Samplex 2017 Flashcards
Which of the following is the most frequent neoplastic tumor in adolescents? A. Follicle cysts B. Mature cystic teratoma C. Serous cystadenoma D. Corpus luteum cyst
B
A 16 yr old G0 patient came in for an abdominal mass. On history, she had irregular menstrual period. Amenorrhea 8 wks. Which of the following is her most valuable test? A. Transvaginal ultrasound B. Laparoscopy C. Hysteroscopy D. Pregnancy test
D
After a bout of vulvar itching, a 3 y.o. girl was noted to have fusion of her labia minora at the midline. What is the best management for her? A. Topical steroid cream B. Topical antibiotic ointment C. Topical estrogen cream D. Surgical correction
C
How can one explain the finding that the inferior pole of a huge abdomino-pelvic mass in a 5 y.o. girl could not be felt at either right or left fornix?
A. Ascitic fluid might have pushed the mass up
B. The mass might be leaking
C. Its huge size could not be accommodated in the pelvis
D. The mass has undergone torsion
C
An 80 y.o. come in for vaginal spotting. Speculum examination showed a fleshy mass at the urethral meatus. Mass has irregular borders, necrotic, & foul smelling. What is the best differential diagnosis for the patient? A. Urethral caruncle B. Urethral carcinoma C. Cervical polyp D. Cervical cancer
B
An 8 y.o Came in for foul smelling vaginal discharge. What is the best test/examination for her, to determine the etiology of the discharge?
A. Gram stain of the vaginal discharge
B. Culture & sensitivity of the vaginal discharge
C. Pelvic Ultrasound
D. Speculum Exam
A
A 30 y.o. G1P1 (1001) consulted for heavy menstrual flow (-) use of OCP, no IUD use. On Internal examination, the cervix is smooth, pink, no lesions; corpus is slightly enlarged. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient? A. Leiomyoma uteri B. Adenomyosis C. Endometrial polyp D. Any of the above
D
An endometrial mass was seen on transvaginal ultrasound & the physician wanted to make sure that it is really a mass & not blood clots. A. hysterosalpingogram B. laparoscopy C. saline infusion sonography D. hysteroscopy
C
After treatment for abdomino-pelvic TB, the physician wants to determine if the fallopian tubes are patent or not. A. hysterosalpingogram B. laparoscopy C. saline infusion sonography D. hysteroscopy
A
A 34 y.o. married for 8 years & still childless. Complaining of severe dysmenorrhea has normal PE findings. TVS was also normal. A. hysterosalpingogram B. laparoscopy C. saline infusion sonography D. hysteroscopy
D
An IUD was translocated in a 25 y.o. G1P1 A. hysterosalpingogram B. laparoscopy C. saline infusion sonography D. hysteroscopy
B
A 34 y.o. asymptomatic patient, had an incidental finding of a nodular uterus, enlarged to 14 wks. A. Intramural myoma B. Submucous myoma C. Subserous myoma D. Parasitic myoma
C
A 40 y.o. G4P4 w/ profuse vaginal bleeding has a TVS done w/c showed a 2x2 cm mass w/ 50% encroachment into the uterine cavity. A. Intramural myoma B. Submucous myoma C. Subserous myoma D. Parasitic myoma
B
On exploratory laparotomy, a solid mass was seen attached to the intestines. A. Intramural myoma B. Submucous myoma C. Subserous myoma D. Parasitic myoma
D
On cut section of the uterus showed a solid mass w/ whorl-like patterns within the myometrium. A. Intramural myoma B. Submucous myoma C. Subserous myoma D. Parasitic myoma
A
The following are risk factors for the development of cervical cancer EXCEPT
A. young age at first intercourse
B. multiple sexual partners
C. cigarette smoking
D. nuliparity
E. none of the above
D
Invasive cancer of the cervix is a preventable cancer because
A. it has a long pervasive state
B. cervical cytology screening programs are available
C. treatment of preinvasive lesions is effective
D. A&B
E. all of the above
E
True about endometrial cancer except:
A. Patterns of spread through direct extension, lymphatics and less commonly through the blood stream
B. Vaginal bleeding or discharge is most common pathology symptom
C. It is the most common genital malignancy in the Philippines
C
Surgery for endometrial carcinoma includes the following:
A. Peritoneal fluid sampling for cytology
B. Exploration of the whole abdomen
C. Total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
D. Pelvic and para-aortic lymph node evaluation
E. All of the above
E
The following factors increase the risk for ovarian epithelial cancers EXCEPT A. age B. family history C. infertility D. pregnancy E. ovulatory drugs
D
Frequent symptoms for vulvar cancer is/are: A. vulvar mass B. ulcer C. pruritus D. binding/discharge E. all of the above
E
Most common malignant tumor of the ovary A. dysgerminoma B.Immature cystic teratoma C. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma D. granulosa cell tumor
C
Ovarian cancer staging involves A. clinical staging B. histopathologic staging C. clinico-histopathologIc staging D. clinico-pathologic staging requiring CT scan
D
The following gynecologic malignancies have precursor lesions EXCEPT A. Ovarian B. Cervical C. Endometrial D. vaginal
C
Most common histology of endometrial carcinoma A. Serous B. Mutinous C. Endometrioid D. Clear cell
C
A mid-pelvis contraction is suspected if, on clinical pelvimetry, any of the following are noted EXCEPT: A. convergent pelvic sidewalls B. prominent ischial tuberosities C. narrow sacrosciatic notch D. bispinous diameter >9.5
B
Protraction in cervical dilatation is defined as a rate of <\_\_cm per hour during the active phase of labor in a multipara A. 1.0 B. 1.2 C. 1.5 D. 2.0
C
When the fetal head has been at the same station for the entire duration of the deceleration phase for >1 hour, this is labeled as: A. arrest of descent B. failure of descent C. protracted descent D. arrest of dilatation
B
Possible maternal complications of labor in cases of pelvic contraction except; A. intraamniotic infection B. fistula formation C. uterine rupture D. placental abruption
D
The maneuver employed in the shoulder dystocia drill, which consists of cephalic replacement of fetus followed by cesarean section is called: A. Barnum B. McRobert’s C. Rubin’s D. Hibbard’s E. Zavanelli
E
Uterine dysfunction represents an abnormality in the expulsive forces of labor. This type of uterine dysfunction is characterized by a distorted pressure gradient:
A. hypotonic uterine dysfunction
B. hypertonic uterine dysfunction
C. precipitous labor
D. tetanic uterus
B
A 25-year old primigravid on her 34th week of gestation , whose baby is in cephalic presentation, asks you her chances of a successful vaginal delivery. You may make any of the following statements with sufficient certainty.\
A. Insertion/administration or epidural analgesia predisposes to dystocia and increased abdominal delivery
B. Your clinical estimate of her diagonal conjugate of approx 10.5cm is a good sign of adequate pelvic inlet
C. Walking during labor will not decrease the rates of abdominal delivery
D. An xray pelvimetry may be of significant use in determining her pelvic capacity
D
Flexion of the fetal head is a necessary cardinal movement because it brings the diameter of the fetal head in closest approximation to the maternal pelvis, enabling better chances of delivery because it is the shortest diameter A. suboccipito-bregmatic B. bitemporal C. biparietal D. occipito-frontal
C
The following is considered a very “unstable" presentation in as much as it may convert to a more physiologIc one during labor A. occiput B. transverse C. brow D. face
C
Therapeutic rest is indicated in cases of prolonged latent phase for the following reasons EXCEPT:
A. The parturient may actually be experiencing only false labor pains
B. It is necessarily indicative of cephalopelvic disproportion
C. Oxytocin augmentation may not be entirely successful
D. none of the above
C
In the clinical differentiation between abnormal fetal presentations, the opening and the bony prominences may be palpated. If these 3 Structures form a straight line on palpation, this is most probably a fetus in \_\_\_\_\_\_ presentation A. Breech B. Face C. Chin D. Occiput transverse
A
You admitted Mrs. AA, a 27 year old primigravid, due to regular uterine contractions She is presently on her 38th week of gestation. On Internal examination, her cervix is 2 cm dilated, beginning effacement, with the fetal head at station -1. After 21 hours of admission, her cervix is now 3 cm, 50% effaced win the fetal head at station 1. Your DX A. protracted cervical dilatation B. protracted descent C. prolonged latent phase D. arrest of cervical dilatation
C
Based on the Cochrane collaboration data, which of the following procedures is most effective in controlling postpartum hemorrhage, secondary to uterine atony?
A. Active management of third stage of labor
B. Misoprostol administration after delivery of the placenta
C. Bimanual compression of the uterus
D. Immediate administration of oxytocin and methylergometrine
A
After all conservative measures have failed in the control of uterine atony in a 23-year old primipara, what is the next best option for her to control postpartum hemorrhage? A Subtotal hysterectomy B. Total hysterectomy C. B-Lynch compression sutures D. Bilateral hypogastric artery ligation
C
What is the most common cause of acute uterine inversion?
A. Presence of concomitant placenta accrete
B. Vigorous fundal pressure on the third stage of labor
C. Over-traction of the umbilical cord
D. Presence of a relaxed and atonic uterine
C