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[HS 202] E2 (Pathology) > Samplex 2017 > Flashcards

Samplex 2017 Flashcards

1
Q

City dwellers’ adaptation to air pollutants.

a) Squamous metoplasia
b) Glandular metoplasia
c) Osseous metoplasia
d) Bronchial mucous hyperplasia

A

A

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2
Q

In hypoxemia, the following are the cellular happening:

a) Decrease cytocelic gly
b) Increase cellular pH
c) Increase transnational problem
d) Increase cellular impermeability

A

C

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3
Q

Free radicals most commonly destroy the:

a) smooth ER
b) rough ER
c) nucleus
d) phospholipid bilayer membrane

A

D

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4
Q

Which of the following is an example of an ultrastructure finding in reversible cell injury?

a) Pyknosis
b) lysosomal rupture
c) blebbing
d) mitochondrial vacuolization

A

C

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5
Q

Which of the following is an irreversible ultra structural change?

a) Lysosomal rupture
b) autophagy
c) chromatin clumping
d) endoplasmic reticulum swelling

A

A

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6
Q

What’s the right sequence of cell change during injury/death?

a) Function retains until cell death
b) Function loss occurs RIGHT after cell death
c) Cell death precede all functional & histologic change
d) Ultrastructural changes antedate eosinophilic changes

A

D

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7
Q

Not true of hypoxic injury:

a) Hydropic degeneration
b) Anaerobic respiratory mechanisms terminated
c) Protein synthesis, transport and packaging deranged
d) Reactive oxygen species produced

A

B

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8
Q

In this organ, hypoxic death is due predominantly to autolysis rather than protein denaturation

a) lungs
b) GIT
c) Brain
d) Testis

A

C

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9
Q

True of saponification in enzymatic fat necrosis:

a) Release of enzymes in hypercalcemic milieu
b) Release of fatty acids despite of normal calcium levels
c) Neutrophile digestion and calcium deposition
d) Release of fatty acids. The process of saponification

A

B

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10
Q

Preservation of cellular outline but with loss of cellular detail is due to:

a) Protein denaturation
b) autolysis
c) autophagy
d) infarction

A

A

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11
Q

The pattern of necrosis in myocardial infarction is:

a) coagulation necrosis
b) fat necrosis
c) liquefactive necrosis
d) caseation necrosis

A

A

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12
Q

Refers to focal accumulation of carbon pigment laden macrophages is the connective tissues of lung parenchyma

a) steatosis
b) xanthoma
c) cholesterolosis
d) anthracosis

A

D

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13
Q

The first manifestation of almost all cell injury

a) Fat accumulation
b) Dystrophic calcification
c) Hyaline
d) Cellular swelling

A

D

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14
Q

In this type of cellular adaptation, there’s a marked increase in number of autophagosomes accompanied by a decrease in number of myofilaments, ER, and mitochondria

a) hypertrophy
b) hyperplasia
c) atrophy
d) metaplasia

A

D

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15
Q

A reversible change or alteration in adult cells characterized by variation in size, shape and orientation:

a) metaplasia
b) dysplasia
c) hyperplasia
d) atrophy

A

B

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16
Q

Increased hormonal stimulation may cause cells to undergo

a) Metaplasia
b) Hyperplasia
c) Dysplasia
d) Atrophy

A

B

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17
Q

The most common mechanism facilitating increased vascular permeability

a) Endothelial injury
b) leukocyte – mediated endothelial injury
c) Gaps due to endothelial contraction
d) increased transcytosis

A

C

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18
Q

Sources of histamine and serotonin is/are

a) vast cells
b) Basophils
c) platelet
d) AOTA

A

D

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19
Q

Which of the following generates prostaglandin and thromboxanes

a) lipoxygenase
b) cycloxgenase
c) kinins
d) complement

A

C

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20
Q

Which is/are true about acute information?

a) In chemotaxis, the injurious agent goes to the phagocytic cell for phagocytes
b) In activation of phagocytic all, secretions are not only confined to phagosome but also leaks out to the extracellular matrix
c) Leukocyte adhesion consists of migration, rolling, and adhesion
d) B and C are true

A

D

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21
Q

Protein C, fibronectin and amyloid proteins are examples of

a) chemokines
b) acute phase pro
c) cytokines
d) complement

A

B

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22
Q

Protein C, fibronectin and amyloid proteins are examples of

a) chemokines
b) acute phase pro
c) cytokines
d) complement

A

B

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23
Q

Leukoid reaction occurs when:

a) leukocyte count reaches 15,000-20,000 cells/mL
b) leukocyte count reaches 40,000 – 100,000 cells/mL
c) leukocyte count drops 5,000 – 10,000 cells/mL
d) leukocyte count drops 1,000 – 5,000 cell/mL

A

B

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24
Q

Which statement is correct?

a) In acute inflammation, the major players are mononuclear inflammatory cells
b) The most common cause of leukocyte defect is bone marrow suppression
c) The chemical mediators of inflammation does not have the potential to have harmful effects
d) Kinin, clotting, fibrinolytic, and complement cascades are interellated systems that are activated by factor V

A

B

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25
Q

effects of tumor necrosis factor

a) increase fibroblast proliferation
b) decrease acute phase proteins
c) increase anticoagulant activity
d) decrease cytokine secretion

A

A

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26
Q

True of Nitric Oxide

a) pleiomorphic of vasodilation
b) aka endothelium-derived relaxation factor
c) inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion
d) all of the above

A

B

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27
Q

Outcome/s of acute inflammation

a) resolution
b) abscess formation
c) chronic inflammation
d) all of the above

A

D

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28
Q

Which of the following organs is normally involved in low-level proliferation but is capable of rapid replication upon stimulation?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) liver
c) bone marrow
d) neurons

A

B

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29
Q

A cell producing substances that affect target cells in close proximity:

a) Paracrine
b) Endocrine
c) Paracrine
d) Ecrine

A

C

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30
Q

This allows ECM to sketch and recoil

a) Fibrillin
b) Colllagen
c) Elastin
d) Cartilage

A

C

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31
Q

True of collagen?

a) Type 1: predominant in skin & bones
b) has at least 5 types
c) type 2: in basement membrane
d) Enzymatic activity Vitamin E

A

A

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32
Q

Vessel function in adult tissues is:

a) vasculogenesis
b) angiogenesis
c) neovascularisation
d) Both B and C

A

D

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33
Q

True of granulation tissue

a) hallmark of malignancy
b) proliferating blood vessels
c) pink, soft, granular, loose ECM
d) All of the above

A

D

34
Q

Characterized by wound contraction in which the size of the wound is markedly decreased by the action of myofibroblast

a) healing by first intention
b) healing by second intention
c) fibrosis
d) scar formation

A

B

35
Q

Same type of tissue replaced the injured one

a) replacement
b) regeneration
c) hyperplasia

A

B

36
Q

Gives ECM turgor resistance to compression

a) hyaluronan
b) Laminin
c) Fabrillin

A

A

37
Q

A benign tumor arising from the lymph vessels is properly termed as:

a) Lipoma
b) Lymphoma
c) Lymphangioma
d) Lymphangiosarcoma

A

D

38
Q

the malignant counterpart of ovarian dermoid cyst is termed as:

a) Dermatofibroma
b) Cystadenoma
c) choriocarcinoma
d) immature teratoma

A

D

39
Q

The single most common abnormality in dominant oncogene of tumors in humans in the point mutation in:

a) RAS
b) RET
c) cylin – DI

A

A

40
Q

In adenoma carcinoma model of colon carcinogenesis, the initial event is:

a) Activation of APC
b) Activation of RAS
c) Loss of tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 18q
d) loss of p53

A

A

41
Q

dysregulation in MYC gene occurs in

a) CML
b) Neuroblastoma
c) Burkette
d) NOTA

A

C

42
Q

Reduplication of DNA sequences produced by several changes in the proto-oncogene are exemplified by

a) BCR 2/neu in breast cancer
b) BCR – ABL in chronic myelogenous leukemia
c) Rb in retinoblastoma
d) Bcl2 in follicular lymphoma

A

A

43
Q

Example of apoptosis gene

a) ras
b) n-myc
c) rb
d) bcl – 2

A

D

44
Q

molecular policeman:

a) APC
b) p 53
c) rb gen

A

B

45
Q

The phenomenon resulting from obstruction of arterial blood supply or venous drainage and subsequent neurosis of recipient tissues is called

a) haemorrhage
b) congestion
c) infarction
d) hypermia

A

C

46
Q

Mesothelioma is strongly associated with exposure to:

a) Arsenic
b) Asbestos
c) Cadmium
d) Vinyl chloride

A

B

47
Q

What is true of HPV in cervical carcinogenesis

a) Associated with type 16 & 18
b) Genome is non-integrated
c) Aggregation is non-clonal
d) Associated with host proto-oncogene

A

A

48
Q

A neoplasm associated with Helicobacter pylori

a) Gastric cancer
b) Nasopharyngeal cancer
c) Leukemia
d) Burkitt lymphoma

A

A

49
Q

What is the most common paraneoplastic condition?

a) Polycythemia
b) Hypercalcemia
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Myesthenia

A

B

50
Q

True of cancer cachexia

a) loss of ion muscle only
b) caused by nutritional demands of tumor
c) patient’s metabolic rate is reduced
d) effects of cytokines

A

D

51
Q

Which of the following factors favors the formation and vessels in a tumor?

a) vasculostatin
b) angiostatin
c) thromboxanes
d) beta fibroblast growth factor

A

D

52
Q

Flow cytometry is helpful in:

a) characterization of leukemia
b) intraoperative consultation
c) diagnosis of cervical cancer
d) Her2/neu protein detection

A

A

53
Q

A Fetoprotein is a marker for carcinoma of what organ?

a) thyroid
b) liver
c) pancreas
d) stomach

A

B

54
Q

Tumors will not elicit an immune response

a) no production of tumor antigens
b) activation of immune system by chemical carcinogens
c) decreased cytotoxic T- cell
d) overexpression of HLA Type I

A

A

55
Q

A non-inflammatory edema may result from

a) Infection
b) Congestive heart failure
c) Hyperalbuminemia –causes high capillary osmotic pressure, thus causing
d) DIC

A

B

56
Q

Extravasation of blood when the vessel wall ruptures is called

a) congestion
b) edema
c) hemorrhage
d) shock

A

C

57
Q

Hallmark of chronic passive congestion of liver

a) Centrilobular necrosis
b) hemosiderin laden macrophages – Hallmark of CPC of lung
c) fatty changes in hepatocyte
d) neutrophilia

A

A

58
Q

Edema fluid with a specific gravity of 2 is

a) associated with inflammation
b) non-inflammatory
c) has low protein contents
d) is a transudate

A

A

59
Q

Human’s initial response to injury

a) Vasoconstriction
b) vasodilation
c) platelet adhesion
d) activation of coagulation cascade

A

B

60
Q

The primary hemostatic plug is composed of

a) platelets
b) RBCs –found in the secondary plug
c) WBCs – found in the secondary plug
d) fibrin –secondary plug

A

D

61
Q

Which of the ff. has a prothrombic property?

a) Prostacyclin
b) Tissue factor
c) Plasmin
d) Thrombomodulin

A

B

62
Q

In platelet aggregation, platelet to platelet adhesion is mediated by what receptors?

a) Von Willebrand factor
b) Glycoprotein 1b receptor
c) Glycoprotein 2b/3a
d) helper T-cells

A

D

63
Q

A deficiency of Gp1b receptor results to what condition?

a) Chokes and bends
b) Glanzmann Thrombasthenia
c) Caisson disease
d) Bernard Soulier syndrome

A

D

64
Q

All factors predisposing to thrombosis except:

a) artherosclerosis
b) hypertension
c) intake of oral contraceptive pills
d) intake of aspirin

A

D

65
Q

A thrombus, compared to a post mortem clot,

a) is detached
b) has a gelatinous consistency
c) has Lines of Zahn, seen microscopically
d) takes the shape of the vessel wall

A

C

66
Q

Which of the ff. is a feature of venous thrombus:

a) deep leg veins
b) endothelial injury
c) always occlusive
d) NOTA

A

A

67
Q

True of anemic infarcts

a) in organs with w/ loose connective tissue
b) in organs with dual blood supply
c) wedge-shaped
d) found in the lungs

A

C

68
Q

The pathogenesis of septic shock starts with which of the following events

a) The binding of lipopolysaccharide capsule (from endotoxin) with leukocytes
b) Activation of cytokines
c) Vasodilation
d) Endothelial degradation

A

B

69
Q

Viral damage to host cells will morphologically manifest mostly as

a) suppurative
b) necrotizing
c) granulomatous
d) cytopathic- cytoproliferation

A

D

70
Q

The following is mostly responsible for the pathogenesis of S. aureus

a) Surface glycoprotein
b) Possession of surface molecules
c) Methicillin resistance
d) Numerous plasmids

A

D

71
Q

TSS is mediated by

a) endotoxin of E. coli
b) Plasmid-mediated toxin of E.coli
c) plasmid mediated toxin of S. aureus
d) endotoxin of S. aureus

A

C

72
Q

Rheumatic fever and glumerulonephritis

a) HepA
b) B- hemolytic Strep
c) E. coli
d) measles

A

B

73
Q

Which among the ff describes cellulitis?

a) spreading superficial infection of skin
b) caused by B- hemolytic Strep
c) Both of the above
d) No systemic signs and symptom

A

A

74
Q

Antibodies (protect/act) against this component:

a) pili
b) capsule
c) nucleus
d) DNA

A

B

75
Q

Caseating material in granulomas are mostly derived from

a) neutrophils
b) macrophages
c) lymphocytes
d) bacilli

A

C

76
Q

Ulceration and sometimes perforation of the ileum usually happens after how many weeks from onset of Typhoid fever?

a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks

A

C

77
Q

Adult genococcal conjunctivitis is transmitted by:

a) sexual intercourse
b) autoinoculation
c) reactivation
d) mosquito

A

B

78
Q

Gonococcal salpingitis long term effects can include:

a) ectopic pregnancy
b) ovarian fibrosis
c) abortion
d) bacteremia

A

A

79
Q

During defervescence, the most feared complication is:

a) Thrombocytosis
b) Thrombocytopenia
c) endotoxic shock
d) NOTA

A

B

80
Q

Most common pathogen in adult acute common cold like symptoms

a) rhinovirus
b) Influenza A
c) Haemophilus influenza
d) RSV

A

A

81
Q

Vaccine made by Salk is composed of:

a) formaldehyde-inactivated virus
b) attenuated trivalent viral culture
c) attenuated and inactivated virus
d) monovalent attenuated virus

A

A

82
Q

The morphologic pattern of necrosis in myocardial infarction

a) coagulation necrosis
b) fat necrosis
c) liquifactive necrosis
d) caseation necrosis

A

A

[HS 202] E2 (Pathology) (5 decks)

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