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Ati 6 Practice > Science > Flashcards

Science Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements correctly matches a body system with its function?

A) the digestive system facilitates absorption of substances into the blood stream
B) the respiratory system transports oxygenated blood throughout the lungs and body
C)the excretory system prevent harmful substances from entering the body
D) the endocrine system transports hormones from place to place in the body

A

A

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2
Q

Which of the following glands produce melatonin, the hormone that regulates sleep?

A

Pineal gland

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3
Q 
The lungs are covered by a membrane called :
A) Pericardium 
B) periosteum 
C) symphysis
D) pleura
A

D

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4
Q 
Which of the following gland is found on top of the kidney?
A)Thyroid
B) Pituitary
C) Adrenal
D) Pancreas
A

A

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5
Q 
When an enzyme is degraded into a monomeric structural unit, its monomer will be:
A) monosaccharides.
B) fatty acids.
C) nucleotides.
D) amino acids.
A

D

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6
Q 
Which of the following is the iron-containing protein in RBCs?
A)Plasma
B)Deoxyribonucleic acid
C)Hemoglobin
D) Myoglobin
A

C

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7
Q

A blood pressure reading of 120/70mm Hg refers to arterial pressures recording during?
A)atrial contraction/ventricular contraction.
B)atrial contraction/ventricular relaxation.
C)ventricular contraction/ventricular relaxation.
D)ventricular relaxation/atrial relaxation.

A

C :
A blood pressure reading of 120 is peak arterial pressure during ventricular contraction (ventricular systole); 70 refers to minimal pressure during ventricular relaxation (ventricular diastole).

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8
Q 
Skeletal muscle contraction is stimulated by the neurotransmitter \_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is released by nerves at the neuromuscular junction.
A)acetylcholine
B)nitric oxide
C)dopamine
D)glycine
A

A
:Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released by the autonomic nervous system that causes skeletal muscles to contract.

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9
Q

Which of the following illustrates a negative feedback mechanism that occurs in the human body?
A)The release of insulin from the pancreas in response to an increase in blood-sugar levels
B)The release of glucagon from the pancreas in response to an increase in blood-sugar levels
C)The release of oxytocin resulting in uterine contractions as childbirth is underway
D)Chemical reactions that result in coagulation due to fibrin being released

A

A

:As blood-sugar levels increase, insulin is released in an effort to return blood-sugar levels back to initial levels.

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10
Q 
Which of the following conditions is related to an abnormality in the function of RBCs?
A)Arrhythmia
B)Anemia
C)Hypertension
D)Leukemia
A

B

:Anemia results when hemoglobin in red blood cells does not transport enough oxygen.

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11
Q

Which of the following is why gases are termed “compressible” and liquids are not?
A) Particles have fixed volume and are able to occupy the container in which they are contained.
B) Particles do not have much empty space between them, thus making them rigid.
C) Particles have a large amount of empty space between them.
D) Particles are held closely together by intermolecular forces.

A

C
:
This correctly describes the composition of a gas and its ability to compress; particles in liquids and solids do not have a large amount of empty space between them.

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12
Q

Which of the following results from the release of the neurotransmitter dopamine into the nerve synapse?
A)The presynaptic neuron fires an action potential.
B)Dopamine binds to receptor proteins on the membrane of the postsynaptic cell.
C)Dopamine enters the cytoplasm of the postsynaptic cell.
D)Dopamine causes the postsynaptic nerve cell to contract.

A

B
:When dopamine enters the synapse, it binds to receptor proteins of the postsynaptic cell, causing a response in the cell. Neurotransmitters are usually polar and act by binding receptors on the postsynaptic neuron.

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13
Q

A first-degree burn involves which of the following layers of skin?
A)Epidermis only
B)Epidermis and part of the dermis
C)Epidermis and all of the dermis
D)Epidermis, dermis, and some muscle and bone

A

A
:
A first-degree burn is painful and involves only the epidermis. A sunburn is a first-degree burn.

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14
Q 
The cause of cell differentiation is that different cells:
A)contain different DNA.
B)have different chromosomes.
C)contain similar protein information.
D)express alternate genetic information.
A

D
:
Different cell types express different subsets of genes.

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15
Q 
A blood sample taken from a patient fighting an infection is expected to show:
A)reduced white blood cell count.
B)elevated white blood cell count.
C)elevated red blood cell count.
D)reduced red blood cell count.
A

B
:
White blood cells increase in number when fighting infection.

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16
Q 
What is the role of the urethra?
A)To transport urine out of the body
B)To transport the egg to the uterus
C)To connect the kidneys to the bladder
D)To connect the uterus to the outside of the body
A

A
:
The urethra connects the bladder to the opening of the body and allows the urine to leave.

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17
Q

It has been hypothesized that chloroplasts originated from photosynthetic cyanobacteria that became symbiotic inside a host cell. Which of the following observations provides the strongest evidence for this suggestion?
A)Microscopically, chloroplasts appear similar to cyanobacteria.
B)Chloroplast DNA shows clear similarities to cyanobacterial DNA.
C)Both chloroplasts and cyanobacteria are green and perform photosynthesis.
D)Photosynthetic cyanobacteria and fungi form a mutualistic association in lichen.

A

B

Genetic similarities can be used to infer evolutionary relationships.

18
Q 
Which of the folowing cells produce antibodies?
A)T-cells
B)Dendritic cells
C)B-cells
D)Natural killer cells
A

C

19
Q 
Which of the following is part of the small intestine?
A)Ileum
B)Colon
C)Pylorus
D)Cecum
A

A
:
The ileum is the third section of the small intestine.

20
Q

Which of the following is the purpose of using control groups in an investigation?
A)To establish a standard for data comparison
B)To provide the correct answer to an investigation
C)To determine the dependent variables
D)To function as a third variable group

A

A

A scientific control group gives reliable baseline data to compare results.

21
Q 
Which of the following enzymes breaks down complex carbohydrates?
A)amylase
B)pepsin
C)lactase 
D)lipase
A

A
:
Amylase breaks down starch, which is a complex carbohydrate, into maltose, a simple disaccharide.

22
Q 
Which of the following glands is found exclusively in males?
A)adrenal
B)parathyroid
C)cowper's
D)pituitary
A

C
:
Cowper’s glands secrete fluid to protect sperm in males.

23
Q

235 U
92
» X + 4 He
2

Which is x in the reaction above?

A

231 Th
90
In the natural decay of the radioisotope uranium-235, uranium loses 2 protons and 4 mass units; therefore, the atomic number is reduced by 2 and the mass number is reduced by 4. This corresponds to thorium-231.

24
Q 
Which of the following contain the testes?
A)epididymis
B)mesentery
C)prostate
D)scrotum
A

D
:
The scrotum is a sac that holds the testes.

25
Q 
Which of the following is the form of energy contained in nutrient molecules in ATP's high energy bond?
A)Mechanical energy
B)Potential energy
C)Kinetic energy
D)Radiation energy
A

B
:
Potential energy
Bonds in molecules store potential energy for later use.

26
Q

Which of the following describes the function of the ribosome in a living cell?
A)Production of ATP molecules from energy in nutrient molecules
B)Disposal and recycling of damaged or unneeded cell parts
C)Use of genetic information to build specific protein molecules
D)Regulation of molecules entering and leaving the cell

A

C
:
The ribosome is the site of translation of the genetic code of DNA and RNA into the amino acid code of proteins.

27
Q 
Which of the following connect bones to muscles?
A)ligaments
B)tendons
C)synovium
D)suture
A

B

28
Q 
Which of these terms specifically means the intake and expulsion of air using the lungs?
A)inspiration
B)aeration
C)ventilation
D)oxygenation
A

C
:
This term means the same as “breathing”: the intake and expulsion of air using the lungs.

29
Q

Which of the following explains why damage to the spleen is a critical concern?
A)damage to the spleen reduces the production of granulocytes
B)damage to the spleen causes massive blood loss
C)damage to the spleen results in loss of clotting ability
D)damage to the spleen results in decreased RBS production and maturation

A

B
:
This is the site where erythrocytes are recycled, blood is filtered, and blood is stored. Damage here is critical since the spleen is full of blood, resulting in massive blood loss.

30
Q 
Which of the following organs store bile?
A)stomach
B)liver
C)small intestine
D)gallbladder
A

D

The gallbladder stores and concentrates bile.

31
Q 
Anxiety about an upcoming final exam causes a student to experience an increase in blood pressure, dilation of the pupils, and a dry mouth. Which of the following nervous system responses is responsible for these physical symptoms?
A)voluntary
B)sympathetic
C)limbic
D)cognitive
A

B
:
Sympathetic responses are involuntary physiological responses, often provoked by stress.

32
Q 
Which of the following is produced in the ovaries?
A)estrogen
B)vasopressin
C)prolactin
D)oxytocin
A

A

33
Q 
Pancreatic cells have an abundance of \_\_\_\_\_\_ to meet the protein production demands of the cell.
A)nuclei
B)mitochondria
C)lysosomes
D)rough endoplasmic reticulum
A

D
:
Rough endoplasmic reticulum is associated with ribosomes, which synthesize proteins. Therefore, an abundance of rough endoplasmic reticulum allows for the production of protein for secretion.

34
Q 
Cystic fibrosis is a homozygous recessive condition. A genetic counselor should advise parents that, if each of them has a parent who has cystic fibrosis yet neither of the concerned parents is affected, the probability of their potential child having cystic fibrosis is
A) 0%
B)25%
C)50%
D)100%
A

B

Since each parent is a carrier of the disease (CFcf), then the child would have a 25% chance of having cystic fibrosis.

35
Q 
Nails are made of proteins called
A)collagen
B)vinculin
C)keratin
D)elastin
A

C
:
Keratin is a fibrous protein found in hair and nails. It is also found in the outer layer of skin cells called keratinocytes.

36
Q 
Which of the following molecules, if present in urine, indicated a problem with kidney function?
A)albumin
B)creatinine
C)sodium ions
D)water
A

A
:
Healthy kidneys do not allow albumin, a protein, to be released in urine.

37
Q 
Which of the following layers of the epidermis contains cells that provide protection against UV radiation?
A)stratum corneum
B)stratum lucidum
C)stratum spinosum
D)stratum basale
A

D
:
Stratum basale is the deepest layer of the epidermis and contains melanin-producing cells, called melanocytes.

38
Q

Which of the following food sources provides the majority of the urea that is filtered from the blood via kidneys?
A)Meat and some plant products, such as legumes
B)Fruits, such as pineapple and pear
C)Lard and various oils, such as vegetable and canola
D)Grain products, such as breads and pasta

A

A
:
These foods contain protein, which is broken down into amino acids, a component of urea that is removed through the urinary system.

39
Q 
If an intensive property is independent of the amount of the material being measured, which of the following is an example of an intensive property?
A)mass
B)volume
C)density
D)length
A

C
Density is a ratio of material present in a given volume. Water will have the same density whether in a bucket or in a cup. It is independent of the amount of material. Therefore, it is an intensive property.

40
Q

Which of the following explains what happens in the circulatory system during hyperventilation?
A)Oxygen levels increase, causing an increase in blood pH.
B)Oxygen levels decrease, causing a decrease in blood pH.
C)Carbon dioxide levels decrease, causing an increase in blood pH.
D)Carbon dioxide levels increase, causing a decrease in blood pH.

A

C
:
As carbon dioxide levels decrease, the blood becomes more basic, increasing blood pH.

Ati 6 Practice (5 decks)

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