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CPT > Section 2 > Flashcards

Section 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

An ACE CPT is working with a new client who has had a consistent exercise history. During the interview the client explains that she enjoys all types of exercise & loves the way a workout makes her feel. What is this client’s motivation?

A

Autonomous motivation

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2
Q

Which of the following will most strongly influence a client’s current self-efficacy levels?

a) past performance experiences
b) mood state & emotional belief
c) physiological state
d) positive feedback from others

A

Past performance experiences

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3
Q

An ACE CPT receives a call from an individual who is inquiring ab training in the gym, which she has never done previously. She seems very apprehensive & nervous, stating that she knows she needs to be more active but is not sure training is right for her. What stage of change is the caller in?

A

Contemplation

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4
Q

According to the health belief model, which of the following refers to people’s perceptions of how likely they are to develop an illness?

A

Perceived susceptibility

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5
Q

An ACE CPT is working w/ a long-term client who is in the maintenance stage of change. What would be a good goal for this client?

A

Maintain interest & reduce risk of boredom

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6
Q

What is an important strategy for dealing with client lapses?

A

Discuss lapses with the client in advance

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7
Q

What describes the self-perception that a person can successfully perform a task?

A

Competence

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8
Q

A client who is beginning to master the hip-hinge basics of a squat & is ready to receive more specific feedback so the movement can be refined & perfected is in what stage of learning?

A

Associative stage

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9
Q

What could cause a barrier to exercise if included in the exercise preparticipation health-screening process for a client?

A

Risk-factor profiling or classification

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10
Q

Which of the following is a factor identified as an important risk modulator of exercise-related cardio events?

A

desired intensity level

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11
Q

What form collects more detailed medical & health info beyond the preparticipation health screening?

A

Lifestyle & health-history questionnaire

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12
Q

What antihypertensive medication increases the excretion of water & electrolytes through the kidneys?

A

diuretics

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13
Q

What is MetS?

A

Metabolic Syndrome; cluster of factors ass. w/ increased risk for coronary heart disease & diabetes - abdominal obesity indicated by a waist circumference >=40 in. in men & 35 in. in women; levels of triglycerides >= 150mg/dL; high density lipprotein levels <40 & 50 mg/Dl in men & women; blood-pressure levels >= 130/85 mmHg; & fasting blood glucose levels >= 100 mg/dL

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14
Q

What is Type 1 diabetes?

A

Form of diabetes caused by destruction of insulin producing beta cells in the pancreas, which leads to little or no insulin secretion; generally develops in childhood & requires regular insulin injections

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15
Q

What is Type 2 diabetes?

A

Most common form; typically develops in adulthood & is characterized by a reduced sensitivity of the insulin target cells to available insulin, usually ass. w/ obesity

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16
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

a learning approach that considers the manner in which behaviors are influenced by their consequences

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17
Q

What is the definition of locus control?

A

The degree to which people attribute outcomes to internal factors, such as effort & ability, as opposed to external factors such as luck or the actions of others. People who tend to attribute events & outcomes to internal factors are said to have an internal locus of control

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18
Q

What are the 5 stages of behavioral change?

A

1) precontemplation
2) contemplation
3) preparation
4) action
5) maintenance

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19
Q

What are traits & goals of precontemplation?

A

Unaware or under-aware of problem or believe it cannot be solved;
increase awareness of risks of maintaining status quo & benefits of making change; focus on addressing something relevant to them; have them start thinking about change

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20
Q

What are traits & goals of contemplation?

A

aware of problem & weight benefits vs risks of change; have little understanding of how to go about changing
collaboratively explore available options; support cues to action & provide basic structured guidance upon request from client & w/ permission

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21
Q

What are traits & goals of preparation?

A

seeking opportunities to engage in the target behavior;

co-create an action plan w/ frequent positive feedback & reinforcements on their progress

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22
Q

What are the traits & goals of action?

A

desire for opportunities to maintain activities; changing beliefs & attitudes; high risk for lapses or returns to undesirable behavior
establish new behavior as habit through motivation and adherence to the desired behavior

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23
Q

What are the traits & goals of maintenance?

A

empowered but desire a means to maintain adherence; good capability to deal w/ lapses;
maintain support systems; maintain interest & avoid boredom or burnout

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24
Q

What process is exemplified by a client choosing a gym that is on the direct route between home & work?

A

stimulus control

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25
Q

The gentleman sitting next o you on a plane asks a number of questions about exercise. He says that he does not currently exercise, but he has been thinking about joining a gym and asks you for recommendations. Which stage of behavioral change is he most likely in?

A

Contemplation

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26
Q

What are the 6 sources of self-efficacy?

A

1) past performance experience
2) vicarious experience
3) verbal persuasion
4) physiological state appraisals
5) emotional state & mood appraisals
6) imaginal experiences

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27
Q

What is the Lifestyle & health-history questionnaire?

A

A type of form utilized by PTs & healthcare professionals that gathers an individual’s personal medical info, family health history & individual health behaviors

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28
Q

What is the associative stage of learning?

A

the second stage of learning a motor skill, when performers begin to master the fundamentals & can concentrate on skill refinement

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29
Q

What is the definition of arthritis?

A

inflammation of a joint, a state characters by the inflammation of joints

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30
Q

What is the cognitive stage of learning?

A

the first stage of learning a motor skill when performers make many gross errors & have extremely variable performances

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31
Q

What is OARS?

A

Open-ended questions, affirmations, reflective listening, summarizing
conversational skills

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32
Q

Which of the following behaviors would most likely help you develop rapport with a client during the initial session?

a) looking away form client freq. to prevent staring; sitting w/ good posture & a slight forward lean,
b) speaking in a soft, friendly voice; leaning against the chair armrest w/ forearms loosely crossed,
c) holding direct, friendly eye contact; maintaining a constant smile & enthusiasm throughout the session,
d) speaking w/ confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking & hands comfortably resting when listening

A

d) speaking w/ confidence; using fluid hand gestures while speaking & hands comfortably resting when listening

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33
Q

Which of the following is most effective in helping a client develop program adherence?

a) providing the client w/ frequent changes in the program to prevent boredom,
b) having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal
c) implementing a reward system for each training session
d) conducting fitness assessments every week to measure progress

A

B) having the client self-monitor by keeping an exercise journal

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34
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

Difficult or labored breathing

35
Q

What edema?

A

swelling resulting from an excessive accumulation of fluid in the tissues of the body

36
Q

What is Acute myocardial infarction?

A

AMI. a myocardial infarction resulting from acute obstruction of a coronary artery

37
Q

What is myocardial ischemia?

A

the result of an imbalance between myocardial oxygen supply & demand, most often caused by atherosclerotic plaques that narrow & sometimes completely block the blood supply to heart

38
Q

What is myocardial infarction?

A

MI. An episode where some of the heart’s blood supply is severely cut off or restricted, causing the heart muscle to suffer & die from lack of oxygen, commonly known as a heart attack

39
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

Form of dyspnea in which the person can breathe comfortably only when standing or sitting errect, associated w/ asthma, emphysema, & angina

40
Q

What is the PAR-Q+?

A

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire for Everyone; a brief, self-administered medical questionnaire recognized as a safe pre-exercise screening measure for low-to moderate(but not vigorous) exercise training

41
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

elevated heart rate over 100 beats per minute

42
Q

What are the 3 steps of the Exercise Preparticipation Health-Screening Questionnaire for Exercise Professionals?

A

1) Symptoms
2) Current activity
3) medical conditions

43
Q

What is a diuretic?

A

medication that produces an increase in urine volume & sodium excretion

44
Q

What a calcium channel blocker?

A

a class of blood pressure medication that relaxes and widens the blood vessels

45
Q

What are Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors?

A

ACE. class of drugs used to treat high blood pressure & other conditions by reducing the activity of angiotensin converting enzyme, which converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2

46
Q

What are Angiotensin II receptor antagonists?

A

class of drugs used to treat high blood pressure & other conditions by preventing angiotensin 2 from binding to angiotensin 2 receptors, thereby allowing blood vessels to dilate

47
Q

True or False. The risk of cardiovascular complications during resistance exercise is low.

A

True.

48
Q

The pre-participating guidelines from the ACSM are designed to do what?

A

Remove any unnecessary barriers to become more physically active

49
Q

The PAR-Q+ is evidence-based & was developed with a goal of what?

A

Reducing unnecessary barriers to exercise

50
Q

What is ATP?

A

Adenosine triphosphate. A high-energy phosphate molecule required to provide energy for cellular function. Produced both aerobically & anaerobically & stored in body.

51
Q

What makes up the central nervous system?

A

the brain & spinal cord

52
Q

What is diastolic blood pressure?

A

DBP. the pressure in the arteries during the relaxation phase(diastole) of the cardiac cycle; indicative of total peripheral resistance

53
Q

What is hyperthemia?

A

Abnormally high body temperature

54
Q

What is an LDL?

A

Low-density lipoprotein. A lipoprotein that transports cholesterol & triglycerides from the liver & small intestine to cells & tissues; high levels may cause atherosclerosis

55
Q

What are the 6 classes of nutrients?

A

1) water
2) minerals
3) vitamins
4) fats
5) carbs
6) proteins

56
Q

What is RDA?

A

Recommended Dietary Allowance. The levels of intake of essential nutrients that, on the basis of scientific knowledge, are judged by the Food & Nutrient Board to be adequate to meet the known needs of practically all healthy persons

57
Q

What is a saturated fat?

A

A fatty acid that contains no double bonds between carbon atoms; typically solid at room temp & very stable

58
Q

What is systolic blood pressure?

A

SBP. the pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls during ventricular contraction.

59
Q

What is trans fat?

A

an unsaturated fatty acid that is converted into a saturated fat to increase the shelf life of some products

60
Q

What is fat oxidation?

A

the metabolic pathway that, in the presence of oxygen, breaks down fatty acids to produce energy in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

61
Q

What are the 5 Key Guidelines w/in the Dietary Guidelines?

A

1) Follow a healthy eating pattern across the lifespan
2) focus on variety, nutrient density & amt
3) Limit calories from added sugars & saturated fats & reduce sodium intake
4) shift to healthier food & beverage choices
5) support healthy eating patterns for all

62
Q

On the day of an event, an athlete should aim to eat a meal how many hours before the event?

A

4-6 hours before the event

63
Q

Refueling should begin within how many minutes after exercise?

A

30 minutes after exercise

64
Q

The Dietary Guidelines for Americans are updated every how many years?

A

5

65
Q

Whole grains contain how many grams of whole grain per 1 ounce-equivalent?

A

16 grams

66
Q

How many calories are in a gram of fat?

A

9

67
Q

What % of calories should adults consume from fat?

A

20-35% of total calories

68
Q

What % of calories should adults consume from protein?

A

10-35% of total calories

69
Q

What are the dietary recommendations for added sugars?

A

no more than 10% of total calories or a total of 50g/day on a 2K calorie diet

70
Q

What % of calories should adults consume from carbs?

A

45-65% of total calories

71
Q

What is the recommendation for dietary fiber?

A

14g of dietary fiber for every 1K calories consumed

72
Q

How many calories does 1 gram of protein have?

A

4 calories

73
Q

how many calories does 1 gram of carbs have?

A

4 calories

74
Q

What is the recommended fluid intake before exercising?

A

Drink 5-7mL/kg (0.08-0.11oz/lb) at least 4 hrs before exercise (12-17 ounces for a 154lb individual)

75
Q

What is the recommended fluid intake during exercise?

A

Monitor individual body weight changes during exercise to estimate sweat.
Composition of flued should include 20-30mEq/L of sodium, 2-5 mEq/L of potassium & 5-10% of carbs

76
Q

What is the recommended fluid intake after exercise?

A

Consumption of normal meals & beverages will restore euhydration
if rapid recovery is needed, drink 1.5L/kg (23 ounces/lb) of body weight lost

77
Q

An ACE CPT client state’s she is interested in using an OTC diuretic for rapid weight loss. What is the most appropriate response?

A

Explain the dangers of using the product.

78
Q

What is defined as shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?

A

dyspnea

79
Q

During an initial exercise session, a client presents w/ symptoms of dizziness & mentions this occasionally occurs during workouts. What is the most appropriate action for the ACE CPT?

A

Discontinue exercise & have the client seek a qualified healthcare provider’s clearance

80
Q

What is the ideal healthy eating pattern?

A

A diet that includes a variety of veggies, fruit, grains, low-fat dairy & protein-rich foods

81
Q

What is the goal of a dietary intervention to decrease weight?

A

To create a caloric deficit so that fewer calories are consumed than are expended

82
Q

What eating plan is recommended to optimize health & decrease blood pressure in individuals w/ hypertension?

A

DASH eating plan

83
Q

A nutrient fact label states that one serving contains 3,300mg of sodium. What is the category of this product’s sodium content?

A

High

84
Q

What are benefits of the DASH plan?

A

1- lower SBP by 5-6 mmHg

2- lower DBP by 3 mmHg

CPT (9 decks)

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