Immunodeficiency/ FUO/ infections in immunocompromised/ infections associated with medical devices/ health advice for travelers Flashcards

1
Q

when will you evaluate the immune function of your patient?

A
  1. with CM of specific immune disorder
  2. (+) fam hx or early infant death
  3. recurrent infections such as..
    a. >1 systemic bacterial infection (sepsis/meningitis)
    b. >2 serious respi or documented bacterial infection (cellulitis, abscess, draining OM, pneumonia, lymphadenitis) within 1 year
    c. serious infection occuring in unusual sites (liver/brain abscess)
    d. infection with unusual pathogen (pneumocystis jiroveci, aspergillus, serratia marcescens, nocardia, burkholderia cepacia)
    e. infections with common childhood pathogen but unusual severity
  4. failure to thrive with or w/o chronic diarrhea
  5. persistent infection after receiving live vaccine
  6. chronic oral or cutaneous moniliasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Evaluation of immune function should be initiated in those rare infants or children who do have clinical manifestations of a specific immune disorder and in all who have a positive family history of early infant death or a known immunodeficiency disorder, unusual, chronic, or recurrent infections such as
A. 1 or more systemic bacterial infections (sepsis, meningitis)
B. 1 or more serious respiratory or documented bacterial infections (cellulits, abscesses, draining otitis media, pneumonia, lymphadenitis) within 2 years
C. Mild infections occurring at unusual sites (liver, brain abscess)
D. Infections with uncommon childhood pathogens but of usual severity

A

A. 1 or more systemic bacterial infections (sepsis, meningitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A simple screening test for B-cell defects is
A. Measurement of serum immunoglobulin (Ig)G
B. Measurement of serum immunoglobulin (Ig)E
C. Measurement of serum immunoglobulin (Ig)A
D.Measurement of serum immunoglobulin (Ig)M

A

C. Measurement of serum immunoglobulin (Ig)A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Characteristic clinical pattern of leukocyte adhesion defect
A. Hypocalcemia, unusual facies and ears, heart disease
B. Delayed umbilical cord detachment, leukocytosis, recurrent infections
C. Persistent thrush, failure to thrive, pneumonia, diarrhea
D. Bloody stools, draining ears, atopic eczema

A

B. Delayed umbilical cord detachment, leukocytosis, recurrent infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Usually present as a common clinical feature of immunodeficiency.
A. Hepatosplenomegaly
B. Failure to thrive or growth retardation for infants or children
C.Recurrent bronchitis or pneumonia
D. Paucity of lymph nodes and tonsils

A

D. Paucity of lymph nodes and tonsils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
Should be suspected if a patient has recurrent staphylococcal abscesses or gram-negative infections.
A. Killing defects of phagocytic cells
B. Complement defects
C. T-cell disorder
D. B-cell disorder
A

A. Killing defects of phagocytic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

True of Severe Combined Immunodeficiency.
A. All patients with SCID have very large thymuses
B. Lymph nodes, tonsils, adenoids, and Peyer patches are present or overdeveloped
C. Absence of all adaptive immune function
D. Not a true pediatric emergency

A

C. Absence of all adaptive immune function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Functional deficiency of Ataxia-telangiectasia
1/1
A. Absence of T- and B- cell functions
B. Selective IgA deficiency, T-cell deficiency
C. Marked deficiency of CD8 T cells; combined B- and T-cell defects
D. Failure of macrophages and other cells to produce TNF-alpha in response to IFN-gamma

A

B. Selective IgA deficiency, T-cell deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Presumed pathogenesis of adenosine deaminase deficiency.
A. Impaired mitochondrial energy metabolism and leukocyte differentiation
B. Abnormal signaling downstream of gamma c
C. Defective V(D)J recombination
D. Accumulation of toxic purine nucleosides

A

D. Accumulation of toxic purine nucleosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Combined immunodeficiency (CID) is distinguished from SCID by
A. Absence of all adaptive immune function
B. Lack of B cells and natural killer (NK) cells
C. Presence of low but not absent T-cell function
D. Lack T cells

A

C. Presence of low but not absent T-cell function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The most effective therapy for the autosomal dominant hyper-IgE syndrome is:
A. Long-term administration of therapeutic doses of a penicillinase-resistant antistaphylococcal antibiotic
B. Early antiviral treatment for herpes simplex, CMV, and varicella-zoster viral infections
C. Topical and nonabsorbable antimicrobial agents
D. Corticosteroids and immunosuppressive agents

A

A. Long-term administration of therapeutic doses of a penicillinase-resistant antistaphylococcal antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Most common serious bacterial infection in infants 1 to 3 months of age.
A. Pneumonia
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Meningitis
D. Sepsis
A

B. Pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
Most common pathogen identified in bacteremic infants 1 to 3 months of age.
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Salmonella infections
C. Group B Streptococcus
D. Escherichia coli
A

D. Escherichia coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
Effective initial antimicrobial regimen for ill-appearing infants without focal findings.
A. Meropenem + Gentamicin
B. Piperacillin-Tazobactam + Amikacin
C. Ampicillin + Cefotaxime
D. Penicillin G
A

C. Ampicillin + Cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
Risk factors indicating increased probability of occult bacteremia in infants 3 to 36 months of age.
A. Temperature >39C
B. WBC <15,000
C. Normal ESR or CRP
D. Low absolute neutrophil count
A

A. Temperature >39C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Definition of classic fever of unknown origin.
A. >38 C, >1 week, not present of incubating on admission
B. >38C, >3 weeks, >2 visits or 1 week in hospital
C. >38C, >1 week, negative cultures after 48 hours
D. >38C, >3 weeks for outpatients, >1 week for inpatients, HIV infection confirmed

A

B. >38C, >3 weeks, >2 visits or 1 week in hospital

17
Q

True of primary immunodeficiencies.
A. May result from malignancy
B. Infection with HIV
C. May result as an adverse effect of immunomodulating medication
D. Compromised states that result from genetic defects affecting 1 or more arms of the immune system

A

D. Compromised states that result from genetic defects affecting 1 or more arms of the immune system

18
Q

Terminal complement defects (C5, C6, C7, C8 and C9) are associated with:
A. Recurrent infections with Neisseria
B. Recurrent infections with Adenoviruses
C. Recurrent infections with Toxoplasma gondii
D. Recurrent infections with Aspergillus

A

A. Recurrent infections with Neisseria

19
Q
Major abnormality predisposing to infection in children with cancer.
A. Malnutrition
B. Neutropenia
C. Frequent hospitalization
D. Prolonged exposure to antibiotics
A

B. Neutropenia

20
Q

Host defense defects in pretransplant and preengraftment period in patients for bone marrow transplantation/hematopoietic stem cell transplantation.
A. Abnormal cell-mediated immunity
B. Delayed recovery of immune function
C. Neutropenia; abnormal anatomic barriers
D. Abnormal humoral immunity

A

C. Neutropenia; abnormal anatomic barriers

21
Q

Common pathogens in late posttransplant period of bone marrow transplant/hematopoietic stem cell transplant patients.
A. Varicella-zoster virus; Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Aerobic Gram-negative bacilli2
C. Candida; Aspergillus
D. Herpes simplex virus; community-acquired viral pathogens

A

A. Varicella-zoster virus; Streptococcus pneumoniae

22
Q

The most readily available technique to confirm catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI).
A. Culture of the catheter tip
B. Differential time to positivity of blood cultures
C. Quantitative blood cultures
D. Blood gram stain

A

B. Differential time to positivity of blood cultures

23
Q

Most common type of infection in cerebrospinal fluid shunts.
A. Infection associated with sound infection
B. Distal infection with peritonitis
C. Colonization of the shunt
D. Infection associated with meningitis

A

C. Colonization of the shunt

24
Q

Predominant organisms isolated in catheter-related urinary tract infection.
A. Candida spp.
B. Gram negative bacilli and Enterococcus spp
C. Coagulase-negtaive staphylococci
D. Streptecococcus pneumoniae

A

B. Gram negative bacilli and Enterococcus spp

25
Q
First and predominant sign of peritonitis in peritoneal dialysis catheter infection.
A. Cloudy peritoneal dialysis fluid
B. Low-grade fever
C. Mild abdominal pain or tenderness
D. Discharge in catheter site
A

A. Cloudy peritoneal dialysis fluid

26
Q
Parents of traveling children should seek medical consultation at least how many weeks before departure.
A. 1-2 weeks
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 3-4 weeks
D. 4-6 weeks
A

D. 4-6 weeks

27
Q
Most common vaccine-preventable disease occurring among pediatric and adult travelers.
A. Hepatitis B
B. Influenza 
C. Rabies
D. Salmonella infection
A

B. Influenza

28
Q
Interval dosing of 23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23) and 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13).
A. 4 or more weeks
B. No interval
C. 8 or more weeks
D. 1 week or less
A

C. 8 or more weeks

29
Q
Number of doses of rabies postexposure prophylaxis for previously vaccinated individuals.
A. 2 doses
B. 3 doses
C. 4 doses
D. 5 doses
A

A. 2 doses

30
Q
Preferred medication as malaria prophylaxis for periods of travel longer than 4 week to all other areas with chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum.
A. Atovaquone-proguanil
B. Doxycycline
C. Chloroquine
D. Mefloquine
A

D. Mefloquine