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WISE > CMV/ HSV/ E.coli/ Candida/ Pseudomonas/ Syphilis/ RSV/ Balantidium coli/ Giardia lamblia/ Toxoplasmosis/ Ascariasis > Flashcards

CMV/ HSV/ E.coli/ Candida/ Pseudomonas/ Syphilis/ RSV/ Balantidium coli/ Giardia lamblia/ Toxoplasmosis/ Ascariasis Flashcards

1
Q 
Most common long term sequela associated with congenital CMV infection
A. Hearing loss
B. Microcephaly
C. Hepatosplenomegaly
D. Small for gestational age
A

A. Hearing loss

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2
Q 
The diagnosis of congenital CMV infection requires the recovery of replicating virus and/or viral nucleic acids within the:
A. 1st 2 weeks of life
B 1st 3 weeks of live
C. 2nd week of life
D. 3rd week of life
A

B 1st 3 weeks of live

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3
Q 
Most common route of CMV infection in early childhood
A. Community exposure
B. Nosocomial transmission
C. Breastfeeding
D. Intrauterine infections
A

C. Breastfeeding

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4
Q 
Sources of virus and viral nucleic acids in congenital CMV infection include:
A. Saliva
B. Feces
C. Urine
D. A and C
A

D. A and C

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5
Q

The hallmarks of common HSV infections are:
A. Small skin fissures
B. Skin vesicles and shallow ulcers
C. Small erythematous nonvesicular lesions
D. Maculopapular rashes

A

B. Skin vesicles and shallow ulcers

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6
Q 
Most common manifestation of recurrent HSV-1 infections
A. Cutaneous infections
B. Herpes gingivostomatitis
C. Ocular infections
D. Cold sores
A

D. Cold sores

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7
Q 
Gold standard for diagnosing HSV infections
A. Virus culture
B. PCR
C. HSV antigen test
D. HSV immunoglobulin M
A

A. Virus culture

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8
Q 
Patients older than neonates who have herpes encephalitis should be promptly treated with:
A. Oral acyclovir
B. IV acyclovir
C. Valacyclovir
D. Famciclovir
A

B. IV acyclovir

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9
Q 
Most common cause of traveler's diarrhea
A. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
B. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
D. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
A

C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)

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10
Q 
Behave like Shigella in their capacity to invade gut epithelium and produce a dysentery-like illness
A. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
B. Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
C. Enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
D. Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)
A

A. Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)

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11
Q

Definitive diagnosis of invasive candidiasis requires:
A. Histlogic demonstration of the fungus in tissue specimens or recovery of the fungus from normally sterile body fluids
B. Gram stain of scrapings of skin lesions in KOH
C. Hematologic parameters like thrombocytopenia
D. Blood cultures

A

A. Histlogic demonstration of the fungus in tissue specimens or recovery of the fungus from normally sterile body fluids

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12
Q

Can be used as prophylaxis to decrease rates both colonization with Candida species and invasive fungal infections
A. Once a week fluconazole at 3 and 6 mg/kg/dose
B. Twice-weekly fluconazole at 3 and 6 mg/kg/dose
C. Once a day amphotericin B at 1mg/kg/day
D. Twice-weekly amphotericin B at 1mg/kg/day

A

B. Twice-weekly fluconazole at 3 and 6 mg/kg/dose

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13
Q 
Recommended length of therapy in infants for systemic antifungal from the last positive Candida culture
A. 14 days
B. 7 days
C. 21 days
D. 28 days
A

C. 21 days

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14
Q 
Mainstay of therapy for systemic candidiasis and is active against both yeast and mycelial forms
A. Fluconazole
B. Voriconazole
C. Amphotericin B lipid complex
D. Amphotericin B deoxycholate
A

D. Amphotericin B deoxycholate

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15
Q 
The characteristic skin lesions of P. aeruginosa, whether caused by direct inoculation or a metastatic focus secondary to septicemia is called
A. Ecthyma gangrenosum
B. Pink macules
C. Hemorrhagic nodules
D. Eschar formation
A

A. Ecthyma gangrenosum

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16
Q 
Appropriate antibiotics for single-agent therapy for Pseudomonas infection include:
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Cefotaxime
C. Piperacillin-tazobactam
D. Ampicillin-sulbactam
A

C. Piperacillin-tazobactam

17
Q 
P. aeruginosa meningitis is best treated with
A. Ceftriaxone + Gentamicin
B. Ceftazidime + Gentamicin
C. Cefuroxime + Amikacin
D. Ampicillin-sulbactam + Amikacin
A

B. Ceftazidime + Gentamicin

18
Q 
20. A frequent focus preceding Pseudomonas bacteremia in infants is
A. Pneumonia
B. Meningitis
C. Conjunctivitis
D. Wound infection
A

C. Conjunctivitis

19
Q

Are sensitive nontreponemal tests that detect antibodies against phospholipid antigens on the treponeme surface that cross-react with cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigens of damaged host cells
A. T. pallidum particle agglutination test
B. T. pallidum hemagglutination assay
C. Flouresecent treponemal antibody absorption test
D. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)

A

D. Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) and Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR)

20
Q 
Are used to confirm diagnosis and measure specific T. pallidum antibodies
A. Treponemal tests
B. VDRL
C. RPR
D. Treponemal RPR
A

A. Treponemal tests

21
Q 
The only documented effective treatment for congenital syphilis, syphilis during pregnancy and neurosyphilis
A. Ceftriaxone
B. Penicillin G
C. Cefotaxime
D. Ampicillin
A

B. Penicillin G

22
Q 
Duration of treatment for congenital syphilis
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 10 days
D. 21 days
A

C. 10 days

23
Q 
The major cause of bronchiolitis and viral pneumonia in children younger than 1 year of age and is the most important respiratory tract pathogen of early childhood
A. RSV
B. Influenza virus
C. Parainfluenza virus type 3
D. Human metapneumovirus
24
Q 
The first sign of infection in infants with RSV
A. Cough
B. Fever
C. Rhinorrhea
D. Dyspnea
A

C. Rhinorrhea

25
``` Definitive diagnosis of RSV infection A. RSV antigen test B. Detection in respiratory secretions of live virus by cell culture C. RSV RT-PCR D. RSV antibody test ```
B. Detection in respiratory secretions of live virus by cell culture
26
``` A neutralizing humanized murine monoclonal antibody recommended as passive immunoprophylaxis for protecting high-risk children against serious complications from RSV A. Alemtuzumab B. Bevacizumab C. RItuximab D. Palivizumab ```
D. Palivizumab
27
Tests of choice for gardiasis A. Stool enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or direct fluorescent antibody tests for Giardia antigens B. Microscopy documentation of trophozoites or cysts in stool specimen C. PCR for Giardia D. Gene probe-based detection of Giardia
A. Stool enzyme immunoassay (EIA) or direct fluorescent antibody tests for Giardia antigens
28
``` Recommended treatment of choice for giardiasis A. Cotrimoxazole B. Ciprofloxacin C. Tinidazole D. Cefixime ```
C. Tinidazole
29
``` Recommended treatment regimen for balantidiasis A. Cotrimoxazole B. Tinidazole C. Ciprofloxacin D. Metronidazole ```
D. Metronidazole
30
Most important means for control of balantidiasis A. Prevention of contamination of the environment by pig feces B. Avoiding uncooked foods that might have been grown, washed, or prepared with water that was potentially contaminated C. Children in diapers should avoid swimming if they have diarrhea D. Purify public water supplies adequately
A. Prevention of contamination of the environment by pig feces
31
The most common manifestation of acute acquired toxoplasmosis A. Fever B. Enlargement of 1 or few cervical lymph nodes C. Stiff neck D. Maculopapular rash
B. Enlargement of 1 or few cervical lymph nodes
32
Characteristic triad for congenital toxoplasmosis A. Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications B. Lymphadenopathy, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus C.Hydrops fetalis, small for gestational age, prematurity D. Peripheral retinal scars, persistent jaundice, mild thrombocytopenia
A. Chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications
33
``` Treatment of congenital toxoplasmosis A. Spiramycin, sulfadiazine, leucovorin B. Pyrimethamine, Sulfadiazine C. Pyrimethamine, Sulfadiazine, Leucovorin D. Pyrimethamine, Spiramycin ```
C. Pyrimethamine, Sulfadiazine, Leucovorin
34
``` May be the sole clinical neurologic manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis A. Seizures B. Encephalopathy C. Microcephaly D. Hydrocephalus ```
D. Hydrocephalus
35
``` Life span of adult worms of A. lumbricoides A. 10-24 months B. 2-4 months C. 1-2 weeks D. 2-5 days ```
A. 10-24 months
36
``` 38. Used for diagnosis of ascriasis A. Ultrasound of the whole abdomen B. Microscopic examination of fecal smears C. Stool culture D. Stool ELISA ```
B. Microscopic examination of fecal smears
37
``` Treatment of choice for ascariasis with intestinal or biliary obstruction A. Mebendazole B. Albendazole C. Piperazine citrate D. Ivermectin ```
C. Piperazine citrate
38
``` Adult worms of A. lumbricoides inhabit which part of the GI tract A. Stomach B. Large intestine C. Rectum D. Small intestine ```
D. Small intestine

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