Schizophrenia Flashcards

1
Q

Males are more likely than females to have these A Criteria symptoms of schizophrenia

A
negative symptoms 
(alogia, affective flattening, avolution, anhedonia)
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2
Q

What are the positive symptoms of schizophrenia?

A

delusions, disorganized

thinking, and hallucinations

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3
Q

If the A criteria for Schizophrenia have been met for between 1 & 6 months, the diagnosis is this

A

schizophreniform disorder

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4
Q

Before diagnosing schizophrenia, exclusionary diagnoses that must
be ruled out include:
other psychotic disorders,
childhood developmental disorders, medical or neurological illness,
substance abuse or medication induced, personality disorders, & this

A

Mood disorders

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5
Q

Regarding the cognitive symptoms of schizophrenia, the mnemonic SMART refers what?

A

speed, memory, attention, reasoning, and tact (social cognition)

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6
Q

This A criteria negative symptom of schizophrenia is also a symptom of major depression

A

Anhedonia

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7
Q

To meet DSM5’s A criteria of Schizophrenia, of the 2 symptoms 1 needs to one of the following:

A

a delusion, a hallucination, or disorganized thinking/speech

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8
Q

Seen in schizophrenia (& other disorders) - stupor, waxy flexibility, mutism, negativism, stereotypy, & echolalia are motor activities that are part of a clinical picture of this

A

Catatonia

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9
Q

Voices that are only heard when a patient is just waking up from sleeping are called this

A

hypnopompic hallucinations

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10
Q

These symptoms of schizophrenia present early in the illness, worsen during the active periods, & do not respond well to anti-psychotic medications

A

negative symptoms (or cognitive symptoms)

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11
Q

It is “proposed” that because most patients with schizophrenia have limited social contacts, only
30-40% do this

A

Get married

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12
Q

What is the percentage of patients with schizophrenia who experience a single active episode?

A

10%

~30% have an intermittent course, ~60% have a chronic course

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13
Q

Seen in ~85% of patients prior to the 1st psychotic episode, this negative prognostic sign lasts several months to years

A

Prodrome

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14
Q

For ♂ &♀ with schizophrenia, the peak age of onset (the mode) is the same but the average age of onset is different due to what?

A

There is a 2nd smaller peak age of onset peak for females after age 40

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15
Q

Patients with schizophrenia have a life expectancy that is about 25 years less than the general population primarily
due to what?

A

Cardiovascular disease

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16
Q

The functional decline for a patient with schizophrenia begins during this phase of
the illness

A

The prodrome

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17
Q

Due to their many problems as outlined in the B criteria, only 33% of those with schizophrenia are able to do this on July 4th

A

Live independently

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18
Q

The average course of schizophrenia tends to be more severe in males than females because of this.

A

males generally develop the illness earlier

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19
Q

For patients with schizophrenia, the main goal of continuous pharmacologic treatment with antipsychotics is this

A

prevent relapse into the active phase

20
Q

Decreasing the antipsychotic medication in an attempt to use the “lowest effective dose” is associated with this

A

increased risk of relapse

21
Q

The most common reason patients with schizophrenia are psychiatrically hospitalized is this

A

psychosis/active phase of illness

22
Q

Except for clozapine (Clozaril), all anti-psychotic medications are unlikely to work by 4 weeks if a patient does not show a response within this number of week(s).

23
Q

Lower doses of antipsychotics are used to treat patients with the first active phase of schizophrenia because of this

A

greater sensitivity to medication side effects

24
Q

Clozapine (Clozaril) for patients with schizophrenia and lithium for patients with bipolar disorder both have this same unique benefit

A

decreases risk of suicide

25
Common indications for a clozapine (clozaril) trial include these 4 reasons:
- persistence of positive symptoms - failure of > 2 antipsychotic trials - co-morbid substance abuse - recurrent suicidality/violence
26
In treating patients with FGA’s, often titrating the dose up until side effects emerge corresponds to blocking this percentage of dopamine receptors
75-80%
27
In order to have the desired antipsychotic effect, medications need to block at least 65% of dopamine receptors in this pathway
Mesolimbic tract
28
Low potency antipsychotics have common side effects of dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, & urinary hesitancy due to this
anti-cholinergic activity (cholinergic blockade)
29
Young males may be at higher risk than the rest of the population for this EPS side effect of muscle spasms
Dystonia
30
Once a patient develops tardive dyskinesia, the most common course of the symptoms is this
Symptoms remain static/unchanged (ongoing symptoms
31
While amantadine (symmetrel), lorazepam (ativan), clonidine (catapres), even mirtazepine (remeron), can be used for treating akathisia, the first choice of medication for treatment is this
propranolol (indural)
32
Name treatments for akathisia.
propranolol (indural), amantadine (symmetrel), lorazepam (ativan), clonidine (catapres), mirtazepine (remeron)
33
Diphenhydramine (benadryl) is used to treat EPS because of this effect
Benadryl is anticholinergic
34
While there is still a significant risk of EPS, patients are less likely to complain of EPS symptoms from this type of FGA
low potency FGAs, like chlorpromazine (thorazine)
35
About half of the patients with tardive dyskinesia show a 50% symptom reduction from treatment with this medication
clozapine (clozaril)
36
50% of patients in this age are at risk of tardive dyskinesia if they FGA’s for 24 months
older adults/geriatrics (>70 y/o)
37
``` An EPS side effect often described as a subjective sense of restlessness (the person can’t sit still) is this ```
akathisia
38
These two SGA’s are least likely to have EPS side effects
clozapine (clozaril) and quetiapine (seroquel)
39
This SGA has a particularly long half life and a low risk of metabolic syndrome, but is the SGA most likely to cause akathisia
aripiprazole (abilify)
40
``` These 2 SGA’s are available in long acting injectable form but can cause dose dependent EPS & prolactin elevation ```
risperidone (risperdal) & palliperidone (invega)
41
This SGA has a low risk of metabolic syndrome, needs to be taken with food, and is the most likely SGA to cause qTc prolongation
ziprasidone (geodone)
42
This SGA has the highest risk of metabolic syndrome, is very sedating, and the CATIE study showed patients are highly likely to be compliant
olanzapine (zyprexa)
43
This SGA does not require hepatic metabolism because it is an active metabolite of risperidone (risperdal)
paliperidone (invega)
44
This SGA has almost zero risk of EPS or agranulocytosis, is often sedating & has a moderate risk of metabolic syndrome
quetiapine (seroquel)
45
This SGA is unique since it | is a partial agonist
aripiprazole (abilify)
46
This SGA may cause side effects of sialorrhea, weight gain, sedation, anticholinergic effects, myocarditis, and a lower seizure threshold
clozapine (clozaril)