Section 7 Flashcards

Pathology, Radiology, and Neurology

1
Q

When the following tumor is associated with meningiomas and basal cell nevus syndrome, the most likely abnormality occurs on which chromosome?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 9
D. 11
E. 22

A

C. 9

Medulloblastoma, here characterized by large blue nuclei with little cytoplasm molded to each other and Homer-Wright rosettes. When part of Gorlin’s syndrome (chromosome 9), it can be associated with meningioma and benign cell nevus
syndrome. In medulloblastomas, WNT has the best prognosis and group 3 has the worst. Other types, including sonic hedgehog (SHH) and group 4, have intermediate prognosis.

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1
Q

While preparing for surgery for the following posterior fossa tumor, the surgeon and anesthesiologist should be aware of
A. Risk of hypertension
B. Risk of hematuria
C. Pressure points due to associated cutaneous neurofibromas
D. Difficult intubation due to sphenoid dysplasia
E. Risk of seizures

A

A. Risk of hypertension

Hemangioblastoma is the most common primary intra-axial tumor in the posterior fossa. Radiologically, it typically appears cystic with an enhancing mural nodule. Histologically, it is characterized by hemorrhage and dear cells (not to be confused with metastatic renal cell carcinoma, which would be positive for EMA). It stains positive for reticulin and vimentin. In 20% of cases, it is associated with van Hippel-Lindau (VHL) disease (chromosome 3 ). Pheochromocytoma occurs in 10% of cases ofVHL and can cause severe hypertension during surgery. Patients should be screened by plasma metanephrine, urinary catecholamines, metanephrine, and VMA.

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2
Q

The following applies to malignant hyperthermia, except
A. Autosomal dominant inheritance
B. Caused by a defect in porphobilinogen deaminase
C. Elevated creatine kinase (CK)
D. Hyperlcalemia
E. Treated with dantrolene

A

B. Caused by a defect in porphobilinogen deaminase

Malignant hyperthermia is autosomal dominant, on chromosome 19q, is caused by ryanodine receptor mutation, and causes increased Ca++ release from sarcoplasmic reticulum, increased CK, hyperkalemia, and myoglobinuria. It occurs with halothane and succinylcholine, and is characterized by fever, rigidity, hyperventilation, tachycardia, dysrhythmia, hypertension, and hypotension. Treatment includes dantrolene. Defect in porphobilinogen deaminase is associated with acute intermittent porphyria, not malignant hyperthermia.

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2
Q

The following tumor was removed from the lateral ventricle of an adult male and was positive for synaptophysin. What is the diagnosis?
A. Oligodendroglioma
B. Medulloblastoma
C. Choroid plexus papilloma
D. Subependymoma
E. Central neurocytoma

A

E. Central neurocytoma

Central neurocytomas are intraventricular tumors of young adults. They occur in the region of the foramen of Monro, typically attach to the septum pellucidum, and enhance with contrast (moderate and heterogeneous). Histologically, they are small cells with halos and ca.n be mistaken for oligodendrogliomas. Immunohistochemistry is positive for synaptophysin, and electron microscopy reveals dense-core synaptic vesicles. Subependymomas are common in the fourth ventricle and don’t enhance. Histologically, they have a spongy appearance with microcysts.

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3
Q

A unilateral headache in a young adult male associated with rhinorrhea, lacrimation, and conjunctival injection is characteristic of
A. Classic migraine
B. Common migraine
C. Migraine variant
D. Cluster headache
E. Temporal arteritis

A

D. Cluster headache

Cluster headache is a “hypersecretion” headche due to parasympathetic discharge. dassic migraine has aura while common migraine has no aura. Migraine variant has less headache and more neurological deficits. Temporal arteritis is characterized by headache, jaw pain, shoulder pain, loss
of vision, thick tender scalp vessels, high ESR, and giant cells on temporal a biopsy. Treat with corticosteroids until the ESR is normal.

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3
Q

A 74-year-old female presents with a 2-week history of speech impainnent and right upper
extremity weakness. She subsequently worsened neurologically and died. Autopsy findings are below. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Left MCA aneurysm
B. Pericallosal artery aneurysm
C. Hypertensive bleed
D. Amyloid angiopathy
E. Arterio-venous malformation

A

Cerebral amylold angiopathy characterized by amyloid deposition in the vessel wall replacing the media. The patient is elderly with multifocal intracerebral hemorrhage.

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3
Q

A 48-year-old male presents with stupor and right-sided hemiplegia. The patient’s grade is
A. Hunt and Hess Ill, Fisher 3
B. Hunt and Hess IV, Fisher 4
C. Hunt and Hess III, Fisher 4
D. Hunt and Hess IV, Fisher 3
E. Hunt and Hess V, Fisher 4

A

B. Hunt and Hess IV, Fisher 4

Because of hemiplegia, the patient is Hunt and Hess grade IV, and with intraventricular blood, the patient is Fisher grade 4

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4
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles and neuritic plaques are characteristic of which disease?
A. Alzheimer’s
B. Pick’s
C. Wilson’s
D. Parkinson’s
E. Hallervorden-Spatz

A

A. Alzheimer’s

Alzheimer’s disease is characterized by neurofibrillary tangles (tau protein), neuritic plaques (P/a protein amyloid), and Hirano bodies. Pick’s disease is characterized by Pick bodies, Parkinson’s disease by Lewy bodies, Wilson’s disease by Opalski cells, and Hallervorden-Spatz disease by iron deposition in SN and GP.

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5
Q

A cerebral angiogram is performed, revealing an aneurysm of
A. ACOM
B. MCA
C. Pericallosal artery
D. PCOM
E. Paraclinoid

A

A. ACOM

The angiogram reveals an ACOM aneurysm (arrow).

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5
Q

Which of the following vasculitides affects large and medium-sized vessels and causes interstitial
keratitis, Meniere’s symptoms. hearing loss, and
cavernous sinus thrombosis?
A. Cogan’s syndrome
B. Behcet’s disease
C. Buerger’s disease
D. Wegener’s granulomatosis
E. Takayasu’s arteritis

A

A. Cogan’s syndrome

Cogan’s syndrome can manifest by interstitial keratitis, Meniere’s symptoms, hearing loss, headaches, peripheral neuropathy, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. Behi;et’s disease is characterized by orogenital ulcers, arthritis, and uveitis. Buerger’s disease (or thromboangiitis obliterans) occurs with tobacco smoking. Wegener’s granulomatosis
affects respiratory, renal, and intracranial vessels and causes periphenl and cranial neuropathies. Takayasu’s arteritis affects the aorta and pulmonary arteries md can cause visual losss.

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5
Q

Which of the following does not apply to the tumor depicted below?
A. Male predominance
B. Mostly supratentoriat
C. High recurrence rate
D. Never metastasizes
E. Excessive bleeding in surgery

A

D. Never metastasizes

Staghorn blood vt5sels are characteristic of hemangiopericytoma. They also stain positive for reticulin. They arc common in middle-age, with slight male preponderance. They tend to recur and can metastasize.

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6
Q

Gargoyle face, thick meninges, deafness, and
hepatosplenomegaly are found in which mucopotysaccharidose?
A. Hunter’s syndrome
B. Hurler’s disease
C. Sanfilippo’s syndrome
D. Morquio’s syndrome
E. Maroteaux-Lamy syndrome

A

B. Hurler’s disease

Hurler’s disease (mucopolysaccharidoseMPS1H) is m autosomal recessive disease due to a-Liduronidase deficiency. Features include: Zebra bodies, increased urine heparin and dermatan sulfate, gargoyle face, mental retardation, and hepatosplenomegaly.

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7
Q

A cherry-red spot in the macula is found in all of the following lysosomal storage diseases, except
A. GMl gangliosidosis
B. Sandhoff’s disease
C. Tay-Sachs disease
D. Gaucher’s disease
E. Niemann-Pick’s disease

A

D. Gaucher’s disease

A cherry-red spot In the macula Is characteristic of GMl gangliosidosis, Sandhoffs disease, Tay-Sachs disease. and Niemann-Pick’s disease. Gaucher’s disease and Fabry’s diseaSe do not have a cherry-red spot in the macula.

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7
Q

The following depicted abnormality is caused by a disorder of
A. Primary neuruJation
B. Secondary neurulation
C. Ventral induction
D. Migration

A

C. Ventral induction

MRI reveals a lobar holoprosencephaly, which Is a disorder of ventral induction that occurs between 5 and 10 weeks.

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8
Q

A defect in hypoxanthine guanine phospho-ribosyl transferase (HGPRT) causes
A. Lesch-Nyhan disease
B. Menke’s kinky hair disease
C. Lowe’s syndrome
D. Zellweger’s syndrome
E. Leigh’s disease

A

A. Lesch-Nyhan disease

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9
Q

Collet-Sicard syndrome involves all of the following cranial nerves, except
A. VII
B. IX
C. X
D. XI
E. XII

A

A. VII

Collet-Sicard syndrome is a unilateral lower cranial nerve syndrome. It affects cranial nerves IX-XII. It is caused by skull base lesions dose to the jugular foramen, e.g.. glomus jugulare tumor or occipital condyle fractmes.

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10
Q

The tumor depicted in the following figure can be associated with all of the following, except
A. Seizures
B. Posterior fossa location
C. Subungal fibroma (Koenen tumor)
D. Adenoma sebaceum (facial angiofibroma)
E. Cardiac rhabclomyoma

A

B. Posterior fossa location

Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma (SEGA) can be associated with tuberous sdcerosis. It is inherited on chromosome 9 or 16 as autosomal dominant. SEGA occurs in the region of the foramen of Monro and is characterized by large cells with large eccentric nuclei.

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11
Q

The lesion depicted in the following Tl-weighted MRI without contrast is most likely a(n)
A. Subependymoma
B. Choroid plexus papilloma
C. Colloid cyst
D. Ependymoma
E. Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma (SEGA)

A

C. Colloid cyst

Colloid cysts occur in the region of foramen of Monro and are typically hyperdense on a non-contrast head CT, hyperintense on Tl MRI, and hypointense on T2 MRI.

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11
Q

The abnormality depicted in this MRI is caused by a congenital anomaly that occurs at which gestational age?
A. 3-4 weeks
B. 4-5 weeks
C. 5-10 weeks
D. 2-5 months
E. After 5 months

A

B. 4-5 weeks

MRI reveals diastematomyelia, or split spinal cord, which occurs due to abnormal disjunction (secondary neurulation) at 4-5 weeks gestation.

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12
Q

The following tumor was most likely removed from
A. The temporal lobe of a child with seizures
B. The cerebellum of a child
C. The fourth ventricle In an adult
D. The lateral ventricle at the foramen of Monro
E. The frontal lobe of an adult with seizures

A

A. The temporal lobe of a child with seizures

Dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor (DNET) typically occurs in the temporal lobe in children and causes seizures. It is characterized by neurons floating in mucinous material, chicken wire vessels, and small oligodendrocyte-like cells.

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13
Q

The following are the histological findings when this posterior fossa mass was removed. What is the diagnosis?
A. Pilocytic astrocytoma
B. Hemangioblastoma
C. Blastomycosis
D. Ependymoma
E. Medulloblastoma

A

C. Blastomycosis

Blastomycosis is characterized by budding yeast.

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13
Q

The following is an axial CT scan at T10 performed on a 13-year-old boy with back pain that responds well to Aspirin. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Osteoblastoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Chondrosarcoma
D. Paget’s disease
B. Osteoid osteoma

A

B. Osteoid osteoma

Osteoid osteoma occurs in children, has a target sign on CT, and responds well to NSAIDs.

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14
Q

Hearing loss, visual loss, peripheral neuropathy, and impaired microtubule function are observed with which of the following toxicities?
A. Arsenic
B. Lead
C. Mercury
D. Cisplatin
E. Methotrexate

A

D. Cisplatin

Cisplatincausesperipheralneuropathy, impaired hearing, and vision. Cisplatin attacks tubulin which affects microtubule function. Vincristine and vinblastine impair microtubule function, resulting in axonal peripheral neuropathy. Mercury affects the rough endoplasmic reticulum, thus inhibiting translation and causes peripheral neuropathy.

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15
Q

Lisch nodules are a feature of which phacomatosis?
A. Neurofibromatosis type 1
B. Neurofibromatosis type 2
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Von Hippel-Lindau disease
E. Stmge-Weber syndrome

A

A. Neurofibromatosis type 1

Lisch nodules are a major diagnostic criterion for NFl, which is inherited as autosomal dominant on chromosome 17. NF2 is characterized by bilateral vestibular schwannomas, tuberous sclerosis by SEGA, facial angiofibroma and ash leaf spots, and von Hippel-Lindau by hemangioblastomas. Sturge-Weber features tram-track calcification of blood vessels (on CT) and port-wine stain of the skin of the face.

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16
Q

Synaptophysin is usually positive in
A. Central neurocytoma
B. Craniopharyngioma
C. Meningioma
D. Oligodendroglioma
E. Germinoma

A

A. Central neurocytoma

Synaptophysin is positive in central neurocytoma (synaptic vesicles are seen on electron microscopy), vimentin and epithelial membrane antigen (EMA) in meningiomas, placental alkaline phosphatase in germinoma, and 1p19q deletion in
oligodendrogliomas.

17
Q

The first line of treatment in status epilepticus is
A. Barbiturates
B. Benzodiazepines
C. Phenytoin
D. Carbamazepine
E. Propofol

A

B. Benzodiazepines

A benzodiazepine (lorazepam [Ativan) 0.1 mg/ kg IV, diazepam (Valium) 0.2 mg/kg IV, or midazolam [Versed] 0.2 mg/kg) is the first line of treatment in status epilepticus, in addition to loading with Dilantin.

18
Q

The brain biopsy depicted below is from an AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome) patient
with multiple brain lesions. The diagnosis is
A. Lymphoma
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Metastasis
D. Cryptococcal meningitis
B. Herpes encephalitis

A

B. Toxoplasmosis

Toxoplasmosis is a common infection in AIDS patients. Radiologically, a ring-enhancing lesion with a target sign is seen on CT or MRI (a). Histologically, bradyzoites are bound in cysts (bags) (b, arrow), while tachyzoites are loose (c, arrow).

19
Q

Peripheral neuropathy with basophilic stippling of red blood corpuscles is characteristic of which toxicity?
A. Methanol
B. Arsenic
C. Mercucy
D. Manganese
E. Lead

A

E. Lead

Basophilic stippling of red blood corpuscles is characteristic of lead poisoning, mercury causes defective translation and affects the cerebellum, manganese causes neuronal loss in the pallidum and striatum, and arsenic causes Mees’ lines
(transverse white lines on finger nails) and pancytopenia while methanol causes necrosis of putamen and claustrum, optic disc swelling, and high anion gap acidosis

20
Q

During brainstem auditory evoked responses (BAER). the wave that conesponds to the lateral
lemniscus is number
A. II
B. III
C. IV
D. V
E. VI

A

C. IV

BAER waves: I, cochlear nerve; II, cochlear nuclei; III, superior olivary nucleus; IV, lateral lemniscus; V, inferior colliculus; VI, medial geniculate body; and VII, auditory radiation.

20
Q

The following axial T2-weighted MRI at L4-L5 from a patient presenting with left L5 radiculopathy is mostly consistent with
A. Cystic schwannoma
B. Meningioma
C. Tarlov cyst
D. Synovial cyst
E. Metastasis

A

D. Synovial cyst

Synovial cysts are common at L4-L5 level, usually unilateral, associated with the facet joints, and hyperintense on T2 due to synovial fluid content. Flexion/extension X-rays may demonstrate instability. Tarlov cysts are described in the sacrum. Schwannomas and meningiomas are typically intradural. Metastases are usually associated with the pedicle or vertebral body, not the facet joints.

21
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is associated with abnormality of
A. Dystrophin
B. Ryanodine receptor
C. Cu/Zn superaxide dismutase
D. Phytanic acid oxidase
B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase

A

C. Cu/Zn superaxide dismutase

Cu/Zn superoxide dismutase abnormality is associated with ALS, dystrophin with Duchenne, Becker, and limb-girdle muscle dystrophy, ryanodine receptor with malignant hyperthermia, phytanic acid oxidase with Refsum’s disease, and phenylalanine hydroxylase with phenylketonuria.

22
Q

Fibrillation potential can be observed on EMC in the following cases, exapt
A. Motor cortex stroke
B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C. Poliomyelitis
D. Radiculopathy
E. Peripheral neumpathy

A

A. Motor cortex stroke

Fibrillation potential is a spontaneous action potential obtained when a muscle is denervated (lower motor disease, B-E).

23
Q

Opsoclonus-myoclonus can occur in breast cancer and correlate with which of the following
antibodies?
A. Anti-Ri
B. Anti-Hu
C. Anti-Tr
D. Anti-Yo
B. Anti-Jo

A

A. Anti-Ri

Anti-Ri occurs in breast cancer and causes opsodonus-myodonus, anti-Hu in small cell lung cancer and lymphoma and causes peripheral neuropathy, anti-Tr in Hodgkin’s lymphoma and involves the anterior horn cells and cerebellum, anti-Yo in ovarian cancer and affects the cerebellum, and anti-Jo in cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis and causes polymyositis.

24
Q

All of the following characterize Cowden’s disease, except
A. Abnormality in chromosome 9
B. Lhermitte-Duclos disease
C. Breast cancer
D. Uterine cancer
E. Thyroid cancer

A

A. Abnormality in chromosome 9

Cowden’s disease is inherited as autosomal dominant on chromosome 10 (PTEN mutation).

25
Q

Hypsarrhythmias observed on EEG are characteristicof
A. Juvenile myodonic epilepsy (JME)
B. Infantile spasms (West syndrome)
C. Benign focal epilepsy of childhood
D. Petit mal (absence) epilepsy
E. Grand mal epilepsy

A

B. Infantile spasms (West syndrome)

Hypsarrhythmia is characterized by bilateral large slow waves with multifocal spikes on EEG. It occurs in West syndrome (infantile spasms). Treatment includes ACTH. Spikedome waves occur in absence (3 Hz), JME (4-6 Hz), and Lennox-Gastaut (1-2 Hz). Benign focal epilepsy of childhood is characterized by centrotemporal spikes.

26
Q

The structure shown below (arrow) is typically seen in which tumor?
A. Pineocytoma
B. Pineoblastoma
C. Medulloblastoma
D. Ependymoma
E. Neuroblastoma

A

D. Ependymoma

Ependymomas are characterized by pseudorosettes that occur around blood vessels. Medulloblastomas have Homer-Wright rosettes (no central vessel or Inman). Pineoblastomas, retinoblastomas, and ependymomas have Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes (columnar cells with central lumen), while pineocytomas have very large rosettes.

27
Q

In multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 (MEN1), pituitary adenonw are assodattd with parathyroid and pancreatic islet tumors. This is typically due to an abnormality on which chromosome?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 9
D. 11
E. 17

A

D. 11

MEN 1 (Wermer’s syndrome) is inherited as autosomal dominant on chromosome 11.

28
Q

When atrophy of the shoulder and pelvic girdles is associated with calf pseudohypertrophy and a
positive Gower’s test. the most likely diagnosis is
A. Mitochondrial myopathy
B. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy
C. Keams-Sayre syndrome
D. Emery-Dreifuss muscular dystrophy
E. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

A

E. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy

Duchenne’s muscle dystrophy is characterized by atrophy of the shoulder and pelvic girdles, calf pseudohypertrophy and positive Gower’s test. There is also congestive heart failure, respiratory infections, and occasionally mental retardation. It is inherited as X-linked recessive. There is decreased dystrophin and increased CK as well as muscle fiber necrosis and regeneration. Treatment includes corticosteroids.

29
Q

A 38-year-old female is being worked up for acute onset of headaches and vertigo. The vessel shown by the arrow on her DSA is
A. PCOM
B. Anterior choroidal a
C. Persistent trigeminal a
D. Hypoglossal a
E. Proatlantal a

A

C. Persistent trigeminal a

Persistent trigeminal a occurs in 0.1-0.5% of cerebral angiograms. It connects the precavernow or proximal cavernous ICA to the basilar a. Note that the vessel feeds the basilar bifurcation into PCAs. It usually oourses in Meckel’s cave. Hypoglossal a connects cervical ICA to basilar a while proatlantal a connects ECA or cervical ICA to vertebral a. Otic (acoustic) a is rare and coMects petrous ICA to basilar a.

29
Q

On inununohistochemistry, the tumor depicted below is typically positive for
A. Epithelial membrane antigen (EMA)
B. Glial fibrillary acid protein (GFAP)
C. S100
D. Transthyretin
E. Cytokeratin

A

A. Epithelial membrane antigen (EMA)

Meningiomas are positive for EMA and vimentin. The photomicrograph shows a meningioma with its characteristic whorls and a calcified psammoma body (arrow). GFAP is characteristic of astrocytomas, 5100 schwannomas and neurofibromas, and transthyretin in choroid plexus papilloma. Chordomas are positive for cytokeratin, EMA, and 5100.

30
Q

The main finding on the CT scan shown below is
A. C1-C2 subluxation
B. Atlanto-occipital dislocation (AOD)
C. Type II dens fracture
D. Jefferson fracture
E. Rupture of the transverse ligament of atlas

A

B. Atlanto-occipital dislocation (AOD)

AOD is observed on CT, note the increase in the basion-dens interval on the sagittal view (normally <12 mm on X-ray) and the splaying of the joint between the occipital condyle and the lateral mass of C1, especially on the left side.

31
Q

The following pathological findings from a clival tumor are consistent with
A. Meningioma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Chordoma
D. Chondrosarcoma
E. Metastasis

A

C. Chordoma

Chordomas are characterized by physaliphorow (large vacuolated) cells and a mucinous background They are common in the sacrum and clivus and are bright on T2 MRI. Surgery is the best cure. En-bloc resection should be performed whenever possible, proton beam therapy could be applied to residual tumor.

32
Q

The following T1-weighted MRI imagoes with contrast and diffusion are consistent with the diagnosis of
A. Dennoid tumor
B. Epidermoid tumor
C. Arachnoid cyst
D. Vestibular schwannoma
E. Meningioma

A

B. Epidermoid tumor

Epidermoid cyst, brain abscess, and infarction are bright on diffusion (restricted). Also, lymphoma, co. prion disease, and ADEM show restricted diffusion.

33
Q

The following MRl findings are characteristic for
A. Germinoma
B. Teratoma
C. Dermoid cyst
D. Giant thrombosed basilar tip aneurysm
E. Vein of Galen malformation

A

E. Vein of Galen malformation

Vein of Galen malformation: well-circumscribed pineal region mass with heterogeneous signal due to blood content Note compression of the aqueduct and hydrocephalus. They can present with heart failure in neonates or hydrocephalus later in life.

34
Q

The vessel causing the blush from the tumor depicted below is the
A. A of Bernasconi and cassinari
B. McConnell’s capsular a
C. A of Percheron
D. Inferior hypophyseal a
E. Superior hypophyseal a

A

A. A of Bernasconi and cassinari

Presented is the typical location of the tentorial a of Bernasconi and cassinari. It causes a blush in tentorial meningiomas. It originates from the meningohypophyseal trunk that also gM5 the inferior hypophyseal a and the dorsal meningeal a. Other branches of the cavernous ICA are the McConnell’s capsular a and the inferior cavernous a. The superior hypophyseal a is a branch of the ophthalmic segment. The a of Percheron is a variable branch of Pl segment of the PCA and supplies both thalami.

35
Q

The findings in the following picture are typical for
A. Plasmacytoma
B. Central neurocytoma
C. MedullobJastoma
D. Greminoma
E. Primary CNS lymphoma

A

E. Primary CNS lymphoma

Large B-cells with prominent nudeoli are characteristic of CNS lymphoma. Cells are CD 20+. They can be perivascular and/or intravascular. There is increased risk with AIDS. Lesions are periventricular, enhance, and show restricted diffusion.

36
Q

A 32-year-old female presents with blurring of vision and left arm numbness. MRI findings are consistent with
A. Transient is chemic attacks (TIAs)
B. Brain abscesses
C. Hypertension
D. Multiple sclerosis (MS)
E. Gliomatosis cerebri

A

D. Multiple sclerosis (MS)

T2 hyperintensity on Flair MRI (frequently described as Dawson’s fingers), and mild contrast enhancement in a young female are typical for MS. Symptoms are usually remittent. The blurry vision probably correlates with optic neuritis. The diagnosis can be confirmed by oligodonal bands on lumbar puncture. Treatment includes cortioosteroids, interferon beta, plasmapheresis, dimethyl fumarate (Tecfidera), ocrelizumab (Ocrevus), daclizumab (Zinbryta), and glatiramer acetate (Copaxone).

37
Q

Macrocephaly is observed with which leukodystrophy?
A. Canavan’s disease
B. Krabbe’s disease
C. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
D. Adrenoleulcodystrophy
E. Pelizaeus-Merzbacher disease

A

A. Canavan’s disease

Macrocephaly is typical in Tay-Sachs disease, Canavan’s disease, and Alexander’s disease while microcephaly is found in Krabbe’s disease.

38
Q

The following MRI findings are more likely to be seen in
A. Sporadic meningioma
B. Neurofibromatosis type 1
C. Neurofibromatosis type 2
D. Tuberous sclerosis
E. Von Hippel-Lindau disease

A

C. Neurofibromatosis type 2

NF2 patients develop bilateral vestibularschwannomas and meningiomas. The disease is inherited as autosomal dominant on chromosome 22.

39
Q

The following histological finding is typical for
A. Measles
B. Rabies
C. Parkinson’s disease
D. Alzheimer’s disease
B. Amyotrophic lateral sderosis

A

C. Parkinson’s disease

Lewy body (rounded pink with a halo) observed in a substantia nigra cell is typical for Parkinson’s disease. Its main component is a-synudein. Other components include ubiquitin, neurofilament, and alpha beta crystallin.

40
Q

The following two MRI findings most lilcely show
A. Cranyopharyngoma
B. Rathke’s cleft cyst
C. Pituitary adenoma
D. Lymphocytic hypophysitis
E. Germinoma

A

B. Rathke’s cleft cyst

Rathke’s cleft cysts have a typical MRI appearance. They are well-circumscribed intra and/or suprasellar masses. have variable signal on T1, and are usually hyperintense on n. The pituitary gland is typically inferior to the tumor and enhances,
giving it the appearance of an egg in a cup (“un ceuf dans son coquetier”-French). The cysts probably arise from remnants of Rathke’s pouch. Biopsy and drainage of the cyst via a transsphenoidal approach are usually sufficient to establish the diagnosis and relieve the symptoms.

41
Q

The following CT is from a patient that presents with incomplete spinal cord injury. The most
important step that affects the patient’s outcome is
A. MRI
B. Awake reduction with traction
C. ACDF (anterior cervical discectomy and fusion)
D. PCF (posterior cervical fusion)
R. Halo-vest stabilization

A

B. Awake reduction with traction

The CT shows jumped facets. The patient’s spine should be reduced as soon as possible using Gardner-Wells tongs or a halo ring. Reduction could be done either awake in the emergency room with serial X-rays and neurological examinations or asleep in the operating room with neurophysiological monitoring (SSEP and MEP). Prior to reduction, an MRI can be obtained to rule out acute disc herniation.

42
Q

The lesion depicted by the following T1-(a) and T2-weighted (b) MRI pictures most likely
represents
A. Giant thrombosed aneurysm
B. Meningioma
C. Intraparenchymal hematoma
D. Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)
E. Pteomorphic xanthoastrocytOma (PXA)

A

A. Giant thrombosed aneurysm

This well-circumscribed mass with variable signal intensity on T1 and n due to blood content is likely a giant thrombosed aneurysm. A vascular study (CTA, MRA, or DSA) is the next step. Stereotactic biopsy should not be offered and may cause fatal bleeding.

43
Q

All of the following are features of myasthenia gravis, except
A. Association with thymomas
B. Extraocular muscle weakness
C. Antibodies to nicotinic acetytcholine receptors
D. Incremental response to repetitive nerve stimulation
E. Treatment with anticholinesterase medications

A

D. Incremental response to repetitive nerve stimulation

Repetitive stimulation of a motor nerve causes decremental response in myastheniagravis ( exhaustion of Ach stores) but incremental response in Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (facilitation).

44
Q

The following histologic findings are consistent with
A. Meningioma
B. Fibrillary astrocytoma
C. Glioblastoma multiforme
D. Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma (PXA)
E. Pilocytic astrocytoma

A

E. Pilocytic astrocytoma

Cystic areas and Rosenthal fibers (arrow) are characteristic of pilocytic astrocytoma.

45
Q

Which of the following finds correspond with Measles?
A. Negri bodies
B. Bunina bodies
C. Hirano bodies
D. Lewy bodies
E. Multinucleated cells

A

E. Multinucleated cells

Measles: multinucleated cells

46
Q

Which of the following finds correspond with Alzheimer’s disease?
A. Negri bodies
B. Bunina bodies
C. Hirano bodies
D. Lewy bodies
E. Multinucleated cells

A

C. Hirano bodies

Alzheimer’s: Hirano bodies

46
Q

Which of the following finds correspond with Rabies?
A. Negri bodies
B. Bunina bodies
C. Hirano bodies
D. Lewy bodies
E. Multinucleated cells

A

A. Negri bodies

Rabies: Negri bodies

47
Q

Which of the following finds correspond with Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)?
A. Negri bodies
B. Bunina bodies
C. Hirano bodies
D. Lewy bodies
E. Multinucleated cells

A

B. Bunina bodies

ALS: Bunina bodies

48
Q

Which of the following finds correspond with Parkinson’s disease?
A. Negri bodies
B. Bunina bodies
C. Hirano bodies
D. Lewy bodies
E. Multinucleated cells

A

D. Lewy bodies

Parkinson’s: Lewy bodies