Scenarios Ch.17 Flashcards
- A 27-year-old man who was badly burned in an industrial accident requires multiple skin grafting. While in the intensive care unit, he is found to have blood in his stools, and endoscopy confirms the presence of many small ulcers in his stomach. This complication is referred to as (A) aplastic anemia. (B) Curling ulcer. (C) Cushing ulcer. (D) Reye syndrome. (E) Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
The answer is B. Punctate ulcers associated with extensive burn injuries are known as Curling ulcers. A similar phenomenon occurs in patients with head trauma, in which the lesions are known as Cushing ulcers. Aplastic anemia can result from an idiosyncratic reaction in patients taking the antibiotic chloramphenicol. Likewise, sulfonamides can cause a necrotizing eruption around mucous membranes in some individuals. Reye syndrome is associated with extensive microvesicular fatty change of the liver in children taking aspirin during an acute viral illness. The Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by erosions and crusts of the lips and oral mucosa as a component of an extensive form of erythema multiforme, a maculopapular, vesiculobullous eruption often related to drugs (such as sulfonamides), neoplasia, or connective tissue disorders.
- A 73-year-old man develops severe, intractable diarrhea during hospitalization for bacterial pneumonia caused by a multidrug- resistant organism. What organism is most likely responsible for his gastrointestinal symptoms? (A) MRSA (B) Streptococcus pneumoniae (C) Candida (D) Clostridium difficile (E) Clostridium botulinum
The answer is D. C. difficile causes diarrhea in patients in whom competing colonic flora has been obliterated by antibiotics. Candidal infections are also common in patients on antibiotics but typically manifest with oral or vaginal candidiasis, rather than diarrhea. MRSA is a growing problem both in the hospital and in the community but does not typically cause diarrhea (although it could well be the cause of the patient’s drug-resistant pneumonia!). C. botulinum causes botulism, a rare but sometimes fatal paralytic disorder, and is not associated with diarrhea.
- A 60-year-old man presents with hematemesis, melena, guaiac-positive stools, and signs of circulatory collapse. He has a 20-year history of burning midepigastric pain and tenderness relieved by food, milk, or antacids. Also, he has been taking high doses of NSAIDs to relieve the pain of long-standing arthritis. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy reveals a peptic ulcer in the upper duodenum. Which of the following is an important association of duodenal peptic ulcer disease? (A) Barrett esophagus and columnar intestinal metaplasia of esophageal squamous epithelium (B) Evolution into carcinoma as a likely sequela (C) H. pylori infection (D) Hiatal hernia and incompetent lower esophageal sphincter (E) Pernicious anemia and achlorhydria
- T he answer is C. Of course, the immediate problem in this patient is life-threatening upper gastrointestinal hemorrhage, an important complication of peptic ulcer disease. Peptic ulcer disease occurs most frequently in the first portion of the duodenum, the lesser curvature of the stomach, or the distal esophagus. Duodenal peptic ulcers are associated with hypersecretion of gastric acid and pepsin and are closely related to gastric H. pylori infection. Apparently, H. pylori increases gastric acid secretion and impairs mucosal defenses. Other predisposing factors include aspirin or NSAID intake, smoking, Zollinger- Ellison syndrome, primary hyperparathyroidism, and multiple endocrine neoplasia type I.
- A 60-year-old Caucasian man with a 5-year history of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) presents with persistent pyrosis (heartburn) and acid regurgitation. He has had similar symptoms for the past 5 years. Because this patient has a long history of GERD, an esophagogastroduodenoscopy is performed to screen for Barrett esophagus, a well-known complication of long-standing GERD. Results reveal that Barrett esophagus is indeed present. Which of the following is true of Barrett esophagus? (A) A biopsy will show a histologic finding of columnar-to-squamous metaplasia. (B) It is a known precursor of adenocarcinoma of the esophagus. (C) It is a known precursor of carcinoma of the stomach. (D) It is a known precursor of squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus. (E) The most common location is the proximal (upper) third of the esophagus.
- T he answer is B. Barrett esophagus is columnar metaplasia of the esophageal squamous epithelium (squamous-to-columnar). The columnar epithelium is often of the intestinal type with goblet cells. Barrett esophagus is a complication of long-standing GERD and is a precursor of esophageal adenocarcinoma. The most common location is in the distal (lower) third of the esophagus.
- A 65-year-old man presents with dysphagia, weight loss, and anorexia. Physical examination is normal. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy with biopsy of an esophageal lesion is performed, revealing squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following is true regarding this cancer? (A) Cigarette smoking and chronic alcohol use are associated risk factors. (B) Gastroesophageal reflux disease and Barrett esophagus are associated risk factors. (C) Histologic findings include disordered, back-to-back submucosal glands. (D) It most frequently arises in the lower third of the esophagus. (E) This cancer is characterized by an indolent course, and long survival is common.
- T he answer is A. Squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus is an aggressive cancer with rapid progression and short survival in all stages of disease. It is most common in subjects with a long-term history of cigarette smoking and alcohol use. The tumor arises most commonly in the upper and middle thirds of the esophagus.
- A 10-day-old infant presents with projectile vomiting. His mother states that the infant will actively drink his milk, but he forcefully vomits after each feeding. The infant shows signs of failure to thrive, with weight loss, dehydration, and lethargy. Physical examination reveals a firm, nontender, mobile, “olive-shaped” epigastric mass. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? (A) Candida esophagitis (B) Congenital pyloric stenosis (C) Esophageal cancer (D) GERD (E) Tracheoesophageal fistula
- T he answer is B. Congenital pyloric stenosis is caused by hypertrophy of the circular muscular layer of the pylorus, resulting in a palpable mass in the epigastrium. Hypertrophy of the pyloric musculature leads to obstruction and the characteristic projectile vomiting. This condition most commonly occurs in male infants within the first several days to weeks of life.
- A 25-year-old man presents with lowgrade fever, weight loss, fatigue, crampy abdominal pain, episodic diarrhea, and postprandial bloating. Right lower quadrant tenderness is elicited on palpation of the abdomen. A capsule endoscopy reveals thickening of the terminal ileum, edema, marked luminal narrowing, and a cobblestone appearance of the mucosa. Which of the following is a characteristic of this condition? (A) Additional typical findings include crypt abscesses and pseudopolyps. (B) Inflammation and ulceration limited to mucosa and submucosa with sparing of deeper layers. (C) It can affect any portion of the gastrointestinal tract, but proximal jejunum is most common site of involvement. (D) It can cause fistula formation between loops of affected bowel. (E) It is a benign, self-limited disorder with no complicating sequelae.
- The answer is D. Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis are the two classic inflammatory bowel diseases. Crohn disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from mouth to anus, but most commonly involves the distal ileocecum, small intestine, or colon. Morphologically, Crohn disease manifests as transmural inflammation (involving all layers of the intestinal wall), thickening of involved intestine, linear ulceration, a cobblestone appearance, skip lesions (normal intestine between affected regions), and granulomas. Strictures and fistulae may develop, leading to intestinal obstruction. Crohn disease may lead to carcinoma of the small intestine or colon, but much less commonly than ulcerative colitis.
- A 70-year-old man presents with fatigue, weight loss, abdominal pain, and overt blood in the stools. A complete blood count reveals anemia with hemoglobin of 10.0 g/dL. A colonoscopy and colon biopsy reveal adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing lesion that led to this condition? (A) FAP syndrome (B) Hyperplastic polyp (C) Long-standing ulcerative colitis (D) Peutz-Jeghers polyp (E) Tubular adenoma
- T he answer is E. Adenocarcinoma of the colon most commonly develops through a progression of mutations in oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes in a multistep process. Normal mucosa evolves into a tubular adenoma with malignant potential, which then further evolves into carcinoma (the adenoma-carcinoma sequence). Carcinoma of the rectosigmoid (left-sided) tends to present as early obstruction, with change in bowel habits and decreased caliber of stool, whereas carcinoma of the right colon (right-sided) tends to present late, with iron deficiency anemia due to chronic blood loss from the lesion.
- For the past week, a 65-year-old woman has been treated for a severe infection with broad-spectrum antibiotics, and she had recovered well. Over the past day, however, she has developed foul-smelling, voluminous, greenish, watery diarrhea, as well as abdominal pain and fever. She is diagnosed with pseudomembranous colitis. Which of the following is the mechanism associated with this condition? (A) Aggregation of bacterial colonies on the lumen, forming pseudomembranes (B) Bacterial release of exotoxin, inducing necrosis of the mucosa (C) Physical invasion of bacteria into the superficial mucosa, leading to pseudomembrane formation (D) Selective killing of C. difficile bacteria by antibiotics (E) Spread of the previous infection to the colon
- T he answer is B. Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by overgrowth of C. difficile. This organism produces exotoxin that induces necrosis of the superficial mucosa, leading to pseudomembrane formation. The bacteria itself does not invade the mucosa. This condition most often occurs in patients with a history of broad-spectrum antibiotic use, because elimination of normal intestinal flora promotes overgrowth of C. difficile.
- An elderly woman with chronic constipation dies of a stroke and comes to autopsy. The figure illustrates a portion of her colon. The lesions shown in the figure (A) can be complicated by inflammation, perforation, and peritonitis. (B) are most likely related to a high-fiber diet. (C) most frequently occur high on the right side of the colon. (D) occur most often in teenagers.
- T he answer is A. The illustration demonstrates diverticulosis of the colon (openings shown by arrows). These lesions are most common in older persons and are found most often in the sigmoid. The incidence of disease is increased in populations that consume low-fiber diets. Although most often asymptomatic, diverticula may become the site of acute inflammation (diverticulitis), sometimes with life-threatening complications, such as perforation and peritonitis.
- A 69-year-old man was seen for vague abdominal distress. The gastric lesion shown in the figure was resected following initial endoscopic discovery. Which of the following statements about this condition is correct? (A) It has been decreasing in frequency over the past several decades. (B) It is more frequent in Japan than in the United States. (C) It is related to the use of nitrites as food preservatives. (D) It may result in Krukenberg tumors. (E) It will most likely heal with conservative management.
- T he answer is E. The illustration shows a chronic gastric peptic ulcer with characteristic radiating folds of the gastric mucosa starting at the ulcer margins. The lesion has a smooth base with a little fibrin attached and nonelevated, punched-out margins, in contrast to gastric carcinoma, which often has an irregular necrotic base and firm, raised margins. Despite these characteristic findings, the distinction between gastric peptic ulcer and ulcerated carcinoma must be established by biopsy. In contrast to carcinoma, peptic ulcer will usually heal with conservative management.
- A 20-year-old man presents with severe right lower quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and anorexia. He states that the abdominal pain started around his umbilicus and has now migrated to the right lower quadrant of his abdomen. Physical examination reveals exquisite tenderness at McBurney point (the point one-third of the distance along the line from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus). This patient is diagnosed with acute appendicitis. Which of the following is the treatment for this condition? (A) Antibiotics only, because the appendix is crucial for survival (B) Surgical resection of the appendix, because appendicitis can lead to appendiceal cancer (C) Surgical resection of the appendix, because appendicitis can lead to perforation or abscess (D) “Watch-and-wait” approach over days to see if inflammation subsides
- T he answer is C. The inflamed appendix in acute appendicitis should be surgically removed because of possible devastating complications of perforation or abscess.
- In a routine colonoscopy, a 76-year-old man is found to have a lesion similar to that shown in the illustration. The lesion shown is a classic example of which of the following? (A) Hamartoma (B) Invasive adenocarcinoma (C) Peutz-Jeghers polyp (D) Tubular adenoma (E) Villous adenom
- T he answer is D. The illustration shows a tubular adenoma, which is the most common form of adenomatous polyp. These lesions can be single or multiple, or they can occur as components of various multiple polyposis syndromes. Notable among these syndromes are Gardner (associated with osteomas and soft tissue tumors), Turcot (associated with central nervous system tumors), and FAP. All of the foregoing are associated with an increased incidence of colon malignancy. In contrast, the Peutz-Jeghers polyp is a nonneoplastic hamartomatous lesion. Even though the polyp itself does not transform into colon cancer, the Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is associated with an increased incidence of colon cancer and malignancies elsewhere.
- A 35-year-old man undergoes gastrectomy for gastric carcinoma. Gross examination of the resected stomach reveals diffuse thickening without a discrete mass lesion. Microscopic exam shows an infiltration of signet-ring cells dispersed singly. Family history reveals that his father had a similar cancer at a young age. What gene is most likely to be mutated in this patient and his father? (A) APC (B) CDH1 (C) MSH2 (D) PMS2 (E) p53
- T he answer is B. This patient most likely has a mutation in CDH1, the gene encoding the cellular adhesion protein E-cadherin. E-cadherin mutations account for a significant proportion of familial gastric cancers and are also implicated in lobular carcinoma of the breast. CDH1-mutated gastric adenocarcinomas typically show signet-ring morphology with diffuse infiltration resulting in a “linitis plastic” (“leather bottle”) gross appearance. APC is mutated in the majority of colorectal adenocarcinomas. MSH2 and PMS2 are both mismatch repair genes that may be mutated in Lynch syndrome. Although Lynch syndrome patients are at increased risk for gastric adenocarcinoma, their tumors are typically conventional, rather than signet-ring, in morphology. p53 is mutated in a wide variety of sporadic cancers and shows germline mutations in Li Fraumeni syndrome.
- A 60-year-old woman develops a rightsided colonic adenocarcinoma. She has a history of alleged colonoscopies; however, review of images from her most recent colonoscopy reveals a prominent fold in the region that subsequently developed cancer. Biopsy from this area would have most likely revealed which of the following? (A) Tubular adenoma (B) Hyperplastic polyp (C) Peutz-Jeghers polyp (D) Sessile serrated adenoma (E) Inflammatory polyp
- T he answer is D. Sessile serrated adenomas can be very subtle and are easily missed on endoscopy. Under the microscope, they closely resemble hyperplastic polyps but show more complicated glands, often with “boot-shaped” configurations at the gland bases. Unlike tubular adenomas, they lack the overtly dysplastic epithelium and often do not form polypoid lesions. Hyperplastic polyps, Peutz-Jeghers polyps, and inflammatory polyps are not malignant precursors.
- A 45-year-old man complains of “heartburn” and burning epigastric pain, relieved by antacids and triggered by eating spicy or acidic foods or by assuming a recumbent position. The patient smokes two packs of cigarettes a day and consumes several alcoholic drinks each evening. Which of the following is the usual cause of this patient’s condition? A) Columnar intestinal metaplasia of esophageal squamous epithelium (B) Excessive acid production in the stomach (C) Excessive NSAID use (D) H. pylori infection (E) Hiatal hernia and incompetent lower esophageal sphincter
- T he answer is E. This is a classic case of GERD, which is caused by reflux of gastric acid contents into the lower esophagus. GERD manifests as burning epigastric pain on eating spicy foods or on lying recumbent. The pain is usually relieved by antacids. GERD is most commonly associated with hiatal hernia and an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter, as well as with excessive use of alcohol or tobacco, increased gastric volume, pregnancy, and scleroderma. Barrett esophagus, or columnar intestinal metaplasia of the epithelium of the distal esophagus, is a complication of long-standing GERD.
Large bowel biopsy, Image with tubules w/ necrosis. Most likely? A. SCC B. Fibrosarcoma C. Adenocarcinoma D. Small cell carcinoma E. Goblet cell carcinoma
C. Adenocarcinoma Gland like malignancy= adenocarcinoma
- 52 y.o male presents w/ weight loss, lethargy and dry cough. Coughed up blood, history of hypertension that is well controlled. BMI is 30 and is on statin drug. Image shoud hilar mass in right lung. Biopsies show well to moderately differenated malignant neoplasm in infiltrating mosaic arrays, keratin pearls discerable a. adenocarcinoma b. Squamous cell carcinoma c. Papillary carcinoma d. Synovial sarcoma e. Follicular lymphoma
Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma Most central cancers are squamous cell carcioma Keratin pearls so squamous Squamous cancers, look like mosaics, producing keratin Adenocarcinoma= is more common?? But not related to smoking****
- Drug abuse, Cetnrilobular necrosis of liver → liver failure. Danger for chronic alcholics. Early treatment with N-acetylcystein may limit liver damage. Which following a. Cocaine b. Oxycodone c. Heroin d. Acetaminophin e. Methamphetamine
Acetaminophin
- A 68 y.o asian America man is killed in a hit and run accident while on his way home from his job at the local plastics factor where he was exposed to vinyl chloride. As part of the local law regarding motor vehicle homicides he undergoes a forensic autopsy. Which malignancy associated with his occupation is he most at risk for? a. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung b. Angiosarcoma of the liver c. Brain tumor d. A tumor positive for desmin e. Neuroblastoma
Answer: B. ANgiosarcoma of the liver **Pay attention to chart which has exposures and related conditions** Squamous cell carcinoma of the lungs= smoking Pay attention to cancer ones
- A 65 y.o obese Caucasian female present with complains of increased urination. She has long history of T2DM and is not very compliant. Her hemoglobin A1C is >8. Which of the following morphologic pattern of acute inflammation is most likely to involve the lower extremity of this patient? a. Serous b. Granulomatous c. Abscess d. Ulcer e. Fibrinous
Answer: D. Ulcer Serious= exudate of cell-poor fluid into cell space or body cavities Granulomatous= chronic process foreign body or immune mediated Abscess= localized collection of purulent material due to bacteria Ulcer= sloughing or shedding of inflamed necrotic tissue mouth, lower extremity Fibrinous= characteristic in body cavities i/e pericardium Necrotizing granulomatous inflammation= tuberculosis (tubercle)
- A 9 y.o is admitted to the hospitial with fever and cough. Past medical history includes meconium ileus at birth and multiple episodes of pneumonia, the first at age 2. Chest radiograph is abnormal and shows bilateral lobar infiltrates (image). Cough is productive of thick tenacious mucus. Cultures of sputum reveal an alginate producing strain of pseudomonas aeruginosa. Most like diagnosis? a. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia b. Marfan syndrome c. Cystic fibrosis d. Pulmonary edema e. Metastic neuroblastoma
Answer: Cystic fibrosis
- 22 y.o Hispanic female, Texas, Difficulty swallowing, SOB, distal esophageal dilation. Indicate heart is symmetrically dilated. CBC w/ mild eosinophilia. Kissing bug a. Pontiac fever b. Chagas disease c. Kala azar d. River blindness e. Rhabdoviral syndrome
Answer: Chagas disease – Trypanosoma cruzi • Pontiac fever: water, multiple people • Kala azar: distended, massive hepatosplenomegaly, sand flies • River blindness: rapid keratinitis, black fly • Rhabdoviral syndrome: babies, foaming at mouth, Rabies
- Georgia, 7 y.o forrest barefoot, superficial lesion, itch, cough, diarrhea. Infiltrates bilateral, Iron deficiency anemia and eosinphilia a. Round worm b. Pin worm c. Microfilariae d. Hookworm e. Cutaneous larval migrans
Answer: Hookworm • Necator & stronglovirdes: penetrate, hook worm • Cutaneous larval migrans: ancyclostoma, dog hook worm • Larval currans: stronglyoides (moves fast)