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Section 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

What refers to a resting heart rate(RHR) that is less than 60 beats per minute?

A

Sinus bradycardia

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2
Q

What is the categorization for a client with blood pressure measured of 120/82 mmHg?

A

Stage 1 hypertension

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3
Q

What is the waist-to-hip ratio(WHR) for a client whose waist measures 29 inches (74 cm) and hip circumference measures 38 inches (97 cm)?

A

.76

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4
Q

What assessment may incorrectly categorize extremely muscular individuals?

A

Body mass index

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5
Q

A body mass index of 25 kg/m^2 or greater increases a person’s risk for what?

A

Type 2 Diabetes

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6
Q

What is necessary for hormone production, cushioning of vital organs & maintenance of certain body functions?

A

Essential body fat

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7
Q

What is the approximate BMI of a client who is 5 feet 5 inches (165 cm) & weights 135lbs (61.24kg)?

A

22.5kg/m^2

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8
Q

What is the average resting heart rate in males?

A

60 to 70 beats per minute

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9
Q

What condition is a hardening & narrowing of the arteries due to plaque accumulation?

A

Arteriosclerosis

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10
Q

What is the name of the point at which ventilation begins to increase in a non-linear fashion?

A

First ventilatory threshold (VT1)

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11
Q

What is the recommended fluid intake prior to exercise?

A

5-7 mL/kg(0.08-0.11 oz/lb)

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12
Q

What is recommended weekly or biweekly exercise duration progression for cardio training over the first 4 to 6 weeks of training a new client?

A

10%

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13
Q

Cardio interval training is typically introduced during which stage of training?

A

Fitness training

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14
Q

Anaerobic power is typically performed during which of the following stages of training?

A

Performance training

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15
Q

What best explains why a client who is a marathon runner has experienced a reduced heart rate at the same running speed that previously produced a higher heart rate?

A

Increased cardiac output

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16
Q

An ACE CPT is working with a client who wants to run a 10K. What condition would most likely prohibit the client from participating in the ventilatory threshold assessment?

a) diabetes
b) asthma
c) overweight
d) allergies

A

B) Asthma

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17
Q

Which portion of the spine consists of the 5 fused vertebrae?

A

Sacrum

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18
Q

Which of the following movements occurs in the frontal plane?

a) flexion of the foot
b) extension of the elbow
c) rotation of the trunk
d) abduction of the leg

A

D) Abduction of the leg

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19
Q

During the concentric portion of a seated leg extension, what muscle group is performing as the antagonist?

A

Hamstrings

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20
Q

What is the definition of an antagonist muscle?

A

The muscle that acts in opposition to the contraction produced by an agonist(prime mover) muscle

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21
Q

Which of the following best demonstrates isometric action?

a) push-up
b) modified v-sit
c) deadlift
d) body-weight squats

A

b) modified v-sit

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22
Q

What is the definition of an isometric action?

A

A type of muscular action in which the muscle is stimulated to generate tension but little or no joint movement occurs

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23
Q

Which of the following exercises best represents a closed-kinetic-chain movement?

a) body weight squat
b) seated leg curl
c) standing lateral deltoid raise
d) seated leg extension

A

A) Body-weight squat

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24
Q

What is the definition of a closed kinetic chain exercise?

A

Movements where the distal segment of the target body part is more fixed, generally considered more functional, as they mimic daily activities closely

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25
Q

Adults who do not perform muscular training will typically see which of the following muscular tissue responses as they age?

A

Less of 5 lb (2.3kg) per decade

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26
Q

An ACE CPT is working with a client who has a bench press repetition of 12-15. the client had been consistently bench pressing 175 lbs (79kg) for 12 reps & can now complete 15 at the same weight. Utilizing the double-progression training protocol, what is the most appropriate progression?

A

Perform 12 reps of 185 lbs (66kg)

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27
Q

What term refers to loss of muscle strength due to termination of a regular muscular-training program?

A

Reversibility

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28
Q

A new client provided a sample of a previous workout that included 3 sets of 5 reps w/ a weight load of 90% of 1-rep max(1-RM) & a rest interval of 2-5 mins. This sample exercise plan is likely to indicate what training goal?

A

Muscular strength

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29
Q

What is the most commonly recommended training tempo for new exercises?

A

6 seconds

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30
Q

an ACE CPT is planning to include high-intensity activities within a client’s muscular training program. During which portion of the exercise session should the high-intensity activities be performed?

A

Close to the beginning of the conditioning portion when the client is less likely to be fatigued.

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31
Q

What is a correctible factor for a client whose assessment identifies muscular imbalances & postural deviations?

A

Lack of joint stability

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32
Q

Which will most likely be a result of an anterior pelvic tilt?

a) osteoporosis
b) lordosis
c) kyphosis
d) scoliosis

A

B) Lordosis

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33
Q

What assessment would most likely be contraindicated for a client with low back pain?

A

McGill’s torso test battery

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34
Q

During McGill’s torso muscular endurance test battery, a client’s flexion score is 120 seconds w/ a flexion/extension ratio of 0.8. What is the client’s extension score?

A

150 seconds

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35
Q

What is the primary purpose of the Thomas test?

A

To evaluate the length of the muscles involved in hip flexion

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36
Q

Standing up from a chair is an example of what primary movement?

A

Bend & lift

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37
Q

During a squat pattern assessment, the ACE CPT observes the client driving the knees forward during the descent of the squat. What is likely causing the compensation?

A

Quadriceps dominance

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38
Q

A client is experiencing a “collapsing” of the low back during a shoulder push stabilization screen. What is most likely causing the compensation?

A

Lack of abdominal strength

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39
Q

From the side view of a standing row assessment, the ACE CPT notices the client’s head migrates forward. Which muscle is most likely underactive?

A

Cervical spine flexors

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40
Q

An ACE CPT is working with a relatively new client for the past 6 weeks. The client would like to get an estimate of his one-rep max (1-RM) for the bench press exercise but isn’t yet comfortable completing the assessment. The client has been consistently completing 8 reps of 150 lbs (68kg). What is the most accurate estimate of the client’s 1-RM?

A

188 lbs (85 kg)

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41
Q

An ACE CPT is developing a Performance training program for a client. What % of time should be spent training in zone 1?

A

70 to 80%

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42
Q

What is a primary characteristic of functional training for muscular fitness?

A

Focus on establishing/reestablishing postural stability & kinetic chain mobility

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43
Q

A client who is working on achieving her fitness goals has been performing body-weight stationary lunges with good form & execution & is ready to advance this exercise. What is the most appropriate progression?

A

Stationary lunges with dumbbells in hands

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44
Q

When is the most appropriate time for a client to perform plyometric drills in a training session?

A

At the beginning, following a dynamic warm-up

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45
Q

What is the recommended plyometric training volume for a client with some plyometric experience?

A

100 to 120 contacts per session

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46
Q

An ACE CPT is facilitating a stretching session w/ a client. The client performs a passive 10-second pre-stretch, then pushes against the force provided by the PT. What is the name of this type of stretching?

A

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

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47
Q

What is the definition of ballistic stretching?

A

Dynamic stretching characterized by rhythmic bobbing or bouncing motions representing relatively high-force, short duration movements

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48
Q

What is the definition of dynamic stretching?

A

type of stretching that involves taking the joints through their ranges of motion while continuously moving. Often beneficial in warming up for a particular sport or activity that involves the same joint movements

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49
Q

What is the definition of proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation?

A

a method of promoting the response of neuromuscular mechanisms through the stimulation of proprioceptors in an attempt to gain more stretch in the muscle, often referred to as a contract/relax method of stretching

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50
Q

What is the definition of lordosis?

A

excessive anterior curvature of the spine that typically occurs at the low back (may also occur at the neck)

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51
Q

What is the definition of kyphosis?

A

excessive posterior curvature of the spine, typically seen in the thoracic region.

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52
Q

What is the definition of stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood pumped from the left ventricle of the heart with each beat

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53
Q

What is the radial artery?

A

on the ventral aspect of the wrist on the side of the thumb

54
Q

What is the carotid artery?

A

located in the neck, lateral to the trachea

55
Q

What is normal BP?

A

SBP <120 & DBP <80

56
Q

What is elevated BP?

A

SBP 120-129 & DBP <80

57
Q

What is Stage 1 Hypertension BP?

A

SBP 130-139 OR DBP 80-89

58
Q

What is Stage 2 Hypertension BP?

A

SBP >=140 OR DBP >=90

59
Q

What are “normal” or expected changes in body fat %?

A

Decreased 2.7-5.9% over 2-3 months

60
Q

What are the “normal” or expected changes in waist circumference(cm)?

A

Decreased 1.9-3.3cm over 2-3 months

61
Q

What is the formula for BMI?

A

Weight(kg)/Height^2(m)
or
Weight(lb)/Height^2(in)*703

62
Q

What is a normal BMI?

A

18.5-24.9

63
Q

What is an overweight BMI?

A

25 - 29.9

64
Q

What is an obese BMI?

A

30-34.9 (type 1 obesity)

35-39.9 (type 2 obesity)

65
Q

What is an extreme obese BMI?

A

> =40 (type 3 obesity)

66
Q

What is an underweight BMI?

A

<18.5

67
Q

Where is the abdominal circumference?

A

w/ client standing upright w/ arms at sides, feet together & abdomen relaxed, a horizontal measure is taken at the height of the iliac crest, typically level w/ the umbilicus

68
Q

Where is the hip circumference?

A

w/ client standing erect & feet together, a horizontal measure is taken at the maximal circumference of the buttocks

69
Q

Where is the waist circumference?

A

w/ the client standing upright with arms at sides, feet together & abdomen relaxed, a horizontal measure is taken at the narrowest part of the torso (above the umbilicus & below the xiphoid process, where bra strap typically rests)

70
Q

Where is the bicep circumference?

A

w/ client standing upright, with arms hanging freely at the sides & hands facing the thighs, a horizontal measure is taken midway between the acromion & olecranon process (between shoulder & elbow)

71
Q

Where is the midthigh circumference?

A

w/ client standing w/ one foot on a bench so the knee is flexed at 90 degrees, a measure is taken midway between the inguinal crease (crease between torso & thigh) and the proximal border of the patella, perpendicular to the tibia

72
Q

What waist circumference is very low risk for females & males?

A

F-<27.3IN

M-<31.2IN

73
Q

What waist circumference is low for females & males?

A

F- 27.3 - 34.7 IN

M- 31.2 - 38.6 IN

74
Q

What waist circumference is high for females & males?

A

F- 35.1 - 42.5 IN

M- 39 - 46.8 IN

75
Q

What waist circumference is very high for females & males?

A

F - >42.9 IN

M- >46.8 IN

76
Q

What is the waist-to-hip ratio?

A

waist measurement / hip measurement

77
Q

What is a valid indicator of work intensity or stress on body during exercise?

A

heart rate

78
Q

What is RHR influenced by?

A

Fitness, fatigue, genetics, body composition, drugs & medication, alcohol, caffeine & stress

79
Q

What is the RHR for sinus tachycardia?

A

RHR>100BPM

80
Q

What is the RHR for normal sinus rhythm?

A

RHR 60 to 100 BPM

81
Q

What is RHR for sinus bradycardia?

A

RHR <60 BPM

82
Q

Many new clients will begin a program with what level of self-efficacy for exercise ability?

A

Very low

83
Q

What is the BMI of a client who is 5’9”(69 in) tall & weighs 185 lbs(84.09kg)?

A

27.3kg/m^2

84
Q

Essential fat for women is what %?

A

10-13%

85
Q

What is the hydrostatic weighing body composition method?

A
  • measures amt of water displaced when a person is completely submerged in water; indirectly measures body fat via density
  • gold standard for body-fat assessment
  • but uncomfy for many individuals & size of apparatus a con
86
Q

What is the skinfold measurements body composition method?

A
  • uses calipers to pinch a fold of skin & fat; equations used to calculate body-fat percentage
  • easy to admin & low cost
  • large margin of error w/ lack of experience
87
Q

What is an artery?

A

a blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood AWAY from heart to vital organs & extremities

88
Q

What is a capillary?

A

the smallest type of blood vessel that supplies blood TO the tissues & the site of all gas & nutrient exchange in the cardio system. capillaries connect the arterial & venous systems

89
Q

What is a vein?

A

blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood TOWARD the heart from vital organs & extremities

90
Q

What are slow-twitch muscle fibers?

A

muscle fibers designed for use of aerobic glycolysis & fatty acid oxidation, recruited for low-intensity, longer-duration activities such as walking & swimming

91
Q

What is the mitochondria?

A

the power plan of the cells where aerobic metabolism occurs

92
Q

What is the lactate threshold?

A

The pt during exercise of increasing intensity at which blood lactate begins to accumulate above resting levels, where lactate clearance is no longer able to keep up w/ lactate production

93
Q

What is maximal oxygen uptake?

A

VO2MAX. the maximum capacity for the body to take in, transport & use oxygen during exercise; a common indicator of physical fitness

94
Q

What is heat exhaustion?

A

the most common heat-related illness; usually result of intense exercise in hot, humid env. & characterized by profuse sweating, which results in fluid & electrolyte loss, a drop in BP, lightheadedness, nausea, vomiting, decreased coordination & often fainting

95
Q

What is heat stroke?

A

A medical emergency that is the most serious form of heat illness due to heat overload and/or impairment of the body’s ability to dissipate heat; char. by high body temp. (>104 F or 40 C), dry, red skin, altered level of consciousness, seizures, coma & possible death

96
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

the amt of blood pumped by the heart per min; usually expressed in liters of blood per min

97
Q

What is brachial artery?

A

The major blood vessel in the upper arm

98
Q

What is the radial artery?

A

the major blood vessel that provides oxygenated blood to lateral aspect of forearm, wrist & hand

99
Q

What is the femoral artery?

A

the main blood vessel supplying blood to lower body. Starts in upper thigh, near groin & runs down to back of knee

100
Q

What is the posterior tibial artery?

A

artery that carries blood to the posterior compartment of the leg & plantar surface of foot

101
Q

What is the aorta?

A

major artery of the cardio system; arises from the left ventricle of the heart

102
Q

What is the superior vena cava?

A

major vein in upper body, carries blood from head/neck/chest/arms to heart

103
Q

What is the pulmonary circuit?

A

the circulatory vessels of the lungs; involved in the circulation of blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs & back to the left atrium of the heart

104
Q

What does the respiratory system do?

A

it provides a means to replace oxygen & remove carbon dioxide from the blood. also makes speech possible.

105
Q

What is the sympathetic nervous system?

A

a branch of the autonomic nervous sys responsible for mobilizing the body’s energy & resources during times of stress & arousal.

106
Q

What is the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

a subdivision of the autonomic nervous sys that is involved in regulating the routine functions of the body such as heartbeat, digestion, & sleeping.

107
Q

A rating of perceived exertion(RPE) of 5 to 6 on the 0 to 10 scale equates to what RPE terminology?

A

Hard

108
Q

When using % of heart-rate reserve, zone 3 would equate to what % range?

A

> 90%

109
Q

On the 6 to 20 RPE scale, what range is associated with training in zone 1?

A

14 to 17

110
Q

If using % of max heart rate, what % range is associated with training in zone 1?

A

64-76%

111
Q

What are the 3 components of the cardio workout session?

A

1) warm-up: lighter exercise & should last 5 to 10 min
2) conditioning: primary component
3) cool down: should last 5 to 10 min to help body return to a pre-exercise state

112
Q

The most important factor in cardiorespiratory fitness is what?

A

delivery of blood to active cells, which is a function of cardiac output

113
Q

Green exercise refers to exercise conducted __?

a) in env. friendly ways
b) in natural env.
c) in an open-air studio
d) in energy-efficient facilities

A

B) in natural environments

114
Q

What part of exercise is the most appropriate variable to manipulate intitially when progressing a program?

A

Duration

115
Q

Establish a 3-zone model for this client:

  • HR at VT1 is 150 bpm
  • HR at VT2 is 170 bpm
A

Zone 1: <150bpm
Zone 2: >=150bpm, <170bpm
Zone 3: >= 170 bpm

116
Q

Describe Wolff’s law.

A

Indicates that changes in bone structure coincide w/ changes in bone function. When skeleton is subjected to stressful forces, such as those that occur w/ exercises, it responds by laying down more bone tissue, thus increasing its density. Conversely, prolonged periods of bed rest will cause bones to lose mineral & become less dense.

117
Q

What is the most common joint in the body?

A

Synovial

118
Q

What are the 4 angular movements defined for synovial joints?

A

Flexion, extension, abduction & adduction

119
Q

What are 3 main functions of intramuscular fascia (deep fascia)?

A
  1. to provide a framework that ensures proper alignment of muscle fibers, blood vessels & nerves
  2. to enable the safe & effective transmission of forces throughout the whole muscle
  3. to provide the necessary lubricated surfaces between muscle fibers that allow muscles to change shape during contraction & elongation
120
Q

Your new client is a 47 year old woman who wants to lose weight, but is a bit apprehensive ab muscular training b/c she doesn’t want to get “get big.” Based on this information, what response would best facilitate muscular-training program adherence & motivation?

a) design a program based primarily on cardo w/ a light (40% 1-RM) circuit w/ high-rep (15-25) sets to help her comfortably meet her goals
b) tell her that she has nothing to worry ab, as women do not produce enough of the male hormone to “get big”
c) show empathy for her concern ab getting bit & ensure her that you will design a program that will help her get toned w/o getting big
d) explain the avg adult muscle-tissue loss of 5 lbs (2.3 kg) per decade, & how resistance training can help her restore lost muscle & raise resting metabolism.

A

d) explain the avg adult muscle-tissue loss of 5 lbs (2.3 kg) per decade, & how resistance training can help her restore lost muscle & raise resting metabolism.

121
Q

What is the role of type 1 muscle fibers during muscular training exercises?

A

They contract more slowly & create lower force outputs.

122
Q

You are working w/ a new client who wants to begin muscular training in order to build muscular endurance. Which of the following set & repetition combo would be best for helping him achieve that goal?

a) 1-2 sets of 8-10 reps
b) 2-3 sets of 12+ reps
c) 3-4 sets of 8 reps
d) 3-5 sets of 6-12 reps

A

b) 2-3 sets of 12+ reps

123
Q

What is reciprocal inhibition?

A

Principle stating that activation of a muscle on one side of a joint (agonist) coincides with the neural inhibition of the opposing muscle on the other side of the joint to facilitate movement.

124
Q

Activating what muscles during a hamstring stretch can temporarily inhibit muscle spindle activity in the hamstrings?

A

The hip flexors

125
Q

What muscles are facilitated/hypertonic/shortened with lordosis posture?

A

Hip flexors

Lumbar extensors

126
Q

What muscles are inhibited/lengthened with lordosis posture?

A

Hip extensors
External obliques
Rectus abdominis

127
Q

What muscles are facilitated/hypertonic/shortened with kyphosis posture?

A

Anterior chest/ shoulders
Latissimus Dorsi
Neck extensors

128
Q

What muscles are inhibited/lengthened with kyphosis posture?

A

Upper back extensors
Scapular stabilizer
Neck flexors

129
Q

What muscles are facilitated/hypertonic/shortened with flat back posture?

A

Rectus abdominis
Upper back extensors
Neck extensors
Ankle plantar flexors

130
Q

What muscles are inhibited/lengthened with flat back posture?

A

Iliacus/psoas major
Internal obliques
Lumbar extensors
Neck flexors

131
Q

What muscles are facilitated/hypertonic/shortened with sway back posture?

A

Hamstrings
Upper fibers of posterior obliques
Lumbar extensors
Neck extensors

132
Q

What muscles are inhibited/lengthened with sway back posture?

A 
Iliacus/psoas major
Rectus femoris
External obliques
Upper back extensors 
Neck flexors

CPT (9 decks)

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