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PHASE 3A > SBA stuff i didn't know > Flashcards

SBA stuff i didn't know Flashcards

1
Q

haemolytic uraemic syndrome triad

A
  1. AKI
  2. normocytic anaemia
  3. thrombocytopenia
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2
Q

when do children receive the MMR vaccine

A

1 year and 3 years

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3
Q

metabolic changes in CAH

A

hyponatremia, hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis

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4
Q

chemo sanctuary sites in ALL

A

CNS and testes

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5
Q

haemophilia
- who is affected, why?
- which factor for A, which for B

A
  • males, x-linked
  • VIII, IX
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6
Q

abdo xray finding in biliary atresia

A

double bubble

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7
Q

complications of chlamydia in preg
a) mother
b) baby

A

a) chorioamnionitis, PROM
b) conjunctivitis, pneumonia

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8
Q

most common cause of meningitis in neonates

A

GBS

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9
Q

lithium toxicity presentation

A

ataxia, seizures, slurred speech, vomiting (SE = fine tremor)

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10
Q

stimulant vs hallucinogens

A

stimulants = cocaine, MDMA (ectsasy), khat, nicotine

hallucinogens = LSD, ketamine

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11
Q

bloods/metabolic findings in neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A
  • raised creatinine kinase
  • raised WCC
  • deranged LFTs and U&Es
  • metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3)
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12
Q

management of mild-moderate PID if coil is in situ

A

UNLESS severe or does not respond to tx in 48-72h, leave coil in!

broad spec abx for 14 days

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13
Q

which class of antidepressants can you not have cheese with? give an example of one

A

MAOIs e.g. phenelzine, tranylcypromine, isocarboxazid

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14
Q

which class of antibiotics is safe in pregnancy at any stage?

A

cephalosporins e.g. cefotaxime, ceftriaxone

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15
Q

hospital indication for PID

A

fever >38

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16
Q

secondary syphilis presentation

A
  • 6-8 weeks from infection
  • rash, glomerulonephritis, neuro sx
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17
Q

migraine prophylaxis in women of child-bearing age

A

propranolol (topiramate is normal 1st line)

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18
Q

which antipsychotics cause parkinsonism/pyramidal sx?

A

TYPICAL e.g. haloperidol

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19
Q

features of non epileptic attacks (5)

A
  1. sudden drop
  2. arms flexing and extending, pelvic thrusting
  3. eyes closed
  4. prolonged seizures (>30m)
  5. symptoms wax and wane
20
Q

1st line tx of pericarditis

A

NSAIDs

21
Q

a) heparin reversal
b) warfarin reversal

A

a) protamine
b) vitamin K

22
Q

joint fluid findings in
a) pseudogout
b) gout

A

a) positively birefringent crystals
b) negatively birefringent crystals

23
Q

which enzymes are blocked with
a) aspirin
b) clopidogrel

A

a) COX-1
b) P2Y12

24
Q

csf findings bacterial meningitis (4)

A
  • turbid
  • raised polymorphs
  • raised protein
  • low glucose
25
Q

what is given to help manage parkinsonism/anti-pyramidal SEs from antipsychotics?

A

procyclidine

26
Q

what is the protocol for clozapine blood testing when a pt is first started on the med?

A

1 blood test per week for first 18 weeks

then fortnightly until 1 year

27
Q

management of OCD if 12 weeks of SSRI and CBT are not working

A

either
- switch SSRI with another SSRI
- try clomipramine (TCA) if pt prefers/intolerant to SSRIs

28
Q

1st line management of PTSD and another option

A

1 = trauma-focussed CBT

can use EMDR - if presenting between 1 and 3 months after a non-combat related trauma and refer EMDR

29
Q

management of a woman with cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) I found at colposcopy

A

discharge and screen again (FU) at 12m in the community

30
Q

list 4 meds that may cause delirium

A
  1. furosemide (diuretic)
  2. ramipril (anti-HT)
  3. oxybutynin
  4. propranolol (B blocker)
  5. ranitidine (H2 blocker)
31
Q

what discharge may be present in cervical cancer

A

red-brown, purulent

32
Q

most common type of vaginal cancer

A

secondary (metastatic)

33
Q

a surge of what hormone triggers ovulation

A

LH

34
Q

process of foetal descent (descent > delivery) (8)

A
  1. descent
  2. engagement
  3. flexion
  4. internal rotation
  5. crowning
  6. extension of presenting part
  7. external rotation of head
  8. delivery
35
Q

management of pregnant woman with positive asymptomatic bacteriuria culture - what is done next?

A

confirm with second culture then begin culture dependent abx

36
Q

amniotic fluid index (AFI)

a) polyhydramnios
b) oligohydramnios

A

a) >24cm

b) <5cm

37
Q

most common cause of polyhydramnios

A

idiopathic!!!

38
Q

what migraine prophylactic tx is contraindicated in asthma

A

propranolol

39
Q

least common presentation in a pt with a middle cerebral artery stroke?
a) aphasia
b) headache
c) personality change
d) weakness/numbness

A

personality change! (more common in ACA)

40
Q

4 features of horner’s

A
  1. miosis
  2. anhidrosis
  3. ptosis
  4. enophthalmos (sinking eyes)
41
Q

young female with recurrent miscarriages and arthalgia

A

think rheum e.g. SLE

42
Q

presentation of gastric ulcers

A

pain immediately after eating

43
Q

tx of H.pylori

A

1 PPI and 2 abx (CAP)

clarithromycin + amoxicillin (or metronidazole) + PPI

44
Q

aside from hyperglycaemia, acidosis and ketonaemia, which other abnormality may be seen on blood investigation of DKA prior to treatment?

A

mildly raised creatinine (sign of dehydration)

45
Q

4 complications of chickenpox

A
  1. bacterial superinfection
  2. cerebellitis
  3. DIC
  4. progressive disseminated disease

PHASE 3A (18 decks)

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