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[OS 215] OB-GYN E2 > Samplex 2014 B > Flashcards

Samplex 2014 B Flashcards

1
Q

Main cause of BP elevation in pregnancy induced hypertension:

A. increased peripheral vascular resistance
B. increased cardiac output
C. increased reactivity to endogenous hormones
D. increased prostacyclin and thromboxane

A

C

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2
Q

What histological findingsdo you expect in a pregnant patient with pre eclampsia?

A. renal arteriole thickening
B. glomerular endothiliasis
C. glomerulus edema
D. renal capsule edema

A

B, D

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3
Q

Which of the following is not an indication for delivery in a patient with PIH:

A. Low maternal weight
B. Platelet count < 100,000
C. Elevated serum creatinine
D. Eclampsia

A

A

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4
Q

Definitive treatment of eclampsia consists of:

A. control of convulsions
B. control of BP
C. delivery
D. AOTA

A

D

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5
Q

Which of the ff. is not a criteria for severe pr-eclampsia

A. Thrombocytopenia
B. Proteinuria > 5g/24hrs
C. Seizure
D. Hepatocellur dysfunction

A

C

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6
Q

The appropriate administration of MgSO4 in our local setting is:

A. Loading: 4-6 mg IV slow+ 5g IM; Maintenance:5g IM drip every 6-8 hrs
B. Loading: 4 mg IV in 20 min; Maintenance: 2 g/hr IV drip (Soluset)

A

B

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7
Q

The ff are indications of delivery in patients with PIH (pregnancy-induced hypertension) except:

A. Immature gestation
B. Platelet count
A

A

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8
Q

A 17 year old G1P0 consulted for absence of fetal movement. She is on her 34th week AOG. Blood pressure is 160/100, heart rate is 102 and RR is 24. Noted persistent uterine contractions 1 hour prior to consult. Upon rupture of BOW, it was noted to be bloody. Diagnosis?

A. placenta previa
B. abruptio placenta
C. uterine rupture
D. vasa previa

A

A

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9
Q

A 35 y/o consulted for headache on her 14th week AOG. BP was noted to be 150/110. The corpus was enlarged to AOG with fetal heart rate of 160 bpm. Urine albumin was +1. What is your diagnosis?

A. Pre-eclampsia mild
B. Pre-eclampsia severe
C. Chronic HPN with superimposed pre-eclampsia
D. Chronic HPN

A

C

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10
Q

Drugs which can be given to treat pre-eclampsia except:

A. β-blocker
B. Ca+ channel blocker
C. Diuretics
D. ACE inhibitors

A

D

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11
Q

The appropriate administration of MgSO4 in our local setting is

A. Loading: 4-6 mg IV slow+ 5g IM Maintenance:5g IM drip every 6-8 hrs
B. Loading: 2 mg IV slow + 2 mg IM; Maintenance 2 mg IM on each buttock 2-3 hrs
C. Loading: 5 mg IV slow; Maintenance 2 mg IM on each buttock 2-3 hours
D. Loading: 4 mg IV in 20 min Maintenance: 2 g/hr IV drip (soluset)

A

A

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12
Q

The most frequent symptom preceding eclampsia is:

A. Headache
B. Hyperreflexia
C. Proteinuria
D. Edema
E. Visual signs
A

A

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13
Q

The follwing are indications for delivery in a patient with PIH except:

A. Mature gestation
B. platelet count of

A

D

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14
Q

Screening for gestational diabetes mellitus for low risk patient

A. FBS
B. 50 g GCT
C. 75 g OGT
D. 100 g OGT

A

B

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15
Q

Cornerstone of management of gestational DM, except:

A. Metformin therapy
B. Diet
C. Exercise
D. Fetal well-being studies

A

A

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16
Q

Fetal effects of GDM except:

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hyperbilirubinemia

A

C

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17
Q

Abnormal glucose levels for 100 g OGT

A. FBS 105
B. 1 hr 180
C. 2 hr 150
D. 3 hr 135

A

A

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18
Q

A 28 year-old primigravid is in her 23rd week age of gestation. She consults your clinic for her first prenatal check-up. Her mother is a diabetic. What will be the appropriate glucose test for this patient?

a. 50 g OGCT
b. 75 g OGTT
c. 100 g OGTT
d. HbA1c
e. All of the Above

A

C

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19
Q

Screening for diabetes is recommended for all except which of the following?

a. age>30
b. obesity
c. previous macrosomia
d. previous post term pregnancy

A

D

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20
Q

Congenital malformation in infants of women with overt diabetes

a) pelvocaliectasia
b) ototoxicity
c) macrosomia
d) caudal regression

A

D

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a fetal effect of diabetes mellitus:

a) Congenital anomalies
b) Fetal death
c) Macrosomia
d) Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

D

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22
Q

G2P1 on her 26th week of pregnancy with macrosomia 3 years prior with no complications. What lab test would you request?

a. 50 OGCT
b. 100 OGTT
c. Serum triglyceride
d. HDL

A

A

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23
Q

Confirm diagnosis in sepsis:

a) + blood culture test
b) + culture test
c) + CSF test
d) + urine test

A

A

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24
Q

Which of the following are functions of an antibody?

	A. opsonization
	B. chemoattraction
	C. complement activation
	D. A and B
	E. A and C
A

E, A, C

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25
Q

Meconium Aspiration Syndrome pathophysiology except:

A. mechanical obstruction
B. chemical inflammation
C. surfactant Inactivation
D. all
E. none
A

D

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26
Q

Characteristic of HMD (hyaline membrane disease):

A. lack of surfactant production
B. associated V/Q mismatch
C. hypoxemia and hypercarbia from telactasis
D. none
A

A

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27
Q

Intrapartum diagnosis of cerebral palsy

A. metabolic acidosis
B. metabolic alkalosis
C. multiple organ failure
D. spastic paralysis in quadriplegic
E exclusion of all other possible etiological factors
A

A

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28
Q

A hypoxic infant started to have seizures in the first 24 hours of life. Possible etiologies are:

A. hypocalcemia
B. hypoglycemia
C. thrombosis
D. hypoxic encephalopathy

A

D

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29
Q

Consequence of asphyxia:

	A. seizures
	B. meconium aspiration syndrome
	C. myocardial failure
	D. disseminated intravascular coagulopathy
	E. bronchopulmonary dysplasia
A

D

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30
Q

Indication/s for bag mask ventilation:

A. apnea
B. HR < 100
C. A and B
D. none of the above
A

A, B

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31
Q

The following statements are true except

A. umbilical cord is clamped - eliminates placenta
B. first breath taken - lungs expand resulting in decrease pulmonary blood flow and increase pulmonary vascular resistance
C. lung fluid gradually leaves the alveoli
D. all of the above

A

B

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32
Q

Fever in the first hours after surgery or delivery of the baby is due to:

a. Gram +
b. Gram –
c. Chlamydia
d. Anaerobes

A

A

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33
Q

Prophylactic antibiotics is actually not administered in which of the following operation

a. abdominal hysterectomy
b. vaginal hysterectomy
c. emergency cs
d. vaginal delivery

A

D

34
Q

A 22 yo G2P1 on her 38th week AOG consulted for 20 hours hx of watery vaginal bleeding. On PE: PR= 114/min T= 38.9oC, FHT= 172 bpm. On IE: cervix was 2-3cm with ruptured BOW. What is your admitting diagnosis?

a. puerperal sepsis
b. intraamniotic infection
c. PROM
d. NOTA

A

B

35
Q

The most common cause of fever within the 1st 24 hours postpartum is:

a. pyelonephritis
b. wound infection
c. atelectasis
d. thromboplebitis
e. drug fever

A

B

36
Q

Vaccinations containing live rubella virus should be give ___ months prior to conception.

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

A

A

37
Q

Koilocytosis is a characteristic of:

a. Trichomonas vaginalis
b. bacterial vaginosis
c. herpes
d. Candida

A

C

38
Q

PID may include any of the following. Except:

a. endometrium
b. myometrium
c. parametria
d. pelvic peritoneum
e. none of the above

A

D

39
Q

Sexually-active female consulted with a painless ulcer in her vulva. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Herpes
B. Syphilis
C. Molluscum contagiousum
D. Chancroid

A

B

40
Q

Treatment of choice for syphilis

A. Tetracycline
B. Doxycycline
C. Erythromycin
D. Penicillin

A

D

41
Q

A 28 G2P2 has a grayish white discharge with fishy vaginal odor. The discharge is found to be mildly adjacent to the vaginal wall. To clinch the diagnosis you would do a:

A. KOH mount
B. Gram Stain
C. Saline Wet Smear
D. Pap Smear

A

A

42
Q

What is the single most important risk factor for postpartum metritis?

A. Number of pelvic exams
B. Duration of labor
C. Duration of amenorrhexis
D. Route of delivery

A

D

43
Q

Which of the following is not true in diagnosis of Treponema pallidum infection?

A. Treponema pallidum immobilization (TPI) test is a confirmatory test.
B. TPI test is expensive and technically difficult.
C. Live Treponema cells are used in TPI test.
D. Fluorescent TP antigen absorption test is not a confirmatory test.

A

D

44
Q

A 22 yo homosexual man came to the STD clinic complaining with penile ulcerations. The organism was idenitified to be small, gram negative, non-motile and non-spore forming bacilli. Ducrey’s skin test was positive. Diagnosis:

A. chancroid
B, syphilis
C. gonorrhea
D. Chlamydia infection

A

A

45
Q

GC, a 20 yo call center agent consults for white-gray vaginal discharge with foul odor. She admits to having sexual relations with her boyfriend 2 months before. She regrets what has happened and promises to live a better life when cured. Her gynecologist takes discharge samples and noted pH of 5.5. Granular squamous cells were observed. No PMNs. What is the diagnosis?

A. Trichomonas vaginalis infection
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Neisseria gonorrhea infection
D. HSV infection

A

B

46
Q

Louise, a 21 yo teacher from Zamboanga, consulted for a 2cm mass on her left labia majora. The lesion has raised borders and is painless. What is the diagnosis?

A. Treponema pallidum infection
B. Molluscum contagiosum
C. HPV
D. Papilloma virus infection

A

A

47
Q

Which of the following best describes clue cells?

A. PMN which will show phagocytosed organisms on gram stain and in wet mount.
B. squamous epithelial cells heavily laden with gram negative organisms.
C. both
D. neither

A

B

48
Q

What is the anti-microbial of choice for bacterial vaginosis?

A. Metronidazole
B. Vancomycin
C. Penicillin
D. Sulfa

A

A

49
Q

33M presents with maculopapular rash on trunk but not on mouth and palm. First consulted doctor’s impression is secondary syphilis. On RPR test, patient is reactive. On TPHA or FTA-ABS test, patient is positive. Diagnosis?

a. Atypical measles
b. secondary syphilis
c. coxsackie virus
d. German measles

A

B

50
Q

A 30 year-old complained of post coital bleeding. On speculum examination, a polypoid sessile mass measuring 1x1 cm attached at 12 o’clock position was seen. What is the most probable diagnosis?

a. cervical myoma
b. Nabothian cyst
c. endocervical polyp
d. cervical abrasion

A

B

51
Q

Which of the following obtains blood supply from adjacent organs?

a. subserous
b. submucus
c. intramural
d. parasitic myoma
e. broad ligament myoma

A

D

52
Q

A multigravid patient consults for dysmenorrhea. Pregnancy test is negative. On internal examination, the cervix is closed, firm, and smooth. The uterus is symmetrically enlarged to 14-15 weeks size. There are no adnexal masses or tenderness. What is your diagnosis?

A. Endometrial polyp
B. Subserous myoma
C. Endometrioma
D. Adenomyosis
E. None of the above
A

D

53
Q

Local Growth factor that influence the transformation of a normal myoma to a leiomyoma

a. EGF
b. IGF
c. PDGF
d. All of the above

A

D

54
Q

It is a myoma associated with abnormal vaginal bleeding or distortion of the uterine cavity that may produce infertility or abortion.

a. intramural
b. subserous
c. submucous
d. broad ligament myoma

A

C

55
Q

During pregnancy, most myomas:

A. Grow
B. Shrink
C. Enlarge and grow
D. No change

A

A, C

56
Q

Medical treatment of myomata is best accomplished with:

a. danazol
b. medroxyprogesterone
c. GnRH agonists
d. estrogen oral contraceptives

A

C

57
Q

What is the most common site of endometriosis?

a. ovary
b. fallopian tube
c. uterus
d. appendix

A

A

58
Q

The most common complication of a cystic teratoma is

a. infection
b. torsion
c. rupture
d. hemorrhage

A

B

59
Q

Meig’s syndrome is:

a. Ovarian fibrosis, ascites, hydrothorax
b. Fibrosis, ascites, pneumothorax
c. Teratoma, hydrosalpinx, hydrothorax
d. NOTA

A

A

60
Q

Which is not a risk factor of cervical cancer?

a. <16 y/o at first coitus
b. smoking
c. nulliparity
d. NOTA

A

C

61
Q

True about cervical cancer:

a. spreads only by direct invasion
b. Herpes initiated
c. cancer from squamocolumnar junction
d. adenoma is the most common
e. AOTA

A

C

62
Q

treatment of cervical cancer

a. RH BLND on all stages of cervical cancer
b. choice of treatment will depend on good radiologic equipment, good gynaecologic oncologists, and good chemoradiologists
c. chemoradiation is the preferred treatment for all stages of cervical cancer
d. A and B
e. B and C

A

E

63
Q

A 43 year old G5P5 (5005) consulted at the OB outpatient department for two month history of postcoital bleeding. On internal examination, there was normal external genitalia and parous vagina. The cervix was converted to a fungating mass measuring 3x3 cm. The corpus seemed small. There were no adnexal masses palpated. On rectovaginal examination, both parametria were smooth and pliable. A cervical biopsy was taken and revealed adenocarcinoma. What is the stage of the disease?

A. IA
B. IB
C. IIA
D. IIB

A

B

64
Q

The following are risk factors of endometrial cancer:

A.	nulliparity
B.	obesity
C.	unopposed estrogen
D.	all of the above
E.	none of the above
A

D

65
Q

Surgery for endometrial CA includes:

A. Peritoneal fluid sampling for cytology
B. Exploration of whole abdomen
C. Total hysterectomy and bilateral salpingoophorectomy
D. Pelvic and para-aortic lymph node evaluation
E. All of the above

A

E

66
Q

The ff increases the risk of ovarian epithelial cancer except:

A.	age
B.	family history
C.	infertility
D.	pregnancy
E.	ovulatory drugs
A

D

67
Q

5x5 ovarian right ovarian mass, with signs of rupture. no ascites. normal left ovary and both fallopian tubes. no involvement of liver and diaphragm. Stage.

A. IB
B. IC
C. IIA
D. IIB

A

B

68
Q

Invasive cervical carcinoma is a preventable cancer because

A. It has a long preinvasive state
B. Cervical cytology screening programs are available
C. Treatment of preinvasive lesion is effective
D. A and B
E. AOTA

A

E

69
Q

True about endometrial carcinoma:

A. Patterns of spread are through the lymphatic system, direct extension, etc.
B. Vaginal bleeding or discharge is common
C. Most common genital tract malignancy in the Philippines
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

D

70
Q

In leiomyosarcoma, the factor/s affecting prognosis is/are

A. Mitotic activity
B. Anaplasia
C. Blood vessel invasion
D. Localization of tumor at the time of surgery
E. All of the above
A

E

71
Q

Most common malignant ovarian tumor

A. Dysgerminoma
B. Immature cystic teratoma
C. Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
D. Granulosa cell tumor

A

C

72
Q

Postterm pregnancy refers to

A. gestation beyond the expected date of delivery as calculated by Naegele’s rule
B. gestation > 42 weeks from the first day of the LMP
C. gestation after 292 days from the first day of the LMP
D. gestation on the 42nd week from the first day of the LMP

A

B

73
Q

The Apgar score at __ min can predict neurological outcome of the baby

A. 1
B. 5
C. 10
D. 15

A

B

74
Q

Infection not associated with increased risk of premature delivery

A. Candidiasis
B. Trichomonas
C. Bacterial Vaginosis
D. Gonorrhea

A

A

75
Q

Preferred management of preterm rupture of membrane

A. prophylactic antibiotics
B. tocolytics to delay delivery until 36 weeks
C. weekly steroids for fetal lung maturity
D. expectant management

A

A

76
Q

Monochorionic diamnionic placenta:

A. Monozygosity
B. Dizygosity
C. Frat twins
D. Not related to zygosity

A

A

77
Q

Associated with severe fetal growth restriction:

A. low maternal weight
B. fetal infection
C. Trisomy 21
D. smoking

A

C

78
Q

Mechanism of action of Magnesium sulfate in the control of premature labor?

A. Calcium antagonist
B. Blocks cyclic AMP
C. Increases intracellular Calcium
D. Stimulates β-receptors

A

A

79
Q

32yo G1P0 uterine 37w, twin, breech-cephalic presentation, in labor pains. On internal examination, cervix is 2cm dilated. What will be your management?

a) CS
b) complete breech extraction
c) vaginal delivery
d) outlet forceps extraction

A

C

80
Q

Protracted cervical dilatation is characterized by:

a) < 1.5 cm/hr dilatation
b) < 1 cm/ hr dilatation
d) <2 cm/hr dilatation

A

B

81
Q

Mrs. AA in her 30th week of pregnancy with a 2cm cervix with presenting part at station -1. After 21 hours cervix 50% effaced and 3cm dilated with station still at -1.

a. protracted cervical dilatation
b. protracted descent
c .prolonged latent phase

A

C

82
Q

Indication for chest compression and PPV:

A. <120 bpm

A

A

[OS 215] OB-GYN E2 (6 decks)

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