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[HS 202] E2 (Pathology) > Samplex 2015 > Flashcards

Samplex 2015 Flashcards

1
Q

A three year old patient is brought to the hospital with moderate to high grade fever, two days in duration.

She presents with a cough and a runny nose. What is the most likely etiologic agent?

A. Influenza virus
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. HPV

A

C

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2
Q

A three year old patient is brought to the hospital with moderate to high grade fever, two days in duration.

The patient suddenly develops pneumonia. The following can be seen in the exudates of the lung.

A. Cowdry Type A nuclear inclusions
B. Warthin-Finkeldey cells
C. Negri bodies
D. Large ovoid eosinophilic nuclear inclusions

A

B

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3
Q

In a routine aerobic culture taken from the respiratory specimen of a pneumonia patient, which will grow?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Neisseria meningitides

A

A or C

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4
Q

Stain for HSV.

A. H&E
B. Wright’s stain
C. Periodic Acid-Schiff
D. Giemsa

A

D

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5
Q

A classmate in med school developed flu like illness a few days after the start of the sem. A CBC showed WBC count of 15,000 cells per ml, 55% of which are lymphocytes. A peripheral blood smear has a no. of atypical forms. IgM antibodies to a certain virus were positive.

Which is the possible causative agent?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. Dengue
d. HPV2

A

A

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6
Q

A classmate in med school developed flu like illness a few days after the start of the sem. A CBC showed WBC count of 15,000 cells per ml, 55% of which are lymphocytes. A peripheral blood smear has a no. of atypical forms. IgM antibodies to a certain virus were positive.

Of the antibody above, the ff is likely :

A. responsible for clearing the virus from the human body
B. protective to the patient against future infection by the same virus
C. will decrease in titer in a few weeks
D. persist for life

A

D

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7
Q

Caused by EBV

A. hepatocellular carcinoma
B. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
C. cervical carcinoma
D. leukemia

A

B

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8
Q

A 2 year old girl lives with extended relatives who frequently kiss her a token of affection. Recently, an aunt and both sets of grandparents were diagnosed to have active tuberculosis. Shortly thereafter, the pediatrician felt a rubbery, movable, nontender nodule 1.5 cm in diameter at the left neck area. The pediatrician suspects this to be tuberculosis. If this is so, the lesion is

A. Primary lymph node involvement as a reaction to the organism
B. A secondary lymph node involvement from a primary lung infection
C. A secondary lymph node involvement from a nasopharyngeal focus of infection
D. A secondary lymph node involvement from a primary infection focus in the ileum

A

B

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9
Q

In bacterial bronchopneumonia, the patient primaruly develops dyspnea because:

A. the airways are obstructed by mucus
B. the alveolar spaces are filled with mucus
C. the alveolar spaces are filled with exudate material
D. the airways undergo spasm

A

C

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10
Q

. The protein product of the gene which makes Staphylococcus aureus met resistant

A. mecA
B. PBP2A
C. SCCmec
D. coagulase

A

B

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11
Q

Genetic material for exotoxins of bacteria are likely found:

A. Nuclear DNA
B. RNA
C. Mitochondrial DNA
D. Plasmids

A

D

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12
Q

Which mechanism is believed to be mainly responsible for the aging process?

A. Telomere shortening
B. Heterophagy
C. ATP depletion
D. CTL apoptosis

A

A

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13
Q

Alcoholic injury to the liver causes accumulation of

A. triglycerides
B. lipofuscin
C. hemosiderin
D. melanin

A

A

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14
Q

Metastatic calcification is exemplified in:

A. Atherosclerosis
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Serocalcific TB
D. Fibrocalcific TB

A

B

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15
Q

Carbon dust in tissues

A. Orthosia
B. Hematosia
C. Anthracosis
D. Cacoprosia

A

C

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16
Q

In vasculitis involving autoimmune inflammatory diseases, the type of necrosis is

A. Caseation
B. Fibrinoid
C. Enzymatic fat
D. Coagulation

A

B

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17
Q

Induction of smooth endoplasmic reticulum is associated with:

A. barbiturates use
B. epidermolysis bullosa
C. lipofuscin accumulation
D. α1-antitrypsin deficiency

A

A

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18
Q

The very first manifestation of cell injury is:

A. Vacuolar degeneration
B. Pyknosis
C. Cytoplasmic eosinophilia
D. Chromatin condensation

A

D

19
Q

Caseation necrosis is commonly seen in

A. viral infection
B. mycobacterium infection
C. vascular disorders
D. autoimmune disorders

A

B

20
Q

The chalky deposits present during fat necrosis are due to…

A. Steatosis
B. Necrosis
C. Saponification

A

C

21
Q

This disorder is associated with increased Apoptosis and Cell Death

A. Breast Cancer
B. Prostate Cancer
C. Thymic Involution
D. AIDS

A

D

22
Q

Generalized atrophy occurs due to

A. Tumor pressure
B. Denervation
C. Ischemia
D. Aging

A

D

23
Q

The major mechanism of apoptosis in humans

A. Mitochondrial pathway
B. Death-receptor pathway
C. Reduction-oxidation reaction
D. Peroxidase

A

A

24
Q

The protein, when released from an organelle to the cytoplasm, causes apoptosis?

A. Fas ligand
B. TNF
C. cytochrome c
D. Bcl-2

A

C

25
Q

Free radicals are generated by:

A. Glutathione peroxidation B. Oxidative protein modification
C. UV-radiation D. DNA cross-linking

A

C

26
Q

Localized area of coagulation necrosis

A. abscess
B. infarct
C. gangrene
D. pus

A

B

27
Q

Which of the following conditions predisposes to neoplastic formation?

A. Physiologic hypertrophy
B. Physiologic hyperplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. Atrophy

A

C

28
Q

. Which is not a malignant tumor?

A. Lymphoma
B. Melanoma
C. Leiomyosarcoma
D. Hamartoma

A

D

29
Q

Leading cause of cancer in men:

A. Skin Cancer
B. Prostate Cancer
C. Lung Cancer
D. Testicular Cancer

A

B

30
Q

Ultraviolet rays is indicative of

A. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
B. Squamous cell carcinoma
C. Urothelial sarcoma D. Blastoma

A

B

31
Q

Characteristic of benign tumor

A. Invasive
B. Cohesive
C. Immortal
D. Escape from regulatory control

A

B

32
Q

Identify which gene is involved. A 45 year old woman has a 2cm mass on her right breast. She has it taken out….pathologist’s results show ductal carcinoma—grade 3. As a resident, they ask you to conduct immunochemistry to verify.

A. ki-RAS
B. c-src
C. BCR/abl gene
D. c-myc

A

D

33
Q

All of the following are tumor-suppressor genes except:

A. p53
B. APC
C. Bcl-2
D. NF-1

A

C

34
Q

What is CORRECT regarding acute inflammation?

A. It is triggered by histamine
B. It is a rapid response specific to the nature of the injury
C. It releases an exudate consisting of fibrin, eosinophils, and fluids.

A

A

35
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding chronic inflammation?

A. It always follows acute inflammation.
B. The key inflammatory cell is the macrophage.
C. IL-2 secreted by CD4+ T helper lymphocytes activates macrophages.
D. Transforming growth factor alpha triggers scarring

A

B

36
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding granulomatous inflammation?

A. defined by the presence of granulomas
B. epithelial histiocytes are so called because they begin to express epithelial proteins like cytokeratins
C. it is a definitive characteristic of pyogenic granuloma
D. it is a definitive characteristic of tuberculosis

A

A

37
Q

A 24-year-old man experienced painful urination 4 days following his bachelor party. A urethritis is suspected and Neisseria gonorrhea is cultured. What is the chemical mediator that causes pain?

A. Prostaglandin
B. Hageman factor
C. Bradykinin
D. Leukotriene B4

A

C

38
Q

A 36 year old woman undergoes a laparoscopic procedure for her ovarian cysts. A 12 cm scar is left on the abdominal wall. How long before the original tensile strength is restored?

A. One month
B. Three months
C. Six months
D. One year

A

D

39
Q

Mechanism of edema in a child with kwashiorkor.

A. Decrease in albumin/protein synthesis
B. Albuminuria
C. Nephrotic Syndrome
D. Chronic passive congestion of the liver

A

C

40
Q

Cardiac failure cells in chronic pulmonary congestion in the lungs is due to:

A. old hemorrhage
B. predisposition to mural thrombi
C. deceased myocytes
D. cardiac hypertrophy

A

A

41
Q

The following are causes of edema EXCEPT

A. lymphatic obstruction
B. Na+/H2O retention
C. Congestive Heart Failure
D. Excess albumin production

A

D

42
Q

The extravasation of blood due to vascular injury is called:

A. hypovolemic shock
B. disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. hemorrhage
D. fibrinolysis

A

C

43
Q

Which of the ff is the incorrect pair:

A. sudden and rapid ascent of scuba divers - air embolism
B. exposure of the lungs due to trauma - air embolism
C. femoral fracture - air embolism
D. complicated gynecological and obstetric procedures - air embolism

A

C

44
Q

The common denominator in shock regardless of the underlying cause is:

A. vascular stasis
B. systemic hypoperfusion
C. coagulopathy in intact blood vessels
D. vascular dilation

A

B

[HS 202] E2 (Pathology) (5 decks)

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