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[OS 215] OB-GYN E2 > Samplex 2015 > Flashcards

Samplex 2015 Flashcards

1
Q

A 25 year old primigravid on her 37th week AOG consulted at the OB Admitting Section for complaint of vaginal bleeding noted after she experienced a gush of water amounting to about 2 glassfuls 2 hour PTC. On examination fetal heart tones could no longer be appreciated. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Abruptio placenta
B. Placenta previa
C. Vasa Previa
D. Placenta Accreta

A

C

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2
Q

A 25 year old primigravid on her 37th week AOG consulted at the OB Admitting Section for complaint of vaginal bleeding noted after she experienced a gush of water amounting to about 2 glassfuls 2 hour PTC. On examination fetal heart tones could no longer be appreciated.

The above condition is associated with what finding?

A. Separation of a normally implanted placenta
B. Placenta completely covering the cervical os
C. Velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord
D. Abnormal adherence of the placenta

A

C

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3
Q

Angie is a 24 yo medical student who had her LNMP on July 24, 2011. She has been diagnosed to have type I diabetes and has regular insulin shots.

Given the case above, which of the followings statements is true:

A. Angie should stop her insulin shots and start taking oral medications for diabetes.
B. Angie should start dieting and should not exercise to prevent abortion.
C. Untreated diabetes mellitus can give rise to both poor maternal and fetal outcomes.
D. All of the above

A

C

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4
Q

Insulin is categorized as an FDA Class ___ ?

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

A

B

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5
Q

Angie is a 24 yo medical student who had her LNMP on July 24, 2011. She has been diagnosed to have type I diabetes and has regular insulin shots..

To prevent neural tube defects, Angie should start taking folic acid ___________.

A. preconception
B. first sign of pregnancy
C. after first prenatal consult
D. anytime during pregnancy

A

A

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6
Q

Angie is a 24 yo medical student who had her LNMP on July 24, 2011. She has been diagnosed to have type I diabetes and has regular insulin shots..

The physiologic change in pregnancy that may have an impact in how Angie’s body will utilize the drugs she take over the course of her pregnancy is

A. decreased gut motility
B. increased tidal volume
C. increased renal blood flow
D. increase in maternal aqueous and fatty tissue spaces

A

A

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7
Q

Angie is a 24 yo medical student who had her LNMP on July 24, 2011. She has been diagnosed to have type I diabetes and has regular insulin shots..

During Angie’s prenatal check up, you noticed a curdlike discharge upon doing a vaginal speculum. Microscopic study revealed yeast infection.
Drug of choice in the treatment of this condition is:

A. oral oseltamivir
B. topical/vaginal suppository metronidazole
C. vaginal suppository clotrimazole
D. topical prednisolone

A

C

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8
Q

Angie is a 24 yo medical student who had her LNMP on July 24, 2011. She has been diagnosed to have type I diabetes and has regular insulin shots.

Sometimes, Angie would complain of headache and difficulty of sleeping especially on days just before exams. What would you advise her?

A. She can take diazepam at night time to help her sleep
B. She can try nonpharmacologic methods such as relaxation techniques and massage
C. She can use herbal medications to relieve her headache.
D. Paracetamol, mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are all equally efficacious and safe anytime during pregnancy.

A

D

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9
Q

A 28 year old G2 patient was brought to the OBAS for profuse vaginal bleeding after delivering to an 8 pound baby at home assisted by a midwife. On abdominal examination, the uterus was well contracted.

What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Uterine atony
B. Retained placental fragments
C. Perineal lacerations
D. Uterine inversion

A

C

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10
Q

What is included in the active management of the third stage of labor?

A. administration of uterotonics after the delivery of the placenta
B. late cord clamping
C. controlled cord traction
D. insertion of rectal misoprostol

A

C

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11
Q

What will be an advantage in doing amniotomy in a patient whom you suspect in having Abruptio placenta?

A. It will ensure vaginal delivery
B. It can be diagnostic of abruptio placenta
C. It can decrease the incidence of Couvelaire uterus
D. It will restore function of the part of the placenta that is still implanted

A

B

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12
Q

The period of development of an offspring that may give rise to the “all or none” phenomenon is

A. pre-implantation period
B. embryonic period
C. fetal period
D. any of the above

A

A

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13
Q

What finding will be suggestive of Consumptive coagulopathy?

A. Fibrinogen level of 200 mg/dl
B. Platelet count of 100,000 microL
C. Note of hematuria on insertion of foley catheter
D. Bloody amniotic fluid on amniotomy

A

A

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14
Q

A 30 year old G2P1 patient on her 30th week AOG consulted the OBAS for complaint of vaginal bleeding noted upon waking up. She has had no prenatal checkups. Vital signs are within normal and bleeding has ceased but there was note of irregular uterine contractions.

What is the most probable diagnosis?

A. Placenta previa
B. Abruptio placenta
C. Placenta Accreta
D. Vasa previa

A

A

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15
Q

A 30 year old G2P1 patient on her 30th week AOG consulted the OBAS for complaint of vaginal bleeding noted upon waking up. She has had no prenatal checkups. Vital signs are within normal and bleeding has ceased but there was note of irregular uterine contractions. .

In the above patient, what will you request to verify your diagnosis most accurately?

A. Transvaginal ultrasound
B. Pelvic ultrasound
C. CT scan
D. MRI

A

A

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16
Q

A 30 year old G2P1 patient on her 30th week AOG consulted the OBAS for complaint of vaginal bleeding noted upon waking up. She has had no prenatal checkups. Vital signs are within normal and bleeding has ceased but there was note of irregular uterine contractions.

What will be the most appropriate management for the above patient?

A. Immediate caesarean section
B. Give tocolytics and antenatal steroids
C. Do caesarean section after you have completed the antenatal steroids
D. Augment labor and do vaginal delivery

A

B

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17
Q

A G1 patient who has just delivered at the recovery room complained of severe pain in the vaginal area. Her vital signs are normal and there was no note of undue vaginal bleeding.

What will be your primary consideration?

A. Retained placental fragments
B. Uterine atony
C. Vulvar hematoma
D. Uterine rupture

A

C

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18
Q

Among these patients, who will be at highest risk of having Placenta accreta?

A. A G2 patient who underwent a Cesarean section for her first pregnancy last year
B. A G1 patient diagnosed to have placenta previa and preeclampsia
C. A G3 patient with 2 previous Cesarean section with an ultrasound of placenta previa
D. A G5 patient with Chronic hypertensive vascular disease

A

C

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19
Q

What will be a feature of dehiscence of uterine scar vs. a complete rupture?

A. intact fetal membrane
B. fetus is in the abdominal cavity
C. separation of the whole length of the uterine scar
D. finding of a contracted uterus alongside palpable fetal parts

A

A

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20
Q

Which among the following is the correct pairing?

A. Multivitamins - Category B
B. Misoprostol - Category D
C. Methotrexate - Category A
D. Amoxicillin - Category B

A

D

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE?

A. thalidomide - craniofacial defects, nasal hypoplasia
B. lithium - cardiac defects
C. tetracycline - staining of deciduous teeth
D. captopril - fetal kidney damage

A

A

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22
Q

A genetic disease which causes the same dysmorphisms as warfarin ingestion is

A. Hurdle syndrome
B. osteogenesis imperfecta
C. Fabry’s Disease
D. Happle syndrome

A

D

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23
Q

A 20 year old primigravid consults on her 38th week age of gestation. Internal examination revealed the cervix to be dilated to 7-8 cms with ruptured bag of waters with the fetal head at station -1. You monitor her progress of labor and after 1 hour, the cervix became fully dilated with the fetal head still at station -1.

At this point, your impression is

A. failure of descent
B. arrest of descent
C. prolonged deceleration phase
D. protracted active phase

A

A

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24
Q

All statements are correct EXCEPT

A. When drug therapy is absolutely necessary, preference must be given to older drugs as opposed to newer systems
B. Monotherapy is preferred and in instances where drug combination is the treatment of choice, agents must be introduced one at a time
C. Systemic route of administration is preferred over topical or inhalation(?) as kinetics are more stable
D. none of the above

A

C

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25
Q

As a fetal effect during difficult labor/delivery, the following entity, characterized by scalp edema overlying the fetal occiput, may develop:

A. Cephalhematoma
B. Caput Succedaneum
C. Molding
D. Contusion

A

B

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26
Q

Delivery of a fetus in persistent occiput posterior includes the following EXCEPT:

A. Spontaneous vaginal delivery
B. Forceps delivery
C. McRobert’s maneuver
D. Manual rotation

A

C

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27
Q

Conditions that may require therapy in a pregnant woman include:

A. 13 weeks AOG with occasional nausea and vomiting
B. 32 weeks AOG with blood pressure of 160/100
C. 28 weeks AOG with grade 1 bipedal edema
D. 10 weeks AOG with urinalysis result of WBC 0-2

A

B

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28
Q 
Pelvic inlet contraction is associated with the following EXCEPT:
A. Early rupture of membranes
B. Cord coil
C. Transvere lie
D. Protracted dilatation
A

B

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29
Q

The plane of least dimension is described by the following parameters EXCEPT:

A. Bispinous diameter
B. Posterior sagittal diameter
C. Sacrosciatic notch
D. Bituberous diameter

A

D

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30
Q

A 21 year old primigravid, 38 weeks AOG, was admittedo n Sept 1 at 7 am with a cervical dilatation of 2 cm, 50% effaced, intact bag of waters, head at station -2 with contractions every 5-6 minutes, 30 seconds. The following day at 7am, examination showed her cervix to be 2 cm fully effaced, head at station -2, with contractions every 6-8 minutes. The bag of water ruptured at 4 am.

What is your management?

A. Therapeutic rest
B. Augmentation of labor
C. Cesarean section
D. Expectant management

A

C

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31
Q

Associated with breech presentation

A. Placenta previa
B. Placenta accreta
C. Vasa previa
D. Succenturiate placenta

A

A

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32
Q

Vaginal breech delivery may be done in:

A. Patients with completed family size
B. Incomplete breech
C. Severe growth restriction
D. Imminent delivery

A

C

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33
Q

McRobert’s maneuver results in the following EXCEPT:

A. Increases pelvic dimensions
B. Straightens sacrum
C. Decrease in pelvic inclination
D. Rotates symphysis

A

A

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34
Q

Uterine dysfunction characterized by a distorted pressure gradient:

A. Hypotonic
B. Isotonic
C. Hypertonic
D. Tetanic

A

C

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35
Q

The midpelvis is likely to be contracted if the sum of the interischial spinous and the posterior sagittal diameter is equal to or less than:

A. 9.5 cm
B. 11.5 cm
C. 12.5 cm
D. 13.5 cm

A

D

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36
Q

What findings will be suggestive of uterine rupture?

A. Tetanic uterine contractions
B. Note of bloody mucus discharge at the onset of labor
C. Loss of presenting part on internal exam previously noted to be at station +1
D. Arrest in cervical dilatation at 5 cm dilatation

A

C

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37
Q

When the inlet is round, sidewalls are straight, spines are prominent, and the pelvic arch is wide, the pelvis is described as

A. Gynecoid
B. Android
C. Anthropoid
D. Platypelloid

A

C

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38
Q

For the diagnosis of protracted cervical dilatation of a nullipara, the rate should be less than:

A. 1.0 cm per hour
B. 1.2 cm per hour
C. 1.5 cm per hour
D. 2.0 cm per hour

A

B

39
Q

Antipathogens that are considered safe in pregnant women are

A. Isoniazid
B. Oseltamivir
C. Amoxicillin
D. AOTA

A

D

40
Q

Conditions during immediate postpartum period that may necessitate drug therapy includes the following EXCEPT:

A. uterine atony
B. eclapmsia
C. infections
D. NOTA

A

B

41
Q

Precipitous labor:

A. Delivery in 2 hours
B. Delivery in 5 hours
C. Dilatation of 10 cm per hour for nulliparas
D. Dilatation of 5 cm per hour for multiparas

A

A

42
Q

A 32 year old G3P2 patient on her 32nd week consulted the OBAS for complaint of painful uterine contractions. She is pale and BP on admission was 180/100. FHT is 110/min and uterine contractions are noted to be strong. There is no sign of of vaginal bleeding.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Placenta previa
B. Placenta accreta
C. Abruptio placenta
D. Vasa previa

A

C

43
Q

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE

A. Most of the drugs in the market have limited human studies to back up claims of safety in pregnant women.
B. Around 500 drugs in the market are known teratogens.
C. The most common cause of congenital anomalies are exposure to chemicals and drugs.
D. AOTA

A

A

44
Q

A 35 year old G4P3 patient on her 33rd week AOG who has 3 previous caesarean sections consulted you at the clinic with an ultrasound showing placenta previa totalis. She wanted to find out what else she should be worried about since she was told that a Casearean seaction is inevitable and that was really the type of delivery she was expecting anyway.

What will you advise?

A. Placenta can still migrate upwards since she is only 33 weeks
B. Repeat caesarean section at 39 weeks
C. Repeat imaging to rule out the possibiity of placenta accreta
D. Await labor and do repeat caesarean section

A

C

45
Q

The following cardic lesions are associated with less than 1% maternal mortality EXCEPT

A. ASD
B. Pulmonic stenosis
C. Aortic stenosis
D. PDA

A

C

46
Q

In intestinal obstruction during pregnancy, the most frequent cause is

A. Adhesions
B. Volvulus
C. Intussusception
D. Congenital defects

A

A

47
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum?

A. Multiple pregnancy
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Parity of 3 or more
D. Planned pregnancy

A

C

48
Q

32 y/o G3P2 consults on her 20th week AOG for malodorous vaginal discharge. A wet mount revealed motile flagellated organisms. What is the drug of choice?

A. Clotrimazole
B. Ketoconazole
C. Cephalexin
D. Metronidazole

A

D

49
Q

Fetal complications of heart disease during pregnancy:

A. Premature delivery
B. Complex congenital malformations
C. Fetal edema
D. Poor APGAR

A

A

50
Q

Normal change of the cardiovascular system during pregnancy:

A. Cardiac output increased by 20%
B. Heart rate decreases
C. Systemic vascular resistance decreases
D. BP increases

A

C

51
Q

Risk for preterm delivery with surgery increases with the following EXCEPT:

A. Long operations
B. Spinal anesthesia
C. AOG < 12 weeks
D. AOG > 24 weeks

A

B

52
Q

The condition least likely to be associated with macrosomia:

A. Shoulder dytocia
B. Brachial nerve plexus
C. Intraventricular hemorrhage
D. Cephalopelvic disproportion

A

C

53
Q

The most common cause for indicated premature delivery

A. Abruptio placenta
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Preeclampsia
D. Fetal growth restriction

A

A

54
Q

Postterm pregnancy refers to

A. Gestation beyond the expected date of delivery as calculated by Naegele’s rule
B. Gestation > 42 weeks from the first day of the last menstrual period
C. Gestation after 292 days from the first day of the last menstrual period
D. Gestation on the 42nd weeks from the first day of the last menstrual period

A

B

55
Q

Management of post term pregnancy includes the following EXCEPT:

A. Early amniotomy
B. Expectant management
C. Induction of labor
D. Cesarean section

A

A

56
Q

Mechanism through which betamethasone reduces hyaline membrane disease:

A. Increased prostaglandin production
B. Delays premature birth
C. Increased surfactant production
D. Increased cytokine production

A

C

57
Q

A 25 year old G2P1 (1001) on her 34th week age of gestation presented at the Ob admitting section with watery vaginal discharge of 3 hours duration. She had stable vital signs. Fundic height is 33 cms, with an estimated fetal weight of 2.4 kilograms. On speculum examination, there was note of pooling of amniotic fluid. The cervix is 1 cm dilated, beginning effacement. There was note of irregular uterine contractions.

Management of this patient include:

A. Prophylactic antibiotics.
B. Tocolytics to delay delivery until 36 weeks
C.Weekly steroids for fetal lung maturuty
D. Expectant management

A

A

58
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with increased perinatal mortality/morbidity in postterm pregnancies:

A. Meconium aspiration
B. Fetal growth restriction
C. Down syndrome
D. Oligohydramnios

A

C

59
Q

Mechanism through which magnesium sulfate controls premature labor:

A. Calcium antagonist
B. Blocks cyclic AMP
C. Increases intracellular calcium
D. Stimulated B receptors

A

A

60
Q

A monochorionic diamnionic placenta implies:

A. Monozygosity
B. Dizygosity
C. Fraternal twins
D. Not related to zygosity

A

A

61
Q

The following gynelocologic malignancies have precursor lesions EXCEPT:

A. Ovarian
B. Cervical
C. Endometrial
D. Vaginal

A

D

62
Q

Greatest relative risk for endometrial carcinoma:

A. PCOS
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Obesity
D. Atypical hyperplasia

A

A

63
Q

Most common histology of endometrical carcinoma:

A. Serous
B. Mucinous
C. Endometrioid
D. Clear cell

A

C

64
Q

66 year old previously diagnosed with myoma consulted for rapid abdominal enlargement. She had postmenopausal bleeding 3 months ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Endometrial carcinoma
B. Myoma uteri
C. Uterine sarcoma
D. Ovarian carcinoma

A

D

65
Q

Established screening test for ovarian cancer:

A. Ultrasound
B. CA-125
C. CEA
D, NOTA

A

D

66
Q

Permitted examinations in the staging of cervical cancer

A. palapation
B. ultrasound
C. hysteroscopy
D. intravenous urography

A

A

67
Q

A 38 y.o. G3P3 consulted for vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination showed a fungating necrotic cevical mass measuring 2 x 3 x 1 cm. The vagina was smooth and the parametria were smooth and pliable. Histopath showed squamous cell cancer. What is the stage of the disease?

A. Ia
B. Ib1
C. Ib2
D. IIA

A

B

68
Q

Most common malignant tumor of the delivery:

A. Dysgerminoma
B. Immature cystic teratoma
C. Mucinous cystadenoma
D. Granulosa cell tumor

A

A

69
Q

A 30 year old G1P1 (1601) who complained of a vulvar mass. She noted that the mass appeared after a bout or vaginal itchiness. The mass is cystic, well-delineated, at the right lower 3rd of the vagina. What is most likely diagnosis?

A. Bartholin’s duct cyst
B. Woettan duct cyst
C. Epidermal inclusion cyst
D. Sebaceous cyst

A

A

70
Q

A 20 year old G1P1 (1001) complained of a vaginal mass. This was noted after the normal delivery at the lying in. On PE, (+) 2x2 cm movable, cystic structure at the episiotomy site. What is the best management for her?

A. Lucat excision
B. Wide excision
C. Observe
D. Chemical cautery

A

A

71
Q

A 3x3 cm reddish, well-delineated mass, was noted at the 2:00pm position of the vulva of a 4 year old child. What is the most likely diagnosis for her?

A. Fibroma
B. Lipoma
C. Hemangioma
D. Hidradenoma

A

C

72
Q

A 21 year old medical student complained of vaginal itchiness after switching to a new brand of sanitary napkins. A systematic PE is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Neurodermatitis
B. Psoriasis
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Contact dermatitis

A

D

73
Q

A 38 year old G2P2 (2002) complained of dyspareunia. PE showed a pedunculated mass 2x3 cm attached at the ectocervix. On palpation, the mass is doughy in consistency and not foul-smelling. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Endocervical polyp
B. Cervical myoma
C. TB of the cervix
D. Cervical carcinoma

A

B

74
Q

A 31 year old G1PO consulted for amenorrhea of 12 weeks with positive pregnancy test. On internal examination, the corpus was nodular and non-tender, enlarged to 16-18 weeks size, no adnexal masses or tenderness. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Endometrial polyp
B. Submucous myoma
C. Adenomyosis
D. Subserous myoma

A

D

75
Q

A 44 year old G1P1 (1001) complained of severe dysmenorrhea, the onset of which is prior to menstruation, she uses 3 adult diapers every time she has her menses. On internal examination, the corpus is asymmetrically enlarged to 16 weeks age of gestation. Transvaginal ultrasound showed anterior myometrium measurement of 4cm, posterior myometrium of 1.7 cm.

What is the diagnosis of this patient?

A. Endometrial polyp
B. Submucous myoma
C. Adenomyosis
D. Subserous myoma

A

B

76
Q

A 24 year old G1P1 (1001) complained of intermenstrual vaginal spotting, which occurred for the past 3 menstrual cycles. Internal examination showed corpus is normal in size, with no adnexal masses or tenderness. Saline infusion sonography showed a pedunculated mass attached to the fundal area measuring 1x1 cm.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Endometrial polyp
B. Submucous myoma
C. Adenomyosis
D. Subserous myoma

A

A

77
Q

A 24 yr old G1P1 (0010) complained of prolonged and profuse menstruation which have be recurring for the past 6 months. Internal examination showed a corpus symmetrically enlarged to 12 weeks, no adnexal masses or tenderness. Transvaginal ultrasound showed a 6x5 cm, solid mass was distorting the uterine cavity anteriorly.

What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Endometrial polyp
B. Submucous myoma
C. Adenomyosis
D. Subserous myoma

A

C

78
Q

What is the best management for a 62 year old G2P2 (2002) who came in for abdominal pain. She was previously diagnosed to have an 8x8 subserous myoma uteri 10 years ago. Subsequently, 1 year prior to consult, she began to experience intermittent vaginal bleeding using 3 pads per day, lasting for 4 days. What is the most likely explanation for this?

A. Atrophic endometrium
B. Calcific degeneration of the myoma
C. Malignant degeneration of the myoma
D. Red degeneration of the myoma

A

B

79
Q

The main cause for bp elevation seen in pregnancy induced hypertension is

A. Increase in peripheral vascular resistance
B. Increase in cardiac output
C. Alterations in vascular sensitivity to endogenous hormones
D. Increase production of prostacyclin and thromboxane A2

A

A

80
Q

Several antihypertensive drugs have been used in the treatment of preeclampsia. All of the may be given except?

A. Beta Blockers
B. Calcium Channel Blockers
C. Vasodilators
D. Ace inhibitors

A

D

81
Q

The criteria for the diagnosis of HELLP syndrome are based on laboratory findings, which include the following except

A. Hemolysis
B. Elevated Liver Enzymes
C. Low platelet count
D. None of the above

A

D

82
Q

The definitive treatment of eclampsia consists of the following except

A. Control of convulsions
B. Assuring ventilation and correction of hypoxia and acidosis
C. Control bp to a diastolic of 50-90 mm Hg
D. Expeditious delivery of the fetus and placenta

A

D

83
Q

How is the pathophysiology of preeclampsia characterized?

A. Vasodilation
B. Vasospasm
C. Hemodilution
D. Hypervolemia

A

B

84
Q

The diagnosis of superimposed preeclampsia is likely in the following finding

A. Women with hypertension and no proteinuria early in pregnancy (prior to 20 gestation)
B. New onset proteinuria
C. Thrombocytopenia
D. Increase in AST or ALT levels
E. All of the above
A

E

85
Q

The most frequent symptom preceding eclampsia is

A. Headache
B. Hyperreflexia
C. Proteinuria
D. Edema
E. Visual signs
A

A, E

86
Q

A 35 year old consulted for headache on her 14th week AOG. BP was noted to be 150/110. The corpus was enlarge to AOG with fetal heart rate of 160 bpm. Urine albumin was +1.

Diagnosis?

A. Pre-eclampsia mild
B. Pre-eclampsia severe
C. Chronic hypertension with superimposed pre-eclampsia
D. Chronic hypertension

A

C

87
Q

Screening for gestational diabetes in a low risk patient?

A. Fasting blood sugar
B. 50 gram OGTT
C. 75 gram OCTT
D. 100 gram OGTT

A

B

88
Q

High risk factors for gestational diabetes mellitus:

A. Hypotension
B. Prior baby weighing 2500 grams
C. Family history of diabetes
D. BMI of 25

A

C

89
Q

Cornerstone of management of gestational diabetes mellitus except:

A. Metformin therapy
B. Diet
C. Exercise
D. Fetal well-being studies

A

A

90
Q

The following are congenital malformations in infants of women with overt diabetes:

A. Pelvocallectasia
B. Ototoxicity
C. Macrosomia
D. Caudal regression

A

C

91
Q

Metabolic disturbances associated with gestational diabetes mellitus except:

A. Hypoclycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hyperbilirubinemia
E. Hippopatamus
A

C

92
Q

Which of the following are considered abnormal values for the 100 gram OGTT?

A. 110 mg/dL for the fasting blood glucose
B. 170 mg/dL for the 1 hour postprandial glucose
C. 150 mg/dL for the 2 hour postprandial glucose
D. 120 mg/dL for the 3 hour postprandial glucose

A

A

93
Q

A 38 year old G2P1 (1001) GD patient with 36 weeks AOG has a routine biometry done. Sonographic estimated fetal weight was 4624 grams by Hadlock. What would be your long term plan for this patient?

A. Induction at 38 weeks AOG
B. Elective CS at 37-28 weeks AOG
C. Elective Cs at 38-39 weeks AOG
D. Await spontaneous labor

A

D

[OS 215] OB-GYN E2 (6 decks)

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