Section 6

Question 1

Which of the following vasopressors has no beta
stimulant effect?
A. Dopamine
B. Dobutamine
C. Epinephrine
D. Norepinephrine (Levophed)
E. Phenylephrine (Neosynepluine)

Answer 1

E. Phenylephrine (Neosynepluine)

Phenylephrine (Neosynephrine) is predominantly alpha-1 stimulant, isoproterenol beta dobutamine beta-1, NE alpha-1 alpha-2 beta-1, epinephrine alpha-1alpha-2 beta-1 beta-2, and dopamine alpha-1alpha-2 beta-1 beta-2.

Question 2

An injury in the location marked by the arrow will most likely cause
A. Claw hand
B. Benediction hand
C. Wrist drop
D. Froment’s sign
E. Inability to make the OK sign

Answer 2

C. Wrist drop

In this location above the elbow, the only large mixed n on the lateral side of the arm is the radial n after it exits the spiral groove. Injury in this location causes wrist drop and spares the triceps. The lateral antebrachial cutaneous n is also dose by, but it is purely sensory. The median n is anteromedial and can cause Benediction hand. The ulnar n is posteromedial and can cause Fromenfs sign and ulnar claw hand. Inability to make the OK sign is caused by injury to the AIN, which is deep in the anterior forearm.

Question 2

Based on the following diagram, which number represents the internal cerebral v?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6

Answer 2

B. 3

1, Septal v; 2, Thalamostriate v; 3, Internal cerebral v; 4, Basal v of Rosenthal; 5, V of Galen; 6, Straight sinus; 7, Inferior sagittal sinus.

Question 2

If the patient experiences diplopia while placing DBS lead in the subthalamic nucleus (STN), the
lead is too
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Anterior
D. Posterior
E. Deep

Answer 2

A. Medial

When targeting STN for Parkinson’s disease, if the DBS electrode is too:
* Medial –> III n –> diplopia, ipsilateral eye adduction.
* Lateral and anterior –> internal capsule –> contralateral contractions, contralateral gaze deviation.
* Posterior –> medial lemniscus –> contralateral paresthesias.
* Deep (ventral) –> substantia nigra –> fear, depression.

Question 2

The total volume of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in a normal human is
A. 75 mL
B. 150 mL
C. 300 mL
D. 450 mL
E. None of the above

Answer 2

B. 150 mL

The normal adult CSF volume is 150 ml, of which 30 mL are intraventricular, 40 mL are in the spinal subarachnoid space, and 80 mL are in the cranial subarachnoid space. The body produces 3 times the CSF volume per day (450 mL).

Question 2

Which anesthetic agent deaeases cerebral blood flow?
A. Thiopental
B. lsofiuorane
C. Ketamine
D. Nitrous oxide
E. Halothane

Answer 2

A. Thiopental

Thiopental, etomidate, and fentanyl decrease cerebral blood flow. Nitrous oxide, isoflurane, ketamine, enflurane, and halothane increase cerebral blood flow.

Question 3

Loop diuretics (Lasix) increase the serum value of
A. Potassium
B. Uric acid
C. Magnesium
D. Calcium
E. Chloride

Answer 3

B. Uric acid

Lasix (furosemide) is a Loop diuretic and increases serum GUL: glucose, uric acid, and lipids. It decreases K, Ca, Mg, O, platelets, and granulocytes. It can lead to hypochloremic alkalosis.

Question 3

The normal total blood volume of a normal fullterm neonate is
A. 70 mL/kg
B. 75 mL/kg
C. 80 mL/kg
D. 90 mL/kg
E. 100 mL/kg

Answer 3

C. 80 mL/kg

Total blood volume in premature babies 90-100 mL/kg, full term 80 mL/kg, 1 month to 1 year 75 mL/kg, >1 year to adult 70 mL/kg.

Question 3

In the following figure, the fimbria of the fornix is represented by number
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
B. 7

Answer 3

B. 7

Question 3

Normal cerebral blood ftow is
A. 25 mL/100 g/min
B. 50 mL/100 g/min
C. 75 mL/100 g/min
D. 100 mL/100 g/min

Answer 3

B. 50 mL/100 g/min

Question 3

High anion gap acidosis is caused by all of the following, except
A. Accumulation of lactic acid
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis
C. Starvation
D. Increased serum beta-hydroxybutyrate
E. Diarrhea

Answer 3

E. Diarrhea

Question 4

Which medication increases the risk of bleeding on Coumadin?
A. Benzodiazepines
B. Barbiturates
C. Carbamazepine
D. Rifampicin
E. Cholestyramine

Answer 4

A. Benzodiazepines

Question 4

If the patient experiences phosphenes (flashing lights) while placing DBS lead in the globus pallidus internus (GPi), the lead is too
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Superficial
D. Deep
E. Anterior

Answer 4

D. Deep

When targeting GPi with DBS for Parkinson’s disease or dystonia, if the electrode is too:
* Medial and posterior –> internal capsule –> contralateral contractions.
* Deep –> optic tract –> phosphenes (flashes of light) in the contralateral visual field.
* Lateral and anterior –> GPe, putamen –> no effect.

Question 5

The ulnar n supplies all of the following muscles, except
A. Flexer carpi ulnaris
B. Abductor digiti minimi
C. Abductor pollicis brevis
D. Adductor pollicis
E. lnterossei

Answer 5

C. Abductor pollicis brevis

The abductor pollicis brevis (APB) is a thenar muscle and is therefore supplied by the median n. The remaining muscles are supplied by the ulnar n.

Question 5

The positive predictive value of test A to detect disease X is
A. 65%
B. 69.6%
C. 76.5%
D. 80%

Answer 5

D. 80%

The positive predictive value defines how many subjects actually have the disease out of all who tested positive. In this case 80/(80 + 20) = 80%. The negative predictive value reflects how many did not have the disease out of all who tested negative. In this case, 65%.

Question 5

If the patient experiences contralateral gaze deviation while placing DBS lead in the subthalamic nucleus (STN), the lead should be moved
A. Medially
B. Laterally
C. Anteriorly
D. Deeper

Answer 5

A. Medially

Contralateral gaze deviation during DBS of STN reflects irritation of the internal capsule, which is lateral (and anterior) to STN. The lead should be moved medially. This is not to be confused with irritation of the nucleus of cranial n III, which is
medial and causes adduction of the ipsilateral eye.

Question 6

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is characterized. by an increase in all of the following, except
A. Prothrombin time (Pr)
B. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
C. Platelets
D. Fibrin degradation products (FDP)
E. Microvascular dots

Answer 6

C. Platelets

DIC can occur in conditions like septicemia, and it causes increased dotting, fibrinolysis, and bleeding. There is increased PT, PTT, INR, FDPs, and D-dimers, together with low platelets.

Question 7

The main neurotransmitter of the thalamic fasciculus (Forel’s Field H1 = FFH1) is
A. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
B. Dopamine
C. 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)
D. Glutamate
E. Aceeylcholine

Answer 7

A. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

The thalamic fasciculus (FFH1) is formed by the lenticular fasciculus (FFH2) and the ansa lenticularis. It projects from the GPi to the thalamus using GABA. It also carries dentate nucleus projections to the thalamus.

Question 8

The efferents of which thalamic nuclei connect to the cingulate cortex?
A. Anterior nuclear group (ANG)
B. Ventral anrerior (VA)
C. Lateral posterior (IP)
D. Ventrolateral, pars oralis (VLo)
E. Ventrolateral, pars caudalis (VLc)

Answer 8

A. Anterior nuclear group (ANG)

The ANG of the thalamus receives input from the fornix and the mamillothalamic tract, and it projects to the cingulate gyrus.

Question 9

The use of which medication has been associated with cyanide toxicity?
A. Nitroglycerin
B. Sodium nittoprusside (Ni pride)
C. Nicardipine (cardene)
D. Nimodlpine
E. Labetalol

Answer 9

B. Sodium nittoprusside (Ni pride)

Nipride is a vasodilator used to treat severe hypertension. It releases cyanide into the blood stream and can cause impaired oxygen use. Treatment: sodium thiosulfate.

Question 9

Based on the following brachial plexus diagram, the ulnar n is represented by which number?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Answer 9

D. 4

1, Suprascapular n; 2, musculocutaneous n; 3, median n; 4, ulnar n; 5, radial n; 6, thoracodorsal n; 7, long thoracic n.

Question 10

The Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the oculomotor n carries
A. Special somatic afferents
B. Special visceral afferents
C. General somatic afferents
D. General somatic efferents
E. General visceral efferents

Answer 10

E. General visceral efferents

The Edinger-Westphal nucleus provides the parasympathetic component of the oculomotor n (III) (general visceral efferent). The general somatic efferents arise from the central nucleus supplying levator palpebrae superioris bilaterally, medial
nucleus supplying contralateral superior rectus, and lateral nucleus supplying ipsilateral inferior rectus, inferior oblique, and medial rectus.

Question 11

The uncinate fasciculus carries crossed efferent fibers from which cerebellar nuclei?
A. Fastigial
B. Globose
C. Embolifonn
D. Dentate

Answer 11

A. Fastigial

The uncinate fasciculus in the cerebellum connects the fastigial nuclei to the contralateral vestibular nuclei and travels around the superior cerebellar peduncle, while the juxtarestiform body connects the fastigial nuclei to the ipsilateral vestibular nuclei and travels in the inferior cerebellar peduncle. Not to be confused with the cerebral uncinate fasciculus that connects the orbito-frontal gyri to the anterior temporal lobe.

Question 12

Guillain-MoJlaret triangle injury causes palatal myoclonus. Which nucleus is not part of the
Guillain-MoJlaret triangle?
A. Red nucleus
B. Inferior olivary nucleus
C. Dentate nucleus
D. Nucleus interpositus

Answer 12

D. Nucleus interpositus

Palatal myoclonus manifests as rhythmic contraction of the soft palate. The jerky movement can cause a clicking sound and is not interrupted by sleep or coma. It is caused by disruption of the Guillain-Mollaret triangle composed of the red nucleus in midbrain, the inferior olivary nucleus in the medulla oblongata, and the contralateral dentate nucleus in the cerebellum.

Question 13

All of the following dotting factors are vitamin K-dependent,except
A. II
B. VII
C. VIII
D. IX
E. X

Answer 13

C. VIII

Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors are prothrombin (II), Vil, IX, X, and proteins C, S, and Z.

Question 14

Increased positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) results in all of the following, exapt
A. Barotrauma
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Decreased shunt effect
D. Decreased dead space

Answer 14

D. Decreased dead space

PEEP increases the dead space by collapsing pulmonary capillaries and to a lesser extent by decreasing cardiac output. It can cause barotrauma. Its main benefit is recruiting collapsed alveoli, thus decreasing the shunt effect.

Question 14

All of the following statements are true about Clarke’s nucleus, except that
A. It is located in the gray matter of the spinal cord.
B. It spans spinal cord segments C8-12.
C. It conveys touch and proprioception.
D. It sends efferents in the contralateral dorsal spinocerebellar tract.
E. Efferents travel through the inferior cerebellar peduncle.

Answer 14

D. It sends efferents in the contralateral dorsal spinocerebellar tract.

The dorsal spinocerebellar tract travels ipsilaterally through the inferior cerebellar peduncle, while the ventral spinocerebellar tract travels predominantly contralaterally through the superior cerebellar peduncle.

Question 15

The main neurotransmitter out of the locus ceruleus is
A. Norepinephrine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Glutamate
D. Dopamine
E. Serotonin

Answer 15

A. Norepinephrine

The locus ceruleus uses NE as neurotransmitter and is responsible for REM sleep.

Question 16

Which medication is the least beneficial in patients with asthma?
A. Beta blockers
B. Theophylline
C. Ipratropium
D. Steroids
E. Salbutamol

Answer 16

A. Beta blockers

Beta blockers are harmful to patients with asthma because they cause bronchospasm. Salbutamol is a beta-2 agonist and causes bronchodilation. lpratropium is an anticholinergic (parasympatholytic) bronchodilator. Theophylline and corticosteroids (preferred) are anti-inflammatories.

Question 17

Which structure does not pass through the annulus of Zinn?
A. Cranial n III, superior division
B. CraniaJ n III, inferior division
C. Cranial n IV
D. Cranial n V, nasociliary branch
E. Cranial n VI

Answer 17

**C. Cranial n IV **

Structures entering the orbit outside the annulus of Zinn: LFT: Iacrimal and frontal branches of V1, and trochlear n +superior ophthalmic v.

Question 18

Isonurane causes anesthesia through
A. N-methyl-D-aspartate NMDA)-receptor antagonism
B. Binding y-aminobutyric acid type A (GABA) receptor
C. Na+ channel blockade
D. Opioid agonism

Answer 18

B. Binding y-aminobutyric acid type A (GABA) receptor

Isoflurane and enflurane are GABA, and glycine stimulants. Lidocaine is a Na+ channel blocker, fentanyl an opioid agonist, and ketamine an NMDA antagonist.

Question 19

If the patient experiences dysarthria and muscle
contractions while placing DBS lead in the nucleus ventralis interrnedius (Vim), the lead is too
A. Medial
B. Lateral
C. Anterior
D. Posterior
E. Deep

Answer 19

B. Lateral

Dysarthria and muscle contractions are related to stimulation of the internal capsule which is lateral to the thalamus. Dysarthria could also occur with bilateral Vim stimulation.

Question 20

The medial forebrain bundle connects the septal nuclei to
A. Hypothalamus
B. Hippocampus
C. Habenula
D. Olfactory bulb
E. Mammillary body

Answer 20

A. Hypothalamus

The medial forebrain bundle connects the septal nuclei to the hypothalamus. The septal nuclei connect to the habenula through the stria medullaris, to the amygdala through the stria terminalis, and to the hippocampus through the fornix

Question 21

The specificity of test X to detect disease Y is
A. 63.64%
B. 73.68%
C. 68.75%
D. 57.9%

Answer 21

C. 68.75%

Sensitivity marks how often the test is positive when the patient has the disease. In this case 70/(70 + 40) = 63.64%. Specificity indicates how often the test is negative when the disease is absent. In this case 55/(25 + 55) = 68.75%. Prevalence tells how many people had the disease out of
all of the people tested (whether positive or negative). In this case (70 + 40)/(70 + 40 + 25 + 55) = 57.89% (rounded 57.9%).

Question 21

The local anesthetic lidocaine provides analgesia through the blockade of
A. Na+ channels
B. Cl- channels
C. K+ channels
D. Opioid receptors

Answer 21

A. Na+ channels

Lidocaine decreases conductance by blocking Na+ channels. Fentanyl stimulates opioid receptors. Isoflurane, enflurane, etomidate, and thiopental stimulate GABA, thereby increasing Cl- influx.

Question 21

During an endoscopic third ventriculostomy (arrow), the mammillary bodies are represented by number
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

Answer 21

E. 5

1, Optic chiasm; 2, pituitary infundibulum; 3, median eminence; 4, tuber cinereum (site for ETV: endoscopic third ventriculostomy); 5, mammillary bodies.

Question 22

All of the following are true about the embryonic basal plate, except that
A. It connects to the alar plate through the sulcus limitans.
B. It surrounds the ventral part of the ependymal canal.
C. It gives origin to the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord.
D. Cells belong to the mantle zone of the neural tube.
E. It develops at the 15-day embryo.

Answer 22

E. It develops at the 15-day embryo.

The basal plate contains primarily motor neurons, while the alar plate is predominantly sensory. They are separated by the sulcus limitans. This is a postneurulation event (>22 days). With the development of the fourth ventricle, the alar plates are moved posterolaterally (pontine flexure).

Question 22

The inferior cerebellar pedunde carries all of the following, except
A. juxtarestiform body
B. Pontocerebellar fibers
C. Ipsilateral dorsal spinocerebellar tract
D. Cerebello-olivary tract
E. External arcuate fibers

Answer 22

B. Pontocerebellar fibers

The pontocerebellar fibers travel in the middle cerebellar peduncle.

Question 22

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released from the posterior pituitary, and is synthesized in the
A. Septal nuclei
B. Tuberal nuclei
C. Anterior pituitary
D. Supraoptic nucleus
E. Arcuate nuclei

Answer 22

D. Supraoptic nucleus

ADH (vasopressin) is synthesized in the supraoptic nucleus. while oxytocin is predominantly synthesized in the paraventricular nucleus. Both are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis).

Question 23

The stria terminalis connects the amygdala to the
A. Lateral hypothalamus
B. Mammillary bodies
C. Entorhinal cortex
D. Hippocampus
E. Cingulate gyrus

Answer 23

A. Lateral hypothalamus

The stria terminalis connects the amygdala to the lateral hypothalamus and septal nuclei.

Question 24

Clopidogrel (Plavix)
A. Inhibits cyclooxygenase 1 (COX-1)
B. Inhibits cydooxygenase 2 (COX-2)
C. Inhibits ADP-dependent platelet aggregation
D. Prevents thromboxane formation
E. Activates glycoprotein GP Hb/Hia

Answer 24

C. Inhibits ADP-dependent platelet aggregation

Clopidogrel (Plavix) inhibits the binding of ADP to P2Y12 receptor on platelets –> inhibits activation of glycoprotein GP Ilb/IIIa –> inhibits platelet aggregation. Aspirin (ASA) –> inhibits cyclo-oxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2) in platelets –> inhibits platelet-dependent thromboxane formation –> inhibits platelet aggregation. ReoPro (abciximab) and Integrilin (eptifibatide) are glycoprotein GP Ilb/IIIa inhibitors –> inhibit platelet aggregation.

Question 25

The marginal limb of the cingulate sulcus seperates the
A. Superior frontal gyrus from the cingulate gyrus
B. Cingulate gyrus from the corpus callosum
C. Superior frontal gyrus from the paracentral lobule
D. Paracentral lobule from the precuneus
E. Precuneus from the cuneus

Answer 25

D. Paracentral lobule from the precuneus

The cingulate sulcus separates the cingulate gyrus from the superior frontal gyrus, while its marginal limb separates the paracentral lobule from the precuneus. The parieto-occipital sulcus separates the precuneus from the cuneus. The calcarine sulcus separates the cuneus from the lingual gyrus. The callosal sulcus separates the corpus callosum from the cingulate gyrus.

Question 26

Which cerebellar nucleus has mostly neocortical projections?
A. Dentate
B. Globose
C. Emboliform
D. Fastigial

Answer 26

A. Dentate

The dentate nucleus is part of the neocerebellum, the globose and emboliform nuclei belong to the paleocerebellum, and the fastigial nucleus represents the archicerebellum.

Question 27

The collateral sulcus separates the
A. Precuneus from the cuneus
B. Cuneus from the lingual gyrus
C. Middle temporal gyrus from the inferior temporal gyms
D. Inferior temporal gyrus from the fusiform gyrus
E. Fusiform gyrus from the parahippocampal gyrus

Answer 27

E. Fusiform gyrus from the parahippocampal gyrus

The superior temporal sulcus separates superior (Tl) from middle temporal gyri (T2). The middle temporal sulcus separates middle (T2) from inferior temporal gyri (T3). The ocdpitotemporal sulcus separates inferior temporal (TI) from fusiform (T4) gyri. The collateral sulcus separates fusiform
(occipitotemporal) (T4) from parahippocampal (TS) gyri. The parieto-occipital sulcus separates the precuneus from the cuneus. The calcarine sulcus separates the cuneus from the lingual gyrus.

Question 28

The best treatment of mercury (Hg) toxicity is
A. British Anti-Lewisite (BAL)
B. 2,3 Dimercapto-1-Propanesulfonate (DMPS)
C. Desferrioxamine
D. Levodopa (L-DOPA)
E. Thiamine

Answer 28

B. 2,3 Dimercapto-1-Propanesulfonate (DMPS)

Dimercaprol (BritishAnti-Lewisite, BAL) is used as a chelating agent in arsenic poisoning, while penicillamine, DMPS, and DMSA (dimercaptosuccinic acid) are effective in mercury toxicity. BAL, penicillamine, EDTA (ethylene diamine tetraacetic
acid), and DMSA are used for lead poisoning, while desferrioxamine is used to treat iron and aluminium toxicities. Manganese toxicity affects basal ganglia (GPi) and is treated by L-DOPA, and ethanol toxicity is treated by thiamine.

Question 29

Peroneal n palsy causes all of the following, except
A. Loss of sensation in the first web space
B. Paralysis of the tibialis anterior
C. Paralysis of the extensor pollicis longus
D. Paralysis of the tibialis posterior
E. Paralysis of the extensor digitorum longus

Answer 29

D. Paralysis of the tibialis posterior

The tibialis posterior is supplied by the tibial n and causes intact inversion in the setting of a peroneal n palsy.

Question 29

Posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) palsy causes
A. Ulnar deviation with wrist extension
B. Finger drop
C. Paralysis of the interossei
D. Paralysis of the extensor carpi radialis longus
E. Paralysis of the brachioradialis

Answer 29

B. Finger drop

The PIN passes under the edge of the supinator (Frohse arcade). Paralysis leads to finger drop and radial deviation with wrist extension due to the intact extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis while the extensor carpi ulnaris is paralyzed.

Question 30

The stria medullaris connects the septal nuclei to the
A. Habenula
B. Hypothalamus
C. Hippocampus
D. Interpeduncular nuclei
E. Amygdala

Answer 30

A. Habenula

The septal nuclei connect to the habenula through the stria medullaris, to the hypothalamus through the medial forebrain bundle, to the amygdala through the stria terminalis, and to the hippocampus through the fornix.

Question 30

The nucleus solitarius receives all of the following, except
A. Special visceral afferents
B. Fibers from the facial n through the chorda tympani n
C. Fibers from the vestibulocochlear n
D. Fibers from the glossopharyngeal n
E. Fibers from the vagus n

Answer 30

C. Fibers from the vestibulocochlear n

The nucleus solitarius receives special visceral afferents of taste from VII (anterior 2/3 of tongue), IX (posterior 1/3 of tongue), and X (epiglottis, vallecula), and general visceral afferents from the salivary glands, carotid body, chest, and abdomen.

Question 31

Melanocytes are nemal crest derivatives found in high concentration in the
A. Dura mater
B. Leptomeninges
C. Gray matter
D. White matter
E. Ventricular lining

Answer 31

B. Leptomeninges

Melanocytes are found in the leptomeninges and can cause primary melanocytic tumors of the CNS. They can be focal or diffuse.

Question 32

Dabigatran (Pradaxa) is an oral anticoagulant that exerts its function through inhibition of
A. Factor Xa
B. Thrombin
C. Factor VIIa
D. Factor Va
E. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa

Answer 32

B. Thrombin

Pradaxa is an oral thrombin inhibitor. PCC (Kcentra, prothrombin complex concentrate) can be used for reversal in bleeding emergencies. Idarucizumab (Praxbind) is an antibody that can bind and reverse Pradaxa. Lepirudin and argatroban are IV thrombin inhibitors. xarelto, Eliquis, Lovenox, and Arixtra are all factor xa inhibitors. Protein C inhibits Va and VIIIa. lntegrilin and ReoPro inhibit GP IIb/IIla, thus inhibiting platelet aggregation.

Question 32

A 44-years-old female is being worked-up for headaches. The vessel indicated by arrows on the following angiogram and MRI
A. Antierior choroidal a
B. Normal PCOM
C. Fetal PCOM
D. Persistent trigeminal a
E. Persistent otic a

Answer 32

D. Persistent trigeminal a

The patient has a persistent trigeminal a that connects the precavernous ICA to the basilar a. Note that the patient also has a fetal PCOM right above (more distally) and almost parallel to the vessel with the arrow.

Question 33

Concerning skeletal muscles, type I fibers have all of the following features, except
A. Slow twitch
B. High resistance to fatigue
C. High capillary density
D. Activity during low-intensity endurance exercises
E. Reliance on anaerobic glycolysis

Answer 33

E. Reliance on anaerobic glycolysis

Type I fibers have a high mitochondrial content, rely more on oxidative metabolism, and produce little lactic acid.

Question 34

Isoniazid (INH) is used for treatment of tuberculosis. One of the main side effects is peripheral neuropathy. This can be prevented by supplementing
patients with
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
C. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
D. Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin)
E. Vitamin C

Answer 34

C. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)

INH creates a state of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) deficiency, causing peripheral neuropathy.

Question 35

Which of the following drugs correspond with Succinylcholine?
A. Ganglionic blocker
B. Neuromuscular blocker
C. Sympathomimetic
D. Parasympathomimetic
E. Alpha adrenergic blocker

Answer 35

B. Neuromuscular blocker

Succinylcholine is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker. In patients with ryanodine receptor mutation, it can cause malignant hyperthermia.

Question 36

Which of the following drugs correspond with Pilocarpine?
A. Ganglionic blocker
B. Neuromuscular blocker
C. Sympathomimetic
D. Parasympathomimetic
E. Alpha adrenergic blocker

Answer 36

D. Parasympathomimetic

Pilocarpine is a parasympathomimetic stimulating muscarinic acetylcholine receptor. It is used to treat dry mouth and glaucoma.

Question 37

The main treatment of Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes
A. Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
B. Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
C. Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin)
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin D

Answer 37

A. Vitamin B1 (thiamine)

IV thiamine is used to treat Wemicke’s encephalopathy. It is an acute complication of alcohol abuse manifested by ataxia, nystagmus, confusion, dysconjugate gaze, lateral rectus palsy, hypothermia, hypotension, coma, and death (17%).

Question 38

Which of the following drugs correspond with Amphetamine?
A. Ganglionic blocker
B. Neuromuscular blocker
C. Sympathomimetic
D. Parasympathomimetic
E. Alpha adrenergic blocker

Answer 38

C. Sympathomimetic

Amphetamine stimulates the release ofnorepinephrine from postganglionic sympathetic nerve endings. It is used to treat ADHD (attention deficit hyperactivity disorder).

Question 38

Which of the following drugs correspond with Prazosin?
A. Ganglionic blocker
B. Neuromuscular blocker
C. Sympathomimetic
D. Parasympathomimetic
E. Alpha adrenergic blocker

Answer 38

E. Alpha adrenergic blocker

Prazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker used to treat arterial hypertension.

Question 39

Which of the following drugs correspond with Pentolinium?
A. Ganglionic blocker
B. Neuromuscular blocker
C. Sympathomimetic
D. Parasympathomimetic
E. Alpha adrenergic blocker

Answer 39

A. Ganglionic blocker

Pentolinium is a ganglionic blocker: antagonist to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors in autonomic ganglia. It is used to treat hypertension.