact centre of the retina.

117
Q

What is the name given to the yellowish spot at the exact centre of the retina?

A

The macula lutea

118
Q

What is the fovea centralis?

A

A small depression in the centre of the macula lutea that contains only cone cells.

119
Q

Where in the eye would you find an area that only contains cone cells?

A

The fovea centralis, at the centre of the macula lutea.

120
Q

What is special about the fovea centralis?

A

It is the area of the highest visual acuity.

121
Q

Which part of the eye is the area of highest visual acuity?

A

The fovea centralis

122
Q

Why do we move our eyes and head when trying to focus on something?

A

Because we need the light to hit the fovea centralis on the retina, which is the point of highest visual acuity.

123
Q

Are rod or cone cells more plentiful at the periphery of the retina?

A

Rod cells

124
Q

What are photo-pigments?

A

Transmembrane proteins found within the discs of rod and cone cells.

125
Q

Where would you find photo-pigments?

A

Within the cell membrane of rod and cone cells (photo-pigments are transmembrane proteins)

126
Q

When light hits a photo-pigment it changes shape, initiating an ____ ______

A

Action potential

127
Q

Which substance are photo-pigments (transmembrane proteins) derived from?

A

Vitamin A

128
Q

Why is vitamin A so important for vision?

A

Because photo-pigments within the cell membranes of red and cone cells are derived from vitamin A.

129
Q

Which layer of the eye stores a large quantity of vitamin A?

A

The retina

130
Q

Why is there a large quantity of vitamin A stored in the retina?

A

Because vitamin A is needed to regenerate the photo-pigments within rod cells.

131
Q

Vitamin A derivatives are called _______

A

Retinoids

132
Q

What are retinoids?

A

Vitamin A derivatives

133
Q

In the retina, vitamin A in the form of ________ binds to a protein called opsin, to produce photopigments.

A

Retinal

134
Q

What is the name of the protein that binds to retinal (vitamin A) in the retina, to produce photo-pigments?

A

Opsin

135
Q

Photo-pigments are produced in rod and cone cells when _____ binds to _____.

A

Retinal binds to opsin

136
Q

_________ are precursors of Vitamin A.

A

Carotenoids

137
Q

Where in the body are carotenoids metabolised to retinol?

A

In the intestines

138
Q

Nutritionally, where would you find pre-formed vitamin A?

A

In animal foods such as liver and egg yolk.

139
Q

Name 3 food sources of carotenoids / carotenes.

A
  1. Carrots
  2. Sweet potato
  3. Squash
  4. Mango
  5. Leafy greens
140
Q

Why does ingested pre-formed vitamin A come with a risk of toxicity?

A

Because too much vitamin A is toxic and eating it in pre-formed form means that your body can’t decide how much to convert into the active form itself (absorption is unregulated).

141
Q

Which cells are able to regenerate their photo-pigments quicker - rod cells or cone cells?

A

Cone cells regenerate quicker.

142
Q

What is olfaction?

A

The sense of smell.

143
Q

What is the olfactory epithelium?

A

The area within the nose that contains the receptors for olfaction (smell).

144
Q

Name the 2 ‘chemical senses’.

A

Taste and smell

145
Q

Why are taste and smell known as the ‘chemical senses’?

A

Because they arise from interaction with molecules.

146
Q

The olfactory epithelium within the nose contains 3 things. Name them.

A
  1. Olfactory receptors
  2. Supporting cells
  3. Basal cells
147
Q

Olfactory receptors are produced from ______ cells, which are stem cells that continually divide.

A

Basal cells

148
Q

Describe olfactory receptors.

A

Neurons attached to olfactory hairs, found in the olfactory epithelium within the nose. They respond to the chemical stimulus of odourants by producing an action potential.

149
Q

Which structure produces nasal mucus?

A

Olfactory glands (within the connective tissue supporting the olfactory epithelium) produce mucus.

150
Q

Name a pathology that inhibits olfaction and describe why.

A

Rhinitis. Because it causes inflammation of the nasal mucosa, which inhibits olfaction.

151
Q

Which cranial nerve is involved in sense of smell?

A

Olfactory nerve (CN1)

152
Q

Why is there a link between smells and emotions?

A

Because some of the axons of the olfactory tract project into the limbic system.

153
Q

In smell sensation, nerve axons extend through about 20 olfactory _______ in the __________ plate of the ethmoid bone to the ________ lobe.

A

Olfactory foramina
Cribriform plate
Temporal lobe

154
Q

What is gustation?

A

Taste

155
Q

How many muscles is the tongue formed of?

A

8

156
Q

The 8 muscles of the tongue are innervated by which cranial nerve?

A

Hypoglossal nerve (CN7)

157
Q

Where are taste buds found?

A

Mostly on the tongue, but also on the soft palate, pharynx and epiglottis.

158
Q

What is the role of gustatory receptor cells?

A

Taste detection

159
Q

Describe the physiology of taste.

A

The stimulation of chemoreceptors by dissolved chemicals in saliva.

160
Q

Taste buds contain 3 types of cells. Name them.

A
  1. Gustatory receptor cells
  2. Basal cells (stem cells)
  3. Supporting cells
161
Q

How long do gustatory receptor cells live?

A

About 10 days

162
Q

What are papillae?

A

Elevations on the tongue that contain taste buds and help the tongue move food.

163
Q

List the 2 functions of papillae.

A
  1. Taste

2. Movement of food

164
Q

List the 3 types of papillae involved in taste.

A
  1. Circumvallate papillae
  2. Fungiform papillae
  3. Foliate papillae
165
Q

Name the type of papillae that help the tongue move food.

A

Filiform papillae

166
Q

Why is taste impaired when the mouth is dry?

A

Because saliva is needed to dissolve the taste molecules and help them reach the cell membranes of gustatory receptor cells.

167
Q

We can only detect 5 tastes. What are they?

A
  • Sweet
  • Salty
  • Sour
  • Bitter
  • Umami
168
Q

Describe the physiology of taste

A

Tastants dissolved in saliva > encounter the cell membrane of gustatory hairs > generates an action potential.

169
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

A

Facial nerve

170
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates taste and general sensation in the posterior third of the tongue?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

171
Q

Which 2 cranial nerves innervate taste in the tongue?

A

Facial nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve

172
Q

Which 2 cranial nerves innervate general sensation in the tongue?

A

Trigeminal nerve and glossopharyngeal nerve

173
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the throat and epiglottis?

A

Vagus nerve

174
Q

Why are particular tastes sometimes associated with particular emotions?

A

Because some of the nerve fibres associated with gustation go into the limbic system.

175
Q

Where (in the brain) is taste processed?

A

The gustatory nucleus in the medulla oblongata