Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nursing 211/213 > second med exam > Flashcards

second med exam Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

what are the classifications of acyclovir

A

T: antiviral
P: purine analogues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is a major side effect of acyclovir

A

thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura and hemolytic uremic syndome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are nursing implications of acyclovir?

A

assess for lesions
assess for recurrence of symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the number one thing patients need to do when taking acyclovir

A

HYDRATE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Action:
interferes with viral DNA synthesis. inhibits viral replication, decreases viral shedding, and reduces the healing time of lesions

A

acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

classifications of alendronate

A

T: bone reabsorption
P: bisphosphonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

side effect of alendronate

A

esophageal irritation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when is alendronate administered

A

30 min before other meds w/ 6-8 ounces of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Action:
inhibits reabsorption of bone inhibiting osteoclast activity

A

alendronate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

amoxicillin classifications

A

T: anti-infective
P: aminopenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

side effects of amoxicillin

A

diarrhea, rash, anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Action:
binds to bacterial cell wall causing cell death

A

amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is commonly prescribed for skin infections, otitis media, sinusitis, genitourinary infections

A

amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

classifications of azithromycin

A

T: anti-infective
P: macrolides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what med can have hypersensitivity to erythromycin?

A

azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Action:
inhibits protein synthesis at the level of 50S bacterial ribosome

A

azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

clindamycin classifications:

A

T: anti-infective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

side effects of clindamycin

A

pseudomembranous colitis and diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what must the nurse do prior to initiating clindamycin

A

obtain specimen cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what can a patient NOT take when taking clindamycin

A

antidiarrheals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

action:
inhibits protein synthesis in susceptible bacteria

A

clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is active against most gram-positive aerobic cocci

A

clindamycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

diphenhydramine classifications

A

T: allergy, cold, and cough remedies, antihistamines, antitussives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the possible side effects of diphenhydramine

A

drowsiness, dizziness, sedation, dry mouth, blurred vision, anorexia, photosensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what needs to be assessed before giving diphenhydramine

A

BP, pulse, RR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

client teaching of diphenhydramine

A

avoid activities requiring alertness
avoid alcohol and CNS depressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what may happen to children when taking diphenhydramine

A

excitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Action:
antagonizes the effect of histamine at H1-receptor sites, does not bind to or inactivate depressant and anticholinergic properties

A

diphenhydramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

erythromycin

A

T: anti-infective
P: macrolide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

side effects of erythromycin

A

N&V, ototoxicity, rash, pseudomembranous colitis,, and phlebitis w/ IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Action:
suppresses protein synthesis at the level of the 508 bacterial ribosome

A

erythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what diseases should you use erythromycin cautiously in

A

renal or liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

classifications of estrogen

A

T: hormones
P: estrogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

side effects of estrogen

A

blood clots, headaches, hypertension, weight changes, edema, breast tenderness, abnormal bleeding, nausea, erectile dysfunction, testicular atrophy, acne, oily skin, gynecomastia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are important nursing implications of estrogen

A

healthy history (blood clots, HTN, cancer)
BP and weight, while taking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

should estrogen be taken with or without food?

A

with food, it may increase HDL and triglycerides

37
Q

when should a patient report estrogen SE

A

ACHES
abdominal pain, chest pain, headaches, eye problems, severe leg pain

38
Q

what should a patient avoid while taking estrogen

A

smoking and grapefruit

39
Q

action:
promote growth and development of female sex organs and the maintenance of secondary sex characteristics in females

A

estrogen

40
Q

what is estrogen used for

A

contraception
manage perimenopausal and postmenopausal symptoms
hormone-sensitive tumors

41
Q

gentamicin classifications

A

T: anti-infective
P: aminoglycoside

42
Q

gentamicin side effects

A

ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, ataxia, vertigo, N&V

43
Q

what must be obtained before taking/giving gentamicin

A

specimens
blood levels
hearing
vestibular dysfunction

44
Q

action:
inhibits protein synthesis in bacteria, bactericidal action

A

gentamicin

45
Q

used in treatment for serious gram-negative staphylococci infections

A

gentamicin

46
Q

what needs to be adjusted on basis of blood level monitoring and assessment of renal function

A

gentamicin

47
Q

oxybutynin classification

A

T: urinary tract antispasmodic
P: anticholinergics

48
Q

SE of oxybutynin

A

drowsiness, dizziness, dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, nausea

49
Q

what needs assessed when a patient is taking oxybutynin

A

voiding patterns

50
Q

what needs to be avoided when taking oxybutynin

A

CNS depressants

51
Q

action: increases bladder capacity and delays desire to void

A

oxybutynin

52
Q

what can happen when a child takes oxybutynin

A

severe psychosis and aggression in children

53
Q

oxytocin classifications

A

T: hormones
P: oxytocics

54
Q

induction side effects of oxytocin

A

increased uterine motility (hypercontractility) leading to: placental abruption, rapid labor & birth, and uterine rupture. water intoxication
fetal: rapid labor and birth leading to: fetal hypoxia, trauma to fetal head

55
Q

post-delivery side effects of oxytocin

A

afterbirth pains

56
Q

what does a nurse need to assess when giving oxytocin (induction)

A

assess fetal maturity, pelvic adequacy, fetal heart rate, frequency and duration of uterine contractions, water intoxications, BP and pulse

57
Q

what does a nurse need to assess when giving oxytocin (post-delivery)

A

uterine fundus and flow for response

58
Q

what should a nurse teach a patient about oxytocin

A

it is used to control bleeding

59
Q

action:
stimulates uterine smooth muscle, producing uterine contractions similar to those in spontaneous labor. has a vasopressor and antidiuretic effect

A

oxytocin

60
Q

antidote to oxytocin

A

terbutaline or magnesium sulfate

61
Q

indications of oxytocin

A

induction of labor, postpartum contol of bleeding after expulsion of the placenta

62
Q

classifications of phytonadione

A

T: vitamins, antidote
P: fat-soluble vitamins

63
Q

side effects of phytonadione

A

erythema, pain, and swelling at the site, hyperbilirubinemia, allergic reaction, GI upset, unusual taste

64
Q

what needs assessed for phytonadione

A

frank and occult bleeding
prothrombin time

64
Q

what needs assessed for phytonadione

A

frank and occult bleeding
prothrombin time

65
Q

what is phytonadione the antidote to

A

coumadin

66
Q

what should a patient not take when taking phytonadione

A

OTC or herbal products

67
Q

action:
required for hepatic synthesis of blood coagulation factors II (prothrombin). VII, IX and X

A

phytonadione

68
Q

what is phytonadione used for

A

synthesis of prothrombin and factors VII, IX, X needed for blood coagulation
given for malabsorption diseases, severe diarrhea from antibiotic use or new born deficiency

69
Q

sildenafil classifications

A

T: erectile dysfunction agent, vasodilator
P: phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor

70
Q

side effects of sildenafill

A

headache, dizziness, flushing, hypotension, myocardial infarction, dyspepsia, priapism

71
Q

nursing implications of sildenafil

A

BP, exercise tolerance

72
Q

when should a patient take sidenafil

A

1 hour before sexual activity
DO NOT take more than once a day

73
Q

what should you NOT take with sidenafil

A

alpha-adrenergic blockers or nitrates

74
Q

when should a patient notify HCP when taking sildenafil

A

if erection is more than 4 hours

75
Q

what patients cannot take sildenafil

A

patients with cardiovascular disease

76
Q

tamsulosin classification

A

T: none
P: peripherally acting antiadrenergic

77
Q

side effects of tamsulosin

A

headache, dizziness, orthostatic hypotension

78
Q

what should you assess with tamsulosin

A

BPH (urinary problems)
dizziness and edema
I/O and daily weight

79
Q

what should patients avoid when first taking tamsulosin

A

driving

80
Q

indicated for the management of urinary urgency, hesitancy, and nocturia of benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

tamsulosin

81
Q

trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole classifications

A

T: anti-infective, antiprotozoals
P: folate antagonists, sulfonamides

82
Q

side effects of trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

A

rash, N&V, photosensitivity, pseudomembranous colitis, erythema multiforme

83
Q

what in contraindicated with patients taking trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

A

allergies to sulfa

84
Q

how should trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole be administered

A

with a full glass of water

85
Q

what should trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole patients avoid

A

direct sun exposure

86
Q

action: combination inhibits the metabolism of folic acid in bacteria at two different points

A

trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

87
Q

what is trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole commonly used for

A

treatment of lower urinary tract infections

Nursing 211/213 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions