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Em Year 1 Biomed, Semester 1 > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 2 ways in which infectious diseases can be transmitted.

A
  1. Direct contact (i.e, hand to hand touching)

2. Indirect contact (i.e, hand, to a surface, to a person)

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2
Q

List 5 infectious agents

A
  1. Bacteria
  2. Viruses
  3. Fungi
  4. Protozoa
  5. Parasites
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3
Q

Diseases may be caused by micro-organisms (microbes) or ______ _______ organisms.

A

Multi-cellular organisms

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4
Q

Name an infection caused by protozoa

A
  • Malaria

- Dysentary

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5
Q

Why do infectious agents always try to create a colony?

A

Because in doing this they have more chance to overcome your immune system

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6
Q

Why are bacteria very good at replicating at speed and creating colonies in a very short space of time?

A

Because are very basic / simple organisms with very few cell structures.

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7
Q

Microbes can be _______ or non- _______

A

Pathogenic or non-pathogenic

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8
Q

What does pathogenic mean?

A

Disease causing

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9
Q

Many microbes are symbiotic. What does this mean?

A

They live together, at no detriment to either of them.

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10
Q

There are ____ times as many bacterial cells as human cells in the body.

A

10 times

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11
Q

What are pathogens?

A

Disease-causing microbes / infectious agents.

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12
Q

Describe a commensal relationship.

A

A symbiotic relationship between organisms whereby one benefits (i.e, gets nutrients), and the other is unaffected.

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13
Q

Where in the body might we have a commensal relationship with bacteria?

A

On the skin, in the intestines.

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14
Q

Name an organism that is usually commensal but can very easily become opportunistic (pathogenic).

A

Candida

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15
Q

Describe a mutualistic relationship.

A

A symbiotic relationship between organisms whereby both benefit.

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16
Q

Give an example of a mutualistic relationship

A

E.coli in the intestines gets nutrients and an attachment point, but makes vitamin K for us

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17
Q

Name a type of bacteria that helps makes vitamin K for us in the intestines.

A

E.coli

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18
Q

Name a bacteria that is usually mutualistic in the gut but is pathogenic if found in the reproductive system.

A

E.coli

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19
Q

Describe a parasitic relationship.

A

A symbiotic relationship between organisms whereby one benefits at the other’s expense.

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20
Q

Give an example of a parasitic relationship

A

Head lice, intestinal worms.

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21
Q

Describe an opportunistic relationship.

A

A symbiotic relationship between organisms which is initially commensal or mutualistic but then becomes pathogenic (i.e, candida)

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22
Q

What does symbiotic mean?

A

A relationship between organisms

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23
Q

What is significant about Anton van Leeuwenhoek?

A

He invested the microscope (in the 1670’s) and started to document microbes.

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24
Q

What did Dr Semmelweis discover in 1847?

A

That washing hands reduced disease spread in hospitals (maternity care).

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25
Q

Who discovered antibiotics in the 1900’s?

A

Alexander Fleming

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26
Q

Who came up with Germ Theory?

A

Louis Pasteur

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27
Q

What is Louis Pasteur famous for?

A

Germ theory and inventing the process of pasteurisation

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28
Q

Explain the ‘germ theory’ of disease

A

Germ theory states that all germs are bad and cause disease.

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29
Q

Who came up with Terrain Theory?

A

Antoine Bechamp

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30
Q

Explain the ‘terrain theory’ of disease

A

Terrain theory states that germs are opportunistic in nature and live with us symbiotically, not always becoming pathogenic.

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31
Q

Which theory of disease advocates not to kill germs but to promote health (i.e, through diet and exercise), to prevent illness?

A

Terrain theory

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32
Q

Which theory of disease states that the only way to prevent illness is to kill all germs?

A

Germ theory

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33
Q

Describe pasteurisation.

A

A process whereby a substance (i.e, milk) is rapidly heated to a high temperature to kill any microbes.

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34
Q

Describe why pasteurisation could be responsible for the rates of lactose intolerance that we see in society today?

A

Because the process of rapidly heating the milk to kill microbes also damages / kills the enzyme lactase. It can also kill the nutrients.

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35
Q

Most whole, micro-organisms can been seen with a ______ microscope.

A

Light microscope

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36
Q

Name a type of organism that is too small to be seen under a light microscope, and name the more advanced laboratory equipment used instead to view it.

A

Viruses are too small to be seen under a light microscope. Instead, an electron microscope is used.

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37
Q

Name a type of organism that requires an electron microscope to be seen.

A

Viruses

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38
Q

Are bacteria prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

A

Bacteria are prokaryotic cells.

This means the cell structure is very simple - they have no nucleus or membrane-bound organelles.

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39
Q

Do bacteria have DNA?

A

Yes, Bacteria have a single loop of DNA.

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40
Q

Name a cell organelle that bacteria have.

A

Ribosomes

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41
Q

What is the name given to rod-shaped bacteria?

A

Bacilli

i.e, E.Coli

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42
Q

What is the name given to round-shaped bacteria?

A

Cocci

i.e, streptococci

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43
Q

What are spirochetes?

A

Bacteria that are spiral-shaped

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44
Q

Bacteria have one of 2 types of cell wall, which can be identified via a process called _____ staining.

A

Gram staining

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45
Q

What is the purpose of gram staining?

A

To identify what type of cell wall a bacteria has.

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46
Q

Which type of bacteria stain purple with Gram’s method?

A

Gram positive bacteria (thick cell wall)

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47
Q

Which type of bacteria stain pink with Gram’s method?

A

Gram negative bacteria (thin cell wall)

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48
Q

Describe the difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria.

A

Gram positive bacteria have a thick cell wall and stain purple with Gram’s method. They are made up of peptidoglycans (proteins & carbohydrates).

Gram negative bacteria have a thin cell wall and stain pink with Gram’s method. They are made up of lipopolysaccharides (LPS - fats & carbohydrates).

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49
Q

When Gram ______ bacteria die they can release ______ from their cell wall which can cause harmful effects in the body.

A

Gram negative bacteria

Can release lipopolysaccharides (LPS)

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50
Q

Which type of bacteria can release LPS from their cell wall when they die?

A

Gram negative bacteria

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51
Q

By which process to bacteria reproduce / grow / multiply?

A

Binary fission (asexual)

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52
Q

How quickly can the bacteria E.Coli divide and replicate?

A

Within 20 minutes.

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53
Q

What are spores?

A

Live structures (‘coats’) around bacteria, created to protect them from harsh environments.

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54
Q

Spores form part of the life cycles of which 3 infectious agents / micro-organisms?

A

Bacteria, fungi, protozoa

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55
Q

_______ are a dormant life form that serve to protect several micro-organisms from harsh environments.

A

Spores

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56
Q

Bacteria exert their harmful effects by releasing one of two toxins. Name these two toxins.

A
  1. Endotoxins

2. Exotoxins

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57
Q

Which micro-organism releases endotoxins or exotoxins, and invasive enzymes?

A

Bacteria

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58
Q

What are invasive enzymes?

A

Enzymes released by certain bacteria to help them invade a host.
e.g, haemolytic streptococci release enzymes that breakdown RBC’s in Scarlet Fever

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59
Q

Bacteria release either endotoxins or exotoxins. Which are more toxic / harmful?

A

Exotoxins

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60
Q

Which types of bacteria release exotoxins?

A

Gram positive AND Gram negative bacteria release exotoxins, but only whilst they are alive.

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61
Q

What type of toxins are released by a living bacteria?

A

Exotoxins

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62
Q

Which toxic, protein toxins have a variety of effects on human body functions?

A

Exotoxins

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63
Q

Botox is an example of an _________

A

Exotoxin

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64
Q

Which type of toxins are released from the cell wall only after a bacteria dies?

A

Endotoxins

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65
Q

Which type of bacteria release endotoxins?

A

Gram negative bacteria

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66
Q

Lipopolysaccharides (LPS) molecules released from the cell walls after gram negative bacteria die are also called ______toxins.

A

Endotoxins

67
Q

Give an example of an endotoxin-releasing bacteria.

A

Salmonella (Gram negative)

68
Q

Give an example of an exotoxin-releasing bacteria.

A

E.Coli (Gram positive)

69
Q

Define ‘microflora’.

A

Naturally occurring micro-organisms (mostly bacteria) inhabiting the healthy human body.

70
Q

List 4 places in the body where microflora should be present.

A
  • Intestines (mostly large intestine)
  • Vagina
  • Skin
  • Mouth
  • Nasal cavity
  • Perineum
71
Q

List 4 places in the body where microflora should NOT be present (because they should be sterile).

A
  • Blood
  • Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
  • Lungs
  • Stomach
  • Uterus
  • Ovaries
  • Bladder
  • Kidneys
72
Q

In which 2 circumstances could organisms within the microflora become pathogenic?

A
  1. If the environment changes in a negative way

2. If the immune system becomes compromised

73
Q

Most cystitis is caused by _______

A

E.Coli

74
Q

What are antibiotics?

A

Conventional drugs that kill bacteria

75
Q

Antibiotics can be broadly categorised as being ______ spectrum, or _____ spectrum.

A

Broad or narrow spectrum

76
Q

Which type of antibiotics can have devastating effects on the body’s microflora?

A

Broad spectrum antibiotics

77
Q

List 3 side effects of antibiotics.

A
  1. Depletion of beneficial gut flora & dysbiosis
  2. Excessive growth of candida
  3. Impaired immunity
  4. Inflammatory bowel diseases
  5. Susceptibility to autoimmune diseases
78
Q

_______ are obligate intracellular parasites. They need a living host cell for survival and replication.

A

Viruses

79
Q

Which infectious agents are known as intracellular parasites?

A

Viruses

80
Q

What is a capsid?

A

The hard protein coat that surrounds the DNA or RNA strand in a virus.

81
Q

Which type of infectious agents don’t have their own metabolism, a nucleus or organelles?

A

Viruses

82
Q

Which are the smallest microbes (so small that they can’t be seen with a light microscope)?

A

Viruses

83
Q

What makes viruses unique?

A

They are only able to multiply inside the cells of other living things.

84
Q

Give 2 examples of DNA viruses.

A
  1. Varicella zoster virus (chicken pox, shingles)
  2. Herpes simplex (cold sores, genital warts)
  3. Smallpox
85
Q

Give 2 examples of RNA viruses.

A
  1. Measles
  2. Mumps
  3. HIV
86
Q

Describe how viruses reproduce.

A

They reproduce by injecting their DNA or RNA strand into a living host cell and use the host cell’s apparatus (i.e, its ribosomes) for reproduction.

87
Q

Viruses are incredibly specific and will each only infect certain host cells (i.e, muscle cells or nerve cells). True or false?

A

True

88
Q

When a virus binds with a cell, it only allows entry of genetic material and the ________ remains outside.

A

Capsid

89
Q

What generally happens to a host cell, once the virus leaves it?

A

The host cell bursts

90
Q

List 4 reasons why it’s very difficult for our immune system (and allopathic anti-viral agents & drugs) to identify and destroy viruses.

A
  1. Viruses can hide and remain latent.
  2. Viruses don’t have their own metabolism /enzymes
  3. They don’t have many structures of their own
  4. They can mutate
91
Q

What is viral lysis?

A

When viral particles burst out of the host cell, resulting in the death of the host cell.

92
Q

What is viral budding?

A

When a virus takes a small piece of the host cell outer membrane as it leaves the host cell and uses it as an envelope / shield for itself.

93
Q

Name a virus that utilises viral budding

A

HIV

94
Q

Describe the latent stage of viral replication.

A

The stage of infection where the disease/virus is present but is hidden and inactive, in order to avoid a stronger immune system.
Viruses can remain in a latent state for decades.

95
Q

Name 2 viruses that typically remain latent for a long time, until the immune system is compromised.

A
  • Herpes Simplex (cold sores)

- Varicella zosta (chicken pox and shingles)

96
Q

What type of organisms are fungi?

A

Eukaryotic

97
Q

Whereabouts in fungi would you find melanin?

A

In the cell wall

98
Q

Why do fungi have melanin in their cell walls?

A

To protect them from UV light

99
Q

Where are fungus found?

A

Everywhere!

In soil, medicine, food, mould

100
Q

Filaments of fungi are called ________, whilst a mass of fungi is called a __________.

A

Filaments = Hyphae

Mass of fungi = Mycelium

101
Q

What is a mycosis?

A

A fungal infection

102
Q

What is another name for a fungal infection?

A

Mycosis

103
Q

Fungal infection (mycosis) usually results from 3 forms of fungi. Name them.

A
  1. Yeasts - single celled fungi (i.e, candida)
  2. Moulds - multi cellular fungi
  3. Dermatophytes - fungus causing skin disease
104
Q

What is the name for fungi that cause skin disease?

A

Dermatophytes

105
Q

Dermatophytes are fungus which cause ______ disease.

A

Skin disease

106
Q

Where do dermatophytes obtain their nutrients?

A

From keratin in skin

107
Q

Where do dermatophytes (fungus) colonise in the skin?

A

In the stratum corneum - the layer of dead cells on top of the skin.

108
Q

Which type of fungus is the only type dependant on humans?

A

Dermatophytes

109
Q

Give an example of a dermatophyte fungus.

A

Ringworm, or Tinia (athletes foot).

110
Q

Name a common single-celled fungus that reproduces by budding.

A

Candida albicans

111
Q

Give an example of how moulds are used in medicine.

A

To make some antibiotics, such as penicillin.

112
Q

What are hyphae?

A

Fungal filaments

113
Q

What is mycelium?

A

A ‘mesh’ of intertwined fungal filaments

114
Q

List 4 things that promote fungal growth.

A
  • Warmth
  • Moisture
  • Rich nutrition
  • Acidity
115
Q

Fungi can reproduce both asexually and sexually. Is this true or false?

A

True

116
Q

Name a type of infectious agent that can reproduce both sexually and asexually.

A

Fungus

117
Q

Are protozoa prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

A

Protozoa are eukaryotic

118
Q

Name 3 infectious organisms that are eukaryotic.

A

Fungus, protozoa, helminths.

119
Q

Describe the structure of protozoa

A

Single-celled organisms with no cell wall (just a cell membrane). They live in moist/wet environments and can move in various ways.

120
Q

Explain the 3 ways in which protozoa can move.

A
  1. Via flagella
  2. Via Cilia
  3. Using vectors for transmission (i.e, mosquitos)
121
Q

What is a vector? Give an example.

A

An intermediate carrier of protozoa.

i.e, mosquitos are vectors for the protozoa that causes malaria.

122
Q

How are protozoa formed?

A

Through binary fission and budding.

They can also be formed sexually, but ONLY when the environment is unfavourable.

123
Q

Under what circumstances would protozoa form cysts?

A

When the environment is very harsh (so that they can survive).

124
Q

What are helminths?

A

Parasitic worms

125
Q

What is another name for parasitic worms?

A

Helminths

126
Q

Describe helminths.

A

Multi-cellular, eukaryotic, macroscopic organisms.
They can live in intestines, blood or tissues.
Many helminths are intestinal parasites
Examples are roundworm, tapeworm, pinworm

127
Q

Give an example of a macroscopic organism

A

Helminths

128
Q

Describe the lifecycle of helminths.

A

Egg > Larva > Adult

129
Q

What type of organism is associated with roundworm, tapeworm and pinworm?

A

Helminths

130
Q

Where are most helminths found?

A

In the intestines

131
Q

Describe ‘infection’.

A

The invasion of a host by a pathogen, causing disease .

132
Q

What is a large outbreak of a particular disease called?

A

An epidemic

133
Q

What is an epidemic?

A

A large outbreak of a particular disease

134
Q

What is a worldwide outbreak of a particular disease called?

A

A pandemic

135
Q

What is a pandemic?

A

A worldwide outbreak of a particular disease.

136
Q

What is the name given to an infectious disease that is spreading around a specific geographical area?

A

Endemic

137
Q

Give an example of an endemic disease.

A

Malaria

138
Q

In relation to infectious diseases, what is a reservoir?

A

The location where the pathogen comes from, where it has reproduced and the point from which it will spread to a new host.

139
Q

What is the name given to the location where a pathogen comes from, where it has reproduced and the point from which it will spread to a new host?

A

The reservoir

140
Q

In relation to infectious diseases, what is a carrier?

A

An infected individual who is asymptomatic

141
Q

What is the name given to an intermediate carrier which transports pathogens from reservoir to host?

A

A vector

142
Q

In relation to infectious diseases, what is a host?

A

An infected individual (person or animal)

143
Q

Give an example of an infectious disease whereby the vector is also a host.

A

Malaria. The mosquito is both vector and host.

144
Q

List 5 ways in which infectious diseases can be transmitted.

A
  1. Direct contact
  2. Droplet transmission
  3. Indirect contact
  4. Via a vector
  5. Nosocomial
145
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

An infection acquired from a medical setting (i.e, a hospital)

146
Q

What is the most common type of nosocomial infection?

A

Urinary tract infections (UTI’s).

Catheterisation is a contributor to this.

147
Q

List 4 examples of nosocomial infections.

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Ulcers & sores
  • UTI’s
  • Surgical site infections
148
Q

List the 4 stages of infection.

A
  1. Incubation period
  2. Prodromal period
  3. Acute period
  4. Chronic infection
149
Q

What is the incubation period?

A

Stage 1 of infection. The time between the initial exposure to the infecting organism and the appearance of the first signs/symptoms it produces.

150
Q

What is the prodromal period?

A

The period between the start of vague, non-specific symptoms of infection, until the more specific symptoms of that particular infection begin.
(The time when you feel a bit unwell and as if you are coming down with something).

151
Q

Describe the acute period of infection.

A

The point at which the pathogen peaks in population. This is when the very pronounced symptoms specific to the disease are experienced.

152
Q

Describe chronic infection.

A

Infection with an insidious or slow onset over a long duration.

153
Q

List 3 ways to reduce the spread of infection.

A
  1. Washing hands
  2. Sterilisation
  3. Stop droplet transmission (i.e, cover the mouth when coughing)
154
Q

What is sterilisation?

A

A form of infection control which destroys all micro-organisms and their spores.

155
Q

List 4 forms of infection control.

A
  1. Sterilisation (also kills spores)
  2. Antiseptics
  3. Disinfectants
  4. Pasteurisation
156
Q

List 3 natural agents that can be used to help control infections.

A
  • Tea tree oil
  • Eucalyptus oil
  • Colloidal silver
157
Q

Explain what is meant by an epidemic.

A

A large outbreak of a disease

158
Q

Describe the structure of a virus.

A

A structure that contains DNA/RNA surrounded by a protein coat known as a capsid.

159
Q

Define the term ‘sterilisation’.

A

A procedure whereby all microbes and spores are destroyed, using either hot air or steam.

160
Q

What is sepsis / septicaemia?

A

Sepsis occurs when a pathogen has infected the blood. The body’s own immune response against the infection can cause serious damage to organs and even multi-organ failure.

161
Q

List 3 signs of an infection.

A
  1. Redness
  2. Warmth
  3. Pain & swelling
162
Q

List 3 symptoms of an infection.

A
  1. Fever
  2. Fatigue
  3. Headache
  4. Nausea
163
Q

How might we test for the presence of an infectious agent in our patients?

A
  1. Culture/staining
  2. Blood tests
  3. Stool tests
  4. Radiography (i.e, tuberculosis granulomas in the lungs)

Em Year 1 Biomed, Semester 1 (16 decks)

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