Science 10 Q3 (Central Dogma & Protein Synthesis) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the full name of DNA?

A

Deoxyribonucleic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The four different type of nucleotides of DNA are adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine which are represented by their first letter A, T, G, C. How are they paired?

A

Adenine-Thymine
Guanine-Cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

__________________ and ___________ in 1953, worked out that DNA is double helix which appears like a staircase. The sides of the double helix structure are the sugar phosphate backbones, and the steps or rungs are the base pairs.

A

James Watson & Francis Crick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is the process of DNA duplication from an existing DNA.

A

DNA Replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

__________ is the unzipping enzyme and unzips the two strands of DNA in the double helix
through the hydrogen bond that holds the two base pairs together.

A

Helicase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

___________ will initialize the process and
directs the DNA polymerase for it to figure out where it gets to start.

A

Primase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

______________ is the builder
enzyme which replicates DNA molecules in order to build a new strand of DNA.

A

DNA polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

___________ is the gluer. which helps glue DNA fragments together to form the new strand of DNA.

A

Ligase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Three major steps of DNA replication

A

Step 1: Initiation- DNA replication starts at the Origin of Replication. The unzipping enzyme Helicase causes the DNA strand separation, which leads to the formation of the replication fork. It breaks the hydrogen bond between the base pairs to separate the strand, thus separating the DNA into individua strands
Step 2: Elongation- During elongation, DNA Polymerase III makes the new DNA strand by reading the nucleotides on the template strand and binding one nucleotide after the other to generate a whole new complementary strand. It helps in the proofreading and repairing the new strand. DNA Polymerase is able to identify and back track any mis paired nucleotides and corrects it immediately. The bases attached to each strand then pair up with the three nucleotides found in the cytoplasm. If it finds an Adenine (A) on the template, it will only add a Thymine (T). If it finds a Guanine (G) on the template, it will only add a Cytosine (C).
Step 3. Termination -In the previous steps of DNA replication, at the Origin, a Primer helps the DNA Polymerase to initiate the process. As the strand is created, the primer has to be removed. This is when DNA Polymerase I comes into the picture to replace the RNA nucleotides from the Primer with DNA nucleotides to make sure it is DNA all the way through. When DNA Polymerase III adds nucleotides to the lagging strand and forms Okazaki fragments, it leaves a gap or two between the fragments. These gaps are filled by the enzyme ligase and makes sure that everything else is connected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following enzymes is used to join strands of DNA?
A. DNA Ligase
B. DNA Polymerase
C. Nucleic Acid
D. Primase

A

A. DNA Ligase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the complementary messenger-RNA sequence for the DNA template sequence shown here? C-A-A-G-G-T
A. GTTCCA
B. CAAGGU
C. GUUCCA
D. CAAGGT

A

A. GTTCCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

RNA contains which bases?
A. adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil C. thymine, guanine, cytosine, uracil
B. adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine
D. adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil

A

D. adenine, guanine, cytosine, uracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to the central dogma, which of the following represents the flow of genetic information in cells?
A. protein to DNA to RNA
B. DNA to RNA to protein
C. RNA to DNA to protein
D. DNA to protein to RNA

A

B. DNA to RNA to protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

During translation, proteins are synthesized by ribosomes using the information on:
A. DNA
B. mRNA
C. rRNA
D. tRNA

A

D. tRNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a point mutation?
A. Frameshift mutation
B. Missense mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Silent mutation

A

A. Frameshift mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

are segments of DNA located on chromosomes.

A

Genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

is a permanent change of the nucleotide sequence of the genome of an organism, virus, or extrachromosomal DNA or other genetic elements. It results in damage to DNA that is not repaired or to
RNA genomes (typically caused by radiation or chemical mutagens), errors in the process of replication, or from the insertion or deletion of segments of DNA by mobile genetic elements

A

Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Gene Mutation

A

is a permanent change of the nucleotide sequence of the genome of an organism, virus, or extrachromosomal DNA or other genetic elements. It results in damage to DNA that is not repaired or to
RNA genomes (typically caused by radiation or chemical mutagens), errors in the process of replication, or from the insertion or deletion of segments of DNA by mobile genetic elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gene mutations can be generally
categorized into two types:

A

point mutations and base-pair insertions or deletions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

are types of gene mutations, such as those affecting a small gene in one or a few nucleotides. There are 2 types of gene mutations: Point Mutation and Frame-Shift Mutation.

A

Small scale mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

is the change of a single nitrogen base in a DNA sequence. It is usually the least harmful type of DNA mutation.

A

Point Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

This happens when a point mutation causes a single nitrogen base in a codon for one amino acid in the protein glutamic acid to code for the amino acid valine instead. This single small change causes a normally round red blood cell to instead be sickle shaped.

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

These are type of change that does not alter the sequence of a protein because of the redundancy of the genetic code (the new triplet codes for the same amino acid as the original triplet),
or because it affects an area not coding DNA or an intron.

But this change can still have serious consequences on the phenotype. Indeed, the change of a single nucleotide can change the splice donor site, without changing the amino acid sequence. This may, therefore, result in a deletion of an entire exon of the peptide sequence, the exon is not recognized because the splice site has been mutated. A synonymous mutation means a silent mutation that affects exon, without changing the protein sequence.

A

Silent Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

This point mutation results in the replacement of one nucleotide by
another. In some cases, this change causes a change in the amino acid encoded, which may or may not have an impact on the function of the protein produced by the gene in the case of a gene encoding, or the affinity for a transcription factor, in the case of a promoter region of the DNA.

We speak of mutation transition when there is a substitution of a purine base to another base purine (or pyrimidine
base to another pyrimidine base). In contrast, a mutation transversion is a mutation caused by the replacement of a purine by a pyrimidine base (or pyrimidine base by a purine base).

A

Missense Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Change of a nucleotide causes the replacement of a codon specifying an amino acid by a stop codon. This results in the production of a truncated protein

A

Nonsense mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

are generally much more serious and often more deadly than point mutations. Even though only a single nitrogen base is affected, as with point mutations, in this instance, the single base is either completely deleted or an extra one is inserted into the middle of the DNA sequence. This change in sequence causes the reading frame to shift

A

Frame-shift Mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

add one or more extra nucleotides into the DNA. They are usually caused by transposable elements, or errors during the replication of repeating elements (e.g., AT repeats). These in the coding region of a gene may alter splicing of the mRNA (splice site mutation), or cause a shift in the reading frame (frameshift mutation), both of which can significantly alter the gene product. Insertions can be reversed by the excision of the transposable element.

A

Insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

mean removing one or more nucleotides from the DNA. Like insertions, these mutations can alter the reading frame of the gene. In general, they are irreversible: Though exactly the same
sequence might, in theory, be restored by an insertion, transposable elements able to revert a very short _____ (say 1–2 bases) in any location either are highly unlikely to exist or do not exist at all.

A

Deletion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

a mass of genetic material consisting of DNA that is tightly coiled
around proteins called

A

Histones

30
Q

A ____________ is single-stranded and is comprised of a centromere region that connects two arm regions.

A

Non-duplicated chromosome

31
Q

short arm region

A

p arm

32
Q

long arm region

A

q arm

33
Q

The joining of a fragmented chromosome to a non-homologous chromosome is a translocation. The
piece of chromosome detaches from one chromosome and moves to a new position on another chromosome.

A

Translocation

34
Q

This mutation results from the breakage of a chromosome in which the genetic material becomes lost during cell division. The genetic material can break off from anywhere on the chromosome.

A

Deletion

35
Q

are produced when extra copies of genes are generated on a chromosome

A

Duplication

36
Q

In an inversion, the broken chromosome segment is reversed and inserted back into the
chromosome. If the inversion encompasses the centromere of the chromosome, it is called a pericentric inversion. If it involves the long or short arm of the chromosome and does not include the centromere, it i called a paracentric inversion.

A

Inversion

37
Q

This type of chromosome is produced by the improper division of the centromere. Isochromosomes contain either two short arms or two long arms. A typical chromosome contains one short arm and one long arm.

A

Isochromosome

38
Q

_____________ is a genetic disease common among those who are from Africa. This genetic
disease is the result of a point mutation where there is a change in just one nucleotide in the gene for hemoglobin. The mutation causes the hemoglobin in red blood cells to transform to a sickle shape when de-oxygenated. Since the shape is altered, it cuts of blood circulation and clogs the capillaries.

A

Sickle Cell Anemia

39
Q

is a progressive, genetic disease that affects the secretory glands, including the
mucus and sweat glands. Cystic fibrosis causes persistent lung infections and limits the ability to breathe
over time.
There is no cure for CF, but treatments have greatly improved in recent years. Medication, exercise,
nutritional and respiratory therapies are some of the treatment options.

A

Cystic Fibrosis

40
Q

is a rare inherited disorder that causes progressive damage to the nervous system and most commonly affects infants. It is mainly caused by the absence of a vital enzyme called hexosaminidase-A (Hex-A). Symptoms usually appear between three to five months of age. The development slows down, and they gradually lose their ability to move. Tay-Sachs is a recessively inherited disease that only occurs when both parents carry a Tay-Sachs gene, and each parent transmits the defective gene to their child. A child who inherits two Tay-Sachs genes (one from each parent) produces no functional Hex-A enzyme and is certain to develop Tay-Sachs disease. The Tay-Sachs genes are located on chromosome 15.

A

Tay-Sachs Disease

41
Q

is an inherited bleeding disorder that causes abnormal or exaggerated bleeding and poor blood clotting. It is also called a “royal disease” because it affected the royal families of England, Germany, Russia and Spain in the 19th and 20th centuries. Although it is passed down from parents to children, about 1/3 of cases are caused by a spontaneous mutation, a change in a gene. The most common type of hemophilia is hemophilia A. Common symptoms include excessive bleeding and easy bruising.

A

Hemophilia (haemophilia)

42
Q

or trisomy 21 is the most common chromosomal disorder. People with Down
syndrome have 47 chromosomes in their cells instead of 46 and suffer from mild to moderate disabilities. Delayed development and behavioral problems are often reported in children with down syndrome. Common physical traits include a flat face, small head and short neck, and upward slanting eyes. (5). There are three main types of Down syndrome: trisomy 21, mosaicism, and translocation.

A

Down syndrome

43
Q

also known as XXY condition is a chromosomal condition that affects male
physical and cognitive development. The most common symptom of Klinefelter syndrome is infertility. Some common symptoms include small penis, small firm testes, less pubic, armpit and facial hair, enlarged breasts, tall stature, and abnormal body proportions.

A

Klinefelter syndrome

44
Q

is a complex genetic disorder that affects growth, metabolism, appetite,
cognitive function, behavioral problems, low levels of sex hormones and a constant feeling of hunger. It is caused by the loss of genes in a specific region of chromosome 15. There is no cure for PWS, growth hormone, exercise, and dietary supervision can help build muscle mass and control weight.

A

Prader-Willi syndrome (PWS)

45
Q

is a rare chromosomal ailment that impacts girls. It is associated with the x
chromosome that alters development in women, even though it isn’t normally inherited in families. The most consistent functions of TS are brief stature and lack of ovarian development. Most women with Turnersyndrome are infertile

A

Turner syndrome (TS)

46
Q

(also known as Trisomy 18 (T18) or Trisomy E) is a genetic disorder caused by
the presence of all or part of an extra 18th chromosome. The majority of people with the syndrome die
during the fetal stage; infants who survive experience serious defects and commonly live for short periods
of time. Edwards’ syndrome is associated with a broad spectrum of abnormalities which consist of greater
than one-hundred and thirty discrete defects involving the brain, heart, craniofacial structures, kidneys, and
stomach.
Edward’s Syndrome is named after John H. Edwards, who first described the syndrome in 1960.

A

Edward’s Syndrome

47
Q

is an inheritis a genetic condition present from birth that affects growth and development. Infants with this condition often have a high-pitched cat-like cry, small head size, and a characteristic facial appearance. They may have trouble breathing and feeding difficulties. People with this condition typically have intellectual disability, developmental and speech delay, and behavioral issues. Cri du chat syndrome is due to a missing piece (deletion) of a specific part of chromosome 5 known as the ‘p’ arm. In general, the severity of the symptoms is determined by the size and location of the deletion on chromosome 5.

A

Cri du chat syndrome

48
Q

is a condition caused by a loss of genetic material from chromosome 11.
Because this deletion occurs at the end (terminus) of the long (q) arm of chromosome 11, Jacobsen syndrome is also known as 11q terminal deletion disorder.

A

Jacobsen syndrome

49
Q

RNA falls into three major categories

A

Messenger RNA (mRNA)
Transfer RNA (tRNA)
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

50
Q

copies the genetic code from the DNA into a form that can be read and used to make proteins. It transmits genetic information from the nucleus to the cell’s cytoplasm

A

mRNA (messenger RNA)

51
Q

is situated in the cytoplasm of a cell, where we can find the ribosomes. It leads the translation of mRNA into proteins.

A

rRNA (Ribosomal RNA)

52
Q

transfers amino acids to the ribosome that matches to each three-nucleotide codon of rRNA. The amino acids then can be combined and processed to make polypeptides and proteins

A

tRNA (Transfer RNA)

53
Q

in protein synthesis is the process where RNA is made from the DNA by copying the base sequence of the double stranded DNA into a piece of a single stranded nucleic acid.

A

Transcription

54
Q

The transcription process is catalyzed by the enzyme?

A

RNA Polymerase

55
Q

takes place in the cell’s nucleus. This process uses DNA as a model to make an RNA (mRNA) molecule. During this, a strand of mRNA is made that corresponds to a strand of DNA. Just like DNA replication, transcription also occurs in three major steps: initiation,elongation, and termination.

A

Transcription of DNA to form RNA

56
Q

It transpires when the enzyme RNA polymerase binds to a specific region of a gene which is called the promoter with the help of proteins called ‘transcription factors’. This signals the DNA double strand to unwind and open so the RNA polymerase enzyme can ‘‘read’’ the bases found in one of the DNA strands. With the open strands, one is considered as the template strand (anti-sense strand) and this will be used to generate the mRNA. The other is called the non-template strand (sense strand). After reading the bases, the RNA polymerase enzyme is now ready to make a strand of mRNA with a complementary sequence of bases.

A

Step 1: Initiation

57
Q

is the adding of nucleotides to the mRNA strand. RNA polymerase reads the opened DNA strand and forms the mRNA molecule with the use of complementary base pairs. There is a short time during this process when the newly formed RNA is bound to the opened DNA. During this process, an adenine (A) in the DNA binds to an uracil (U) in the RNA. RNA polymerase does not need a primer during this process. It simply initiates the mRNA synthesis from the starting point and then moves downstream reading the anti-sense strand from 3’ to 5’ and generating the mRNA from the 5’ to 3’ end as it goes. Unlike helicase enzyme in DNA replication, RNA polymerase zips DNA back up as it goes keeping only 10-20 bases exposed one at a time.

A

Step 2: Elongation

58
Q

This happens when RNA polymerase enzyme reaches a stop or termination sequence in the gene. When the stop sequence or stop codon is reached, the enzyme detaches from the gene. The mRNA strand is now produced, and it detaches from DNA. It carries with it the information encoded in the gene

A

Step 3: Termination

59
Q

is the genetic material of all organisms on Earth from microbes
to plants and human beings. It is a thin long molecule found in the cell’s nucleus which is made up of nucleotides.

A

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid)

60
Q

An organism’s complete set of DNAs, including all its genes. It contains a complete set of information which determines inherited physical characteristics such as height, skin, eye, and hair color and many others

A

Genome

61
Q

cells that contain a nucleus and organelles and are enclosed by a plasma membrane

A

eukaryotic cells

62
Q

The basic structure of nucleotide consists of a?

A

phosphate group, sugar and a nitrogenous base

63
Q
A
64
Q

basic unit of heredity

A

gene

65
Q

major key players in DNA replication are the enzymes? (HPDL)

A

helicase
primase
DNA polymerase
ligase

66
Q

the unzipping enzyme and unzips the two strands of DNA in the double helix through the hydrogen bond that holds the two base pairs together.

A

Helicase

67
Q

will initialize the process and directs the DNA polymerase for it to figure out where it gets to start

A

Primase

68
Q

is the starting point for DNA synthesis. They are made of RNA (Ribonucleic Acid). Its major role is to act as a messenger carrying instructions from DNA for controlling the synthesis of proteins.

A

Primer

69
Q

is the builder enzyme which replicates DNA molecules in order to build a new strand of DNA

A

DNA polymerase

70
Q

is the gluer. which helps glue DNA fragments together to form the new strand of DNA.

A

Ligase

71
Q

Humans have how many pairs of chromosomes?

A

Humans typically have 23 pairs of chromosomes, or 46 chromosomes in total.

72
Q

Amino Acid

A

Amino Acid