Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

WISE > seizure/ neurologic emergencies/ CNS infection > Flashcards

seizure/ neurologic emergencies/ CNS infection Flashcards

1
Q

Contraindications to performing a lumbar puncture include the following EXCEPT
1/1
A. Suspected mass lesion of the brain
B. Suspected mass lesion of the spinal cord
C. Symptoms and signs of impending cerebral herniation
D. Skin infection at the site of the lumbar puncture
E. Thrombocytopenia with platelet count <50 x 10 9 /L

A

E. Thrombocytopenia with platelet count <50 x 10 9 /L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
An elevated PMN cell count in CSF suggests
0/1
A. Tuberculous meningitis
B. Early phase of aseptic meningitis
C. Fungal meningitis
D. Demyelinating disease
E. Brain or spinal cord tumor
A

B. Early phase of aseptic meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
Xanthochromia of CSF suggests the following EXCEPT
0/1
A. Bloody tap
B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C. Carotinemia
D. Hyperbilirubinemia
E. Markedly elevated CSF protein
A

A. Bloody tap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
MINOR risk factors for recurrence of febrile seizure include the following EXCEPT
1/1
A. Complex febrile seizure
B. Age < 1 year
C. Family history of febrile seizures
D. Male gender
E. Lower serum sodium
A

B. Age < 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q 
There are several predictors of epilepsy after febrile seizures, the highest percent of risk factor for subsequent epilepsy after febrile seizure is
0/1
A. Complex febrile seizure, any type
B. Fever <1 hour before febrile seizure
C. Recurrent febrile seizure
D. Focal complex febrile seizure
E. Family history of epilepsy
A

D. Focal complex febrile seizure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Dravet syndrome is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
A. The most severe of the phenotypic spectrum of febrile seizures
B. Onset is the 1st year of life
C. Seizures subsequently start to occure witout fever
D. Developmental delay
E. An autosomal recessive inheritance

A

E. An autosomal recessive inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q 
Gingival hyperplasia, coarsening of the facies, hirsutism, and cerebellovestibular symptoms are adverse effects of
A. Carbamazepine
B. Lamotripine
C. Phenytoin
D, Valproic Acid
E. Leviteracetam
A

C. Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q 
The most common case of neonatal seizures is
A. Vascular events
B. Intracranial infections
C. Brain malformations
D. Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
E. Metabolic disturbances
A

D. Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q 
The most common type of cerebral palsy associated with seizures is
A. Spastic hemiplegia
B. Spastic quadriplegia
C. Spastic diplegia
D. Hypotonic CP
E. Ataxic CP
A

A. Spastic hemiplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
The following are manifestations of increased intracranial pressure in an infant EXCEPT
A. Increased head circumference
B. Bulging fontanel
C. Failure to thrive
D. Persistent vomiting
E. Setting sun sign
A

D. Persistent vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
How often are EEGs abnormal in healthy children? *
A. 5%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 20%
E. 25%
A

B. 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
The most common precipitant of status epilepticus in children is
A. CNS infection
B. Fever
C. Medication change
D. Trauma
E. Metabolic cause
A

B. Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MAJOR risk factors for recurrence of febrile siezure include
A. Fever 38-39C
B. Family history of febrile seizures
C. Family history of epilepsy
D. Complex febrile seizure
E. Lower serum sodium at time of presentation

A

A. Fever 38-39C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In patients with febrile seizures, one of the following risk factors has the highest risk for subsequent epilepsy
A. Recurrent febrile seizures
B. Fever < 1 hour before febrile seizures
C. Neurodevelopmental abnormalities
D. Family history of epilepsy
E. Complex febrile seizures

A

C. Neurodevelopmental abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Higher risk of recurrence of febrile seizure is associated with lower serum
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
E. Magnesium
A

A. Sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q 
Drug therapy should be based on the type of seizure and the epilepsy syndrome as well as on other individual factors. Of the following, the drug of choice for focal seizures is
A. Carbamazepine
B. Ethosuximide
C. Valproate
D. Lamotrigine
E. Clobazam
A

A. Carbamazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
Weight gain and alopecia are side effects of which antiepileptic drug
A. Primidone
B. Valproic Acid
C. Oxcarbazepine
D. Lamotrigine
E. Acetazolamide
A

B. Valproic Acid

18
Q 
Discontinuation of antiepileptic drugs is usually indicated when children are free of seizures for at least
A. 1 year
B. 1.5 years
C. 2 years
D. 2.5 years
E. 3 years
A

C. 2 years

19
Q

The following factors are associated with a higher risk of seizure relapse after antiepileptic drug withdrawal EXCEPT
A. Younger age of epilepsy onset
B. Longer duration of epilepsy
C. Presence of multiple seizure types
D. Need to use more than 1 AED
E. Abnormal EEG before medication is discontinued

A

A. Younger age of epilepsy onset

20
Q 
Sudden Unexpected Death in Epilepsy (SUDEP) is the most common epilepsy related mortality in patients with chronic epilepsy. All of the following are risk factors EXCEPT
A. Polypharmacology
B. Female gender
C. Age younger than 16 years
D. Long duration of epilepsy
E. Frequent seizures
A

B. Female gender

21
Q 
Subtle seizures include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Blinking
B. Mouthing
C. FLuctuations in heart rate
D. Hypotension episodes
E. Apnea
A

D. Hypotension episodes

22
Q

Status epilepticus is a medical emergency that should be anticipated in any patient who presents with an acute seizure. It is defined as continuous seizure activity or recurrent seizure activity without regain of consciousness lasting for more than
A. 5 min
B. 15 min
C. 30 min

D. 45 min
E. 60 min

A

A. 5 min

23
Q 
23. The following studies are recommended for all patients with status epilepticus EXCEPT
A. Glucose
B. Magnesium
C. Complete blood count
D. MRI
E. CT Scan
A

D. MRI

24
Q 
Currently, the level of evidence for refractory treatment of status epilepticus is strongest for
A. Midazolam
B. Propofol
C. Leviteracetam
D. Phenytoin
E. Phenobarbital
A

A. Midazolam

25
Q 
The most common focal presentation of arterial ischemic stroke is
A. Hemiparesis
B. Acute visual deficit
C. Speech deficit
D. Sensory deficit
E. Balance deficit
A

A. Hemiparesis

26
Q 
The most common cause of childhood subarachnoid and intraparenchymal hemorrhagic stroke is
1/1
A. Moyamoya Disease
B. Arteriovenous malformations
C. Cerebral sinovenous thrombosis
D. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome
E. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
A

B. Arteriovenous malformations

27
Q

Bilateral cortical visual dysfunction, encephalopathy, and seizures are seen in
A. Global hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy
B. Herpes encephalitis
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Hypertensive encephalopathy
E. Hypoglycemia

A

D. Hypertensive encephalopathy

28
Q 
The diagnosis of diffuse CNS infections depend on examination of CSF. The CSF protein may reach 3000 mg/dl in
0/1
A. Acute bacterial meningitis
B. Tuberculous meningitis
C. Fungal meningitis
D. Amebic meningoencephalitis
E. Subdural empyema
A

A. Acute bacterial meningitis

29
Q

The organism causing CNS infection is almost never seen on direct examination of CSF in
A. Tuberculous meningitis
B. Acute bacterial meningitis
C. Partially treated bacterial meningitis
D. Fungal meningitis
E. Amebic (Naegleria) meningoencephalitis

A

A. Tuberculous meningitis

30
Q 
The CSF leukocyte count in normal healthy neonates may reach as many as
A. 10/mm3
B. 15/mm3
C. 20/mm3
D. 25/mm3
E. 30/mm3
A

E. 30/mm3

31
Q

Data support the use of intravenous dexamethasone, 0.15mg/kg/dose every 6 hours for 2 days, in the treatment of children older than 6 weeks with acute bacterial meningitis caused by H. influenzae for the following reasons, EXCEPT
A. Short duration of fever
B. Lower CSF protein
C. Lower mortality
D. Lower CSF lactate levels
E. Reduction of sensorineural hearing loss

A

C. Lower mortality

32
Q 
The most common neurologic sequelae of bacterial meningitis is
1/1
A. Recurrent seizures
B. Delay in acquisition of language
C. Hearing loss 
D. Cognitive impairment
E. Visual impairment
A

C. Hearing loss

33
Q 
The most common cause of viral meningoencephalitis are
A. Arboviruses
B. Enteroviruses
C. HSV type 1
D. Varicella zoster virus
E. Mumps
A

B. Enteroviruses

34
Q 
The predominant organisms causing brain absesses in children are
A.Aerobic and anaerobic streptococci
B.Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Bacteroides spp
E. Haemophilus
A

A.Aerobic and anaerobic streptococci

35
Q

A brain abscess can be treated with antibiotics without surgery in the following conditions EXCEPT
A. Abscess is <2 cm in diameter
B. Illness is short in duration (<2 weeks)
C. Lesion is located in the posterior fossa
D. No signs of increased intracranial pressure
E. Child is neurologically intact

A

C. Lesion is located in the posterior fossa

36
Q

True of brain death EXCEPT
A. It is primarily a clinical diagnosis
B. Before a determination of brain death may be made, it is of utmost importance that the cause of coma be determined.
C. The 3 key components of clinical brain death diagnosis are irreversible coma with a known cause, absence of brainstem reflexes, and apnea
D. To establish the diagnosis of brain death, the findings must remain consistent for 3 examinations separated by an observation period of 24 hours for neonates and 12 hours for infants and children.
E. Ancillary studies are not required for the diagnosis

A

D. To establish the diagnosis of brain death, the findings must remain consistent for 3 examinations separated by an observation period of 24 hours for neonates and 12 hours for infants and children.

37
Q

The following findings are consistent with brain death EXCEPT
A. Unresponsiveness to noxious stimuli
B. Apnea
C. Bilaterally pinpoint nonreactive pupils
D. Absence of eye movement in response to irrigation of the tympanic membrane
E. Eyes move in concert with head movement when head is turned from side to side

A

C. Bilaterally pinpoint nonreactive pupils

38
Q 
A child who opens her eyes in response to noxious stimuli, makes incomprehensible sounds and shows abnormal flexion to painful stimuli has a GCS score of
1/1
A. E3V3M3
B. E2V3M2
C. E2V3M1
D. E3V2M3
E. E2V2M3
A

E. E2V2M3

39
Q

Signs of cerebral herniation
A. Pupillary dilatation, systemic hypotension, bradycardia, decerebrate posturing
B. Pupillary dilatation, systemic hypertension, bradycardia, decerebrate posturing
C. Pupillary dilatation, systemic hypertension, tachycardia, decerebrate posturing
D. Pupillary dilatation, systemic hypotension, tachycardia, decerebrate posturing
E. Pupillary dilatation, systemic hypertension, bradycardia, decorticate posturing

A

B. Pupillary dilatation, systemic hypertension, bradycardia, decerebrate posturing

40
Q 
The hallmark of severe Traumatic Brain Injury
1/1
A. Apnea
B. Coma
C. Anisocoria
D. Lateral rectus palsy
E. Death
A

B. Coma

WISE (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions