Sensation

Question 1

Which sequence best describes the pathway used to transmit auditory information in humans?

A. Cochlea → organ of Corti → medial geniculate nucleus → auditory cortex

B. Organ of Corti → cochlea → auditory cortex → medial geniculate nucleus

C. Cochlea → organ of Corti → auditory cortex → medial geniculate nucleus

D. Organ of Corti → cochlea → medial geniculate nucleus → auditory cortex

Answer 1

A. Cochlea → organ of Corti → medial geniculate nucleus → auditory cortex

Question 2

Weber’s law can be applied to:

A. sound, as when a constant 30-dB tone is played in an individual’s ear.

B. weight, as when two study participants hold steel bars with different masses.

C. visual stimuli, as when a man attempts to distinguish between images at different brightness levels.

D. both A, B, and C.

Answer 2

C. visual stimuli, as when a man attempts to distinguish between images at different brightness levels.

Although Weber’s law is used for a wide variety of stimulus types, it specifically relates to the proportionality of the just-noticeable difference perceived by an individual. Only choice C involves the same person attempting to notice differences between stimuli with distinct intensities.

Question 3

Which of these scenarios exemplifies the process of sensory adaptation?

A. A steel worker wears thicker gloves to work after noticing calluses on his hands.

B. A flight attendant gradually overcomes his fear of heights as his flight hours increase.

C. A pastry chef begins to stop noticing the appetizing and distracting smell of pastries in her kitchen.

D. A child starts to associate the smell of her dog with affection rather than fear.

Answer 3

C. A pastry chef begins to stop noticing the appetizing and distracting smell of pastries in her kitchen.

Question 4

A piano tuner listens to a tuning machine that emits sounds of slowly increasing frequencies. He first notices that the frequency is rising when it moves from 25 to 27 Hz. If, much later, the machine begins to emit sounds with decreasing frequencies beginning at 200 Hz, when will the tuner first notice that the frequency has dropped?

A. 27 Hz

B. 184 Hz

C. 198 Hz

D. 199 Hz

Answer 4

B. 184 Hz

If the tuner notices a change of 2 Hz from an initial value of 25 Hz, he has perceived a change of 8%. The tuner should then notice changes of 8% or more at other frequency levels. An 8% decrease from 200 Hz is 16 Hz, bringing the new frequency to 184 Hz.

Question 5

If a legally blind individual is unable to perceive visual contrasts and identify the edges of shapes, which structure in his or her visual pathway is most likely damaged?

A. The optic chiasm

B. The visual cortex

C. The horizontal cells

D. The optic tracts

Answer 5

C. The horizontal cells

The horizontal cells assist the bipolar cells by processing and organizing visual information. Doing so allows us to discern the edges of objects and detect visual contrasts.

Question 6

An ophthalmological study measured the visual capacities exhibited by several groups of individuals with distinct degenerative diseases. Members of each group were placed in a well-lit room and positioned several meters from a projector screen, then told to identify a variety of fixed and moving objects. Results below show the percentage of properly identified objects for each case.

The structures that are most likely damaged or present in inadequate numbers in Group 2 individuals are:

A. parvocellular cells and rods.

B. magnocellular cells and rods.

C. rods only.

D. cones only.

Answer 6

C. rods only.

Parvocellular cells are responsible for identifying the shapes and details of stationary objects.

Magnocellular cells detect motion without perceiving small or fine details.

Question 7

An ophthalmological study measured the visual capacities exhibited by several groups of individuals with distinct degenerative diseases. Members of each group were placed in a well-lit room and positioned several meters from a projector screen, then told to identify a variety of fixed and moving objects. Results below show the percentage of properly identified objects for each case.

Which of the statements below accurately summarize the data from this study?

I. Members of Group 1 have healthy magnocellular cells and damaged rods.

II. Members of Group 3 have healthy magnocellular cells and damaged cones.

III. Members of Group 3 have healthy magnocellular cells and cones.

IV. Members of Groups 1 and 2 have healthy parvocellular cells and cones.

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. III and IV only

D. I, III, and IV only

Answer 7

C. III and IV only

In bright light, members of Group 3 had no issues identifying moving objects. For this reason, participants in that group most likely have healthy magnocellular cells, the structures in the LGN that detect movement.

Question 8

All of the following statements regarding the visual pathway are true EXCEPT:

A. the temporal fibers do not cross paths.

B. at least some of the optical fibers do cross paths.

C. at the optic chiasm, it is the nasal optical fibers that cross to opposite hemispheres.

D. visual information does not travel through the parietal lobe.

Answer 8

D. visual information does not travel through the parietal lobe.

Although visual signals ultimately end in the occipital lobe, they do move through both the parietal and temporal lobes before reaching their final destination.

Question 9

A new species of rainforest lizard is discovered to possess structurally similar ears to those of humans. However, these reptiles have oddly short legs that keep their bodies close to the ground and make them naturally balanced when upright. As animals with the capacity to balance easily when walking, which structure do these lizards most likely lack in comparison to humans?

A. Scalae

B. Eustachian tubes

C. Vestibules

D. Vestibulocochlear nerves

Answer 9

C. Vestibules

The vestibule plays an essential role in maintaining balance and sensing linear acceleration. Since these particular lizards are naturally positioned to balance without effort, their vestibules would likely be small or lacking entirely.

Question 10

Esmeralda G., a patient in a case study, has significant trouble locating the sources of sounds. Additionally, she cannot focus her vision on a specific point in space while rotating her head. Which of these statements is likely true of this patient?

I. Her medial geniculate nucleus is damaged, promoting her difficulty with localizing sounds.
II. Her superior colliculus is damaged, since she cannot fixate on a point when rotating her head.
III. Her superior olive is damaged, leading to her inability to detect the locations of sounds.
IV. Her semicircular canals are damaged, creating the issue with sound localization.

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. II and IV only

D. None of these statements are true.

Answer 10

B. II and III only

The superior olive, a region in the brain stem, is responsible for localizing sound

In contrast, the superior colliculus helps us coordinate head rotation with visual focus on a specific point

Question 11

Researchers building a synthetic hearing system want to create an auditory pathway as similar as possible to that of humans. The most appropriate order for this pathway would be:

A. auditory nerve → medial geniculate nucleus → superior olive → auditory cortex.

B. auditory nerve → auditory cortex → medial geniculate nucleus.

C. auditory nerve → inferior colliculus → medial geniculate nucleus → auditory cortex.

D. superior olive → auditory nerve → medial geniculate nucleus → auditory cortex.

Answer 11

C. auditory nerve → inferior colliculus → medial geniculate nucleus → auditory cortex.

Question 12

Which group(s) most likely consist of patients with lesions to their superior olives?

A. Cohorts A and C

B. Cohorts B and C

C. Cohort A only

D. Cohort B only

Answer 12

A. Cohorts A and C

Superior Olive is for sound localization

Question 13

The diagram below shows a section of the auditory canal.

Which of these choices includes an accurately labeled component of the middle ear?

A. The malleus, labeled here as structure 3

B. The stapes, labeled here as structure 1

C. The vestibule, labeled here as structure 4

D. The incus, labeled here as structure 2

Answer 13

B. The stapes, labeled here as structure 1

The middle ear contains three small bones, or “ossicles,” named the malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup). Of the three, the only one that is correctly matched with its label is the stapes.

Question 14

Three patients, each with one or more nerve disorders that affect taste perception, are exposed to different taste-related stimuli and asked to rate the perceived intensity of each. Responses are shown here as a percentage of average wild-type values.

Which of these potential underlying conditions would best explain the symptoms of Patient 2?

A. Patient 2 had a stroke that caused decreased sensation in the region of her tongue where the bitter taste buds are located.

B. Patient 2 has an infection that has promoted generalized decreased sensation of taste.

C. Patient 2 has a point mutation in the gene coding for bitter chemoreceptors, reducing the effectiveness of its protein product.

D. None of these underlying conditions would explain the patient’s symptoms.

Answer 14

C. Patient 2 has a point mutation in the gene coding for bitter chemoreceptors, reducing the effectiveness of its protein product.

Question 15

A patient is suffering from decreased or inappropriate sensation of all sensory stimuli except for olfactory ones. How might one account for these symptoms?

A. The patient has a nerve condition, as opposed to one that affects chemoreceptors.

B. The patient has slow progressive degeneration of the thalamus.

C. The patient has a slow-growing nerve tumor in her spinal cord.

D. The patient is fabricating her symptoms as a form of Munchausen syndrome.

Answer 15

B. The patient has slow progressive degeneration of the thalamus.

The thalamus plays a key role in the processing of all sensation except for smell. (Those stimuli, known as olfactory sensations, are processed directly by the limbic system.) Thus, a defect in the thalamus would affect most of the senses, but not smell

Question 16

Hypersensitivity to light touch may indicate a disorder that involves:

A. free nerve endings.

B. Merkel’s discs.

C. Meissner’s corpuscles.

D. olfactory chemoreceptors

Answer 16

C. Meissner’s corpuscles.

Meissner’s corpuscles transmit sensory impulses associated with light touch. A disorder of these nerves could result in either hyper- or hyposensitivity to this form of stimulus.

Free nerve endings respond mainly to pain and temperature.

Merkel’s discs sense deep pressure and texture, not light touch.

Question 17

Which of these choices matches a common diagnostic exam to the sense that it assesses?

I. Balancing on one foot with closed eyes – proprioception
II. Response to light touching of the fingers – somatosensation
III. Touching one’s nose or other body parts with closed eyes – vestibular sense

A. I only

B. II only

C. I and II only

D. I, II, and III

Answer 17

B. II only

Balance is controlled by the vestibular system, not proprioception.

Proprioception is the ability to orient ourselves and locate our own body parts in space.

Question 18

Identifying a square in the middle of this array of shapes demonstrates the Gestalt principle of:

A. proximity.

B. similarity.

C. propriety.

D. elegant design.

Answer 18

B. similarity.

The principle of similarity states that people tend to group objects that look similar into a pattern.

Question 19

Which of the following examples demonstrates the Gestalt principle of good continuation?

A. When observing two intersecting lines of different colors, instead of noticing four separate lines, we perceive two.

B. When looking at two shapes that outline a figure, instead of simply perceiving the shapes, we see the figure.

C. Temperatures below normal skin temperature are perceived as cold, while those above it are perceived as warm.

D. When driving, we perceive the dotted lines in the middle of the road as a single line.

Answer 19

A. When observing two intersecting lines of different colors, instead of noticing four separate lines, we perceive two.

The principle of good continuation explains that we tend to perceive lines as continuing in a direction in a way that creates a smaller number of single uninterrupted objects that form intuitively recognizable shapes.

Question 20

Retinal disparity can best be explained as:

A. the fact that distinct individuals have different eye structures and therefore perceive images very differently.

B. the idea that the retina is composed of rods and cones, each of which serve to relay different pieces of sensory information.

C. the concept that, since humans have two eyes, we perceive images from two slightly different angles; this helps us determine depth.

D. a clinical condition in which the two eyes align improperly.

Answer 20

C. the concept that, since humans have two eyes, we perceive images from two slightly different angles; this helps us determine depth.

Question 21

Two soccer players are looking at an old soccer ball with the classic black-and-white pattern. One of the players tells the other that the reason we see a ball (rather than just black objects in space) relates to the Gestalt principle of similarity. What is incorrect about his statement?

A. It is the principle of proximity, not similarity, that explains this observation.

B. It is the principle of closure, not similarity, that explains this observation.

C. No Gestalt principles properly explain this observation.

D. The player is not incorrect; the law of similarity does explain this observation.

Answer 21

B. It is the principle of closure, not similarity, that explains this observation.

The Gestalt principle of closure states that when a space is enclosed by an incomplete contour or line, it will generally be perceived as a closed figure. Here, the contours of the black squares are perceived as a round ball rather than as individual objects.

Question 22

Which of the following is an example of a binocular cue?

A. Convergence

B. Relative size

C. Motion parallax

D. Relative height

Answer 22

A. Convergence

Binocular cues are those that require both eyes; these cues include convergence, or the way the eye muscles coordinate to view images at different distances. The brain determines the extent of the eyes’ inward turning, allowing us to obtain information regarding the depth of an object.

Question 23

A scientist uses electroencephalography to monitor the sleep cycles of several apparently healthy participants. What should be true of the EEG of an individual in Stage 2 sleep?

I. It prominently features beta waves.
II. It is marked by low-frequency, high-amplitude waveforms.
III. It includes theta waves.
IV. It features distinct bursts of high-frequency, moderate-amplitude activity.

A. I and II only

B. I and IV only

C. II and III only

D. II, III, and IV only

Answer 23

D. II, III, and IV only

Stage 2 sleep is characterized by diminished theta wave activity; however, these features are still present to some extent. Additionally, Stage 2 marks the appearance of K-complexes. These waveforms occur rarely, but with larger amplitudes than any other form of activity in this stage. Finally, K-complexes are typically followed by sleep spindles: sporadic clumps of high-frequency, medium-amplitude waves.

Question 24

All of the below features are shared by individuals in REM sleep and those who are physiologically awake EXCEPT:

A. the presence of beta waves.

B. similar respiratory activity.

C. similar heart rate.

D. similar EOG readings.

Answer 24

D. similar EOG readings.

Electrooculograms, or EOGs, measure eye movement. Rapid eye movement is the most classic characteristic of REM sleep, but is not demonstrated by people who are physiologically awake.

Question 25

A pharmacologist intends to study the effect of proper sleep on cortisol concentration. To do so, he monitors the plasma of both healthy and sleep-deprived individuals immediately after meals throughout the day. The results are summarized in table form here.

Which part of the brain is likely overstimulated in sleep-deprived individuals?

A. The posterior pituitary

B. The cerebellum

C. The amygdala

D. None of the above

Answer 25

D. None of the above

The anterior, not posterior, pituitary gland is responsible for secreting adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). This promotes the release of cortisol from the adrenal cortex.

Question 26

Participants in a reality show who are asked to live in a dark room for several consecutive days probably release less of which hormone?

A. Melatonin

B. ACTH

C. Serotonin

D. Thyroxine

Answer 26

B. ACTH

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) is released by the anterior pituitary gland when stimulated by corticotropin-releasing factor (CRH) from the hypothalamus. This chain of events is triggered by the increase in light incident on the retinas during waking.

Question 27

In the middle of a recital, a violinist notices with some annoyance that a rude individual is talking in the audience. Initially, she continues with her performance as usual; however, as the talking continues, she grows distracted and misses a note. Which model of attention best explains this phenomenon?

A. The Broadbent model of selective attention; the violinist chooses to pay attention to her performance over other stimuli.

B. The Broadbent model of selective attention; the violinist can only focus on one stimulus at a time.

C. Treisman’s attenuation model; a filter “turns down” the intensity of the annoying talking, but its intensity increases over time.

D. Treisman’s attenuation model; a selective filter prevents the perception of the talking from reaching the violinist’s working memory.

Answer 27

C. Treisman’s attenuation model; a filter “turns down” the intensity of the annoying talking, but its intensity increases over time.

Because the violinist notices the voices but is initially still able to focus on the task at hand, this situation best relates to Treisman’s attenuation model This theory proposes that we “turn down,” or attenuate, the intensity of less important stimuli to focus on other tasks

The Broadbent model would apply in this scenario only if the violinist never noticed the voices at all. According to this theory, some distracting stimuli are selectively filtered out at a “bottleneck,” preventing them from ever reaching the subject’s higher-level processing.

Question 28

A runner is attempting to practice sprinting while listening to a language-learning podcast. Which type(s) of processing is this individual utilizing?

A. Both activities can be viewed as one hybrid task that uses both automatic and controlled processing.

B. Sprinting utilizes controlled processing.

C. Sprinting utilizes ambulatory processing.

D. Listening to the podcast utilizes controlled processing.

Answer 28

D. Listening to the podcast utilizes controlled processing.

The type of processing required to complete an action depends on whether the task is simple and familiar or new and advanced. Here, we can infer that the language-learning podcast was an unfamiliar task that would require controlled processing.

Question 29

A psychologist is researching the human capacity to perform tasks when presented with distractions. First, she splits her test subjects into two groups. Group A is told to thread 50 needles while loud rock music is played from nearby speakers. At the same time, Group A members must count how many times their first names are called during the task. In contrast, those in Group B must thread 50 needles while counting the number of times their first names are called, but they do not hear any music. Interestingly, the two groups completed their tasks in the same amount of time, even though Group B was exposed to less distraction. Assuming that members of Group A did perceive the music being played, which model of attention best explains this finding?

A. The Broadbent model of selective attention

B. Treisman’s attenuation model

C. The resource model of attention

D. Both B and C

Answer 29

B. Treisman’s attenuation model

Treisman’s attenuation model would posit that although individuals in Group A did hear the music, it was unconsciously attenuated or diminished in perceived intensity. In other words, Group A was not overly distracted by the music and was able to complete the same tasks as Group B in a similar amount of time.

The resource model explains that we can divide our attention effectively as long as the attention resources at our disposal exceed those required by the tasks at hand. This is not relevant because members of Group A likely devoted extremely little attention to the rock music.

Question 30

A man drunkenly stumbles down the street after a long night at his favorite bar. Which of these statements best explains his behavior and neurochemical state?

I. Alcohol increases frontal lobe activity.
II. Alcohol increases GABA production.
III. Alcohol decreases GABA production.
IV. Alcohol suppresses cerebellar functioning.

A. II only

B. I and II only

C. I and III only

D. II and IV only

Answer 30

D. II and IV only

Alcohol stimulates production of GABA, an inhibitory transmitter. It also lowers brain activity in the cerebellum, which inhibits motor activity and balance and causes the man’s clumsy behavior.

Question 31

If it was found that the brain processes figures first in the left parietal lobe and then in the right parietal lobe, this would be considered what type of processing?

A. Top-down processing

B. Bottom-up processing

C. Inner-outer processing

D. Outer-inner processing

Answer 31

B. Bottom-up processing

This refers to processing details first and THEN processing the whole. Left parietal processes details and then to the whole in the right parietal.

Question 32

The image below, with no contextual clues, may be perceived as going into the page or coming out of the page.

If the observers’ perceptions pop back and forth between both interpretations, this phenomenon is known as:

A. Reification

B. Law of closure

C. Invariance

D. Multistability

Answer 32

D. Multistability

Multistability is when an image can be perceived two or more ways, and our perception of that image can alternate between those interpretations

Reification is when we perceive more information that is actually there (our brain “fills in the blanks” of an image).

The law of closure says that we tend to perceive shapes as complete even when they’re not (e.g. a dotted line in a circle is perceived as a full, closed circle).

Question 33

In studies of the just-noticeable difference, perception is measured in what way?

A. Sensation

B. Discrimination

C. Magnitude estimation

D. Signal transduction

Answer 33

B. Discrimination

Determination of Weber’s law requires a person to perceive two stimuli and then determine whether or not they are the same or different. Perceiving differences between two stimuli is discrimination.

Question 34

Subjects often report negative emotions such as anger after hearing several especially loud sounds. The James-Lange theory would posit that this emotional response:

A. precedes and causes a person to experience physiological arousal, which then contributes to further unpleasant affect.

B. occurs simultaneously and independently of the physiological arousal stimulated by the loud sounds.

C. is a result of both physiological arousal and a cognitive appraisal of that arousal.

D. follows from and is caused by the physiological arousal experienced as a result of the loud sounds.

Answer 34

D. follows from and is caused by the physiological arousal experienced as a result of the loud sounds.

Question 35

Subjects often report negative emotions such as anger after hearing several especially loud sounds. The Cannon-Bard theory would posit that this emotional response:

A. precedes and causes a person to experience physiological arousal, which then contributes to further unpleasant affect.

B. occurs simultaneously and independently of the physiological arousal stimulated by the loud sounds.

C. is a result of both physiological arousal and a cognitive appraisal of that arousal.

D. follows from and is caused by the physiological arousal experienced as a result of the loud sounds.

Answer 35

B. occurs simultaneously and independently of the physiological arousal stimulated by the loud sounds.

Question 36

Subjects often report negative emotions such as anger after hearing several especially loud sounds. The Schachter-Singer theory would posit that this emotional response:

A. precedes and causes a person to experience physiological arousal, which then contributes to further unpleasant affect.

B. occurs simultaneously and independently of the physiological arousal stimulated by the loud sounds.

C. is a result of both physiological arousal and a cognitive appraisal of that arousal.

D. follows from and is caused by the physiological arousal experienced as a result of the loud sounds.

Answer 36

C. is a result of both physiological arousal and a cognitive appraisal of that arousal.

Question 37

Which of the following best explains the just-noticeable difference change that occurs around 130 dB in Figure 2?

A. Above a certain intensity level, sound perception also occurs as a result of signal transduction directly through the skull rather than solely through the ossicles and organ of Corti.

B. The threshold of pain is near or above 130 dB and the JND for pain is much lower than for many other types of stimuli.

C. Study participants were more attentive to the especially loud sounds as a result of the physiological arousal those sounds created.

D. The distracting nature of the especially loud sounds made it more difficult for study participants to detect changes in stimulus intensity.

Answer 37

B. The threshold of pain is near or above 130 dB and the JND for pain is much lower than for many other types of stimuli.

The level of sound intensity that causes pain varies by individual, but typically around 130-140 dB is the pain threshold. At that point, participants are experiencing auditory and pain inputs, so their ability to discriminate between stimuli is going to change.

Question 38

Which of the following is most likely true?

A. Nociceptors are significantly more sensitive to variations in pain intensity than the auditory system is to variations in loudness.

B. Unlike auditory perception of white noise sound intensity, the perception of pain intensity generally follows Weber’s law at lower levels

C. The signal transduction mechanisms by which pain is experienced do not rely on the same ion-channel triggers as do those for sound.

D. An 11% increase or decrease in shock intensity will generally not be noticed by a person.

Answer 38

A. Nociceptors are significantly more sensitive to variations in pain intensity than the auditory system is to variations in loudness.

Notice the y-axis here; the JND for pain is hovering just over 0.1, which is much less than that given on the y-axis in the sound studies. Thus it is reasonable to conclude that people are much more sensitive to variations in pain intensity.

Question 39

Urban commuters were surveyed on their opinion of a new rail line in their city two times. The first time was via individual survey, and most express nuanced views with both pluses and minuses. The second time the commuters formed a focus group to come up with a single consensus opinion. If the second opinion is more extreme and less nuanced than the position they expressed individually, what the best explanation for this change?

A. Socialization

B. Peer pressure

C. Groupthink

D. Group polarization

Answer 39

D. Group polarization

Question 40

Which of the following characterize Albert Bandura’s conception of the social cognitive perspective of personality?

I. A belief in one’s own abilities

II. Observational learning

III. Neuroticism

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II, and III

Answer 40

A. I and II only