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[HS 202] E3 (Microbiology and Parasitology + BPS) > Samplex 2015 > Flashcards

Samplex 2015 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of gram negative bacteria?

A. endotoxin
B. teichoic acid
C. muramic acid
D. peptidoglycan

A

A

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2
Q

What kind of bacteria can survive in an environment with oxygen but cannot grow?

A. Facultative Anaerobes
B. Facultative Aerobes
C. Obligate Anaerobe D. Aerotolerant Anaerobes

A

D

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3
Q

Which are correct regarding bacterial chromosome

A. Made up of monosaccharide sequence that forms DNA
B. plasmids are extrachromosomal RNA that encode for antibody resistance
C. made of super coiled single-stranded DNA
D. there is only one bacterial chromosome in the the DNA

A

D

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4
Q

A gram positive bacteria showed positive for coagulate and catalase. Which bacteria is this?

A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphylococcus viridans
C. Staphylococcus aureus D. E. Coli

A

C

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5
Q

Which of the following is the smallest cell?

A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Parasite

A

B

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6
Q

Which kingdom was postulated by Whittaker

A. Animalia
B. Archaebacteria
C. Eukarya
D. Bacteria

A

A

The kingdoms proposed by Whitaker are the following: Monera, Animalia, Plantae, Fungi, and Protista. Archaebacteria, Eukarya, and Bactera (or Eubacteria) are domains proposed by Woese.

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7
Q

Which of the following is true about gram negative bacteria

A. Exotoxin is exclusive for gram negative bacteria
B. Endotoxin is exclusive for gram negative bacteria
C. Teichoic acid is present
D. Gram negative bacteria retain crystal violet upon Gram staining

A

B

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8
Q

Common cause of bronchiolitis and pneumonia in 4 years-old child.

A. Inluenza virus
B. Parainfluenza virus
C. RSV
D. Rotavirus

A

C

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9
Q

Which of the following is true?

A. Virus is sensitive to antibitotics
B. DNA viruses are replicated in the cytoplasm and RNA viruses in the nucleus except pox virus
C. All naked viruses are icosahedral
D. Naked viruses are very easily damaged by pH

A

C

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10
Q

The following are from Picornaviridae family that affects the GI system except

A. Echovirus
B. Polio virus
C. Coxsackievirus
D. Rhinovirus

A

D

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11
Q

Spirochetes are considered prokaryotic because

A. have cell membrane
B. have both DNA and RNA in nucleus
C. have polarity
D. have muramic acid in cell wall

A

D

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12
Q

Enzymes present against toxic effects of oxygen except:

A. superoxide dismutase
B. peroxidase.
C. coagulase
D. catalase

A

C

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13
Q

True for prokaryotes

A. ribosome 50S and 20S C. multidirectional gene transfer via plasmids
B. presence of nucleoid D. presence of DNA histones

A

B

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14
Q

What would make a Gram positive bacteria look Gram negative?

A. Gram positive bacteria may look gram negative when stained with india ink
B. There is a possibility for the bacteria to stain negative during the staining process.
C. Gram positive may lose its stain because of altered properties of the cell wall.
D. None of the above

A

C

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15
Q

Which group of reagents & what order are used in Gram staining?

A. crystal violet, acid alcohol, iodine, safranin
B. crystal violet, iodine, 95% alcohol, carvolfuchin
C. crystal violet, iodine, 95% alcohol, safranin
D. crystal violet, safranin, 95% alcohol, iodine

A

C

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16
Q

The bacterial cell membrane is composed of phospholipid bilayer. Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Cell membrane is composed of proteins and usually contains sterols.
B. Membrane has functions in synthetic, homeostatic, secretory, and ETC
C. Membrane is NOT functionally equivalent with eukaryotic cell organelle processes
D. Membranes of G+ and G- bacteria are different in composition, structure, and function.

A

C

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17
Q

Asthma is an example of what type of hypersensitivity response

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

A

A

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18
Q

Characteristic of endospores

A. Vulnerable to environmental damage
B. Reproductive structure that remains in the environment
C. Dehydrated and contains dipicolinic acid and special coating
D. Produced by the bacteria in environments with high nutrition

A

C

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19
Q

Which of the following statement is true for Gram staining?

A. Can distinguish all bacteria
B. Staining properties of gram negative bacteria can be lost during Gram staining
C. Stain depends on cell wall integrity
D. Alcohol can dissolve crystal violet-iodine complex

A

C

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20
Q

A student forgot to apply iodine, in a staphylococcus specimen, what will be the result for a gram positive bacteria?

A. Blue
B. Pink
C. Colorless
D. None of the above

A

B

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21
Q

Bacterial flagella can be described as

A. Cannot be stained B. Superficially attached to the cell wall
C. Exclusive to Gram negative bacteria
D. Composed of a single type of protein subunit

A

D

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22
Q

In general, all of the following are characteristics of fungi EXCEPT

A. distinct nucleus					
B. chitin as major polysaccharide	
C. cytoplasmic organelles with membranes 	
D. ALL of the above
E. NONE of the above
A

E

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23
Q

The aerial mycelium is for

A. Reproduction
B. Nutrition
C. Anchor
D. Osmosis

A

A

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24
Q

What type of hypae do you rarely see in humans?

A. Reproductive
B. Vegetative
C. Both
D. Neither

A

A

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25
Q

Mass of hyphae

A. Rhizoid
B. Mycelium
C. Arthrospores
D. Zygospores

A

B

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26
Q

Primary isolation culture media for dermatophytes

A. SDA
B. BHI
C. Nutrient Agar
D. MacConkey Agar

A

A

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27
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of disease in hairshaft

A. pytiriasis versicolor
B. piedra nigra
C. tinea pedis
D. tinea nigra

A

B

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28
Q

In general, KOH of skin scrapings for Malassezia will show

A. yeast budding
B. hyphae filaments
C. both A and B
D. neither A and B

A

C

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29
Q

Subcutaneous mycoses are seen worldwide and the organisms are soil saprophytes. Which of the following routes will these agents of SQ mycoses be introduced to the host?

A. Ingestion
B. Inhalation of spore
C. Traumatic implantation
D. Inhalation of conidia

A

C

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30
Q

Sulfur granules in wound are indicative of:

A. Candida albicans
B. Cryptococcus neoforans
C. Sporothrix schenckii
D. Actinomycetes isreelli

A

D

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31
Q

Zygophyta is characterized by a non septated hyphae called

A. Coenocytic
B. Basidia
C. Conidia
D. Noncoenocytic

A

A

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32
Q

A lady ate a contaminated shellfish and was infected with Vibrio cholerae. What type of immunity did she acquire?

A. Artificial active acquired C. Natural active acquired
B. Artificial passive acquired D. Natural passive acquired

A

C

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33
Q

Type of immunity when person receives vaccines

A. natural active specific immunity
B. artificial active specific immunity
C. natural passive specific immunity
D. artificial passive specific immunity

A

B

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34
Q

All of the following spores are asexual except:

A. Blastospores
B. Conidiospores
C. Zygospores
D. Sporangiospores

A

C

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35
Q

What mounting medium should be used when the viewed fungi has many artifacts

A. 10% KOH
B. SDA
C. India Ink
D. Safranin

A

A

36
Q

Yeasts are ____________organisms; Molds are __________organisms

A. microscopic; microscopic
B. unicellular; filamentous
C. motile; non motile
D. water; terrestrial

A

B

37
Q

First immunoglobulin to be produced in response to infection

A. IgM
B. IgG
C. IgA
D. IgE

A

A

38
Q

The immune response also known as the “anamnestic” (not to forget) immune response:

A. Primary immune response
B. Cell-mediated immune response
C. Secondary immune response
D. Humoral immune response

A

C

39
Q

The most appropriate mounting medium used in viewing fungi

A. PAS
B. KOH
C. India ink
D. LPCB

A

B

40
Q

Which of the following immune responses type is characterized as ‘horror autotoxicus’?

A. Primary Immune Response		
B. Cell-mediated Immune Response		
C. Secondary Immune Response		
D. Humoral Immune Response
E. All of the Above
A

E

41
Q

Antibodies that can cross the placenta

A. IgA			
B. IgD			
C. IgE			
D. IgM			
E. IgG
A

E

42
Q

Main Immune response for bacterial infections

A. Primary response immunity
B. Humoral immunity
C. Secondary response immunity
D. Cell-mediated immunity

A

B

43
Q

Main Immune response for viruses

A. Primary response immunity
B. Humoral immunity
C. Secondary response immunity
D. Cell-mediated immunity

A

D

44
Q

Which of the following immunoglobulins is homocytotrophic and reaginic?

A. IgA			
B. IgD			
C. IgE			
D. IgG			
E. IgM
A

C

45
Q

Which of the following is true of immunologic tolerance?

A. Peripheral tolerance - antigens not recognized by circulating lymphocytes
B. Central tolerance involves lymphocytes maturing in primary lymphoid organs
C. Tolerance to self-antigens involves deletion of aberrant T cell and B cell in thymus and bone marrow
D. All of the above
E. A and B only

A

D

46
Q

True of hypersensitivity reactions

A. IgE previously formed in reaction to an infection attaches to mast cells.
B. ADCC or antibody dependent cell-mediated cytoxixity is a hypersensitivity reaction
C. Antibody-mediated allergic response is initiated 48 hours after stimulus, while T-cell mediated allergic reaction is initiated 24 hours after
D. AOTA
E. A and B only

A

E

47
Q

In innate inborn non-specific immunity, which of the following is NOT involved?

A. PMN
B. T-lymphocytes
C. Macrophages
D. NK cells

A

B

48
Q

Pili is commonly found in

A. Gram positive
B. Gram negative
C. Both
D. Neither

A

B

49
Q

T lymphocytes mature in the

A. bone marrow
B. liver
C. spleen
D. thymus

A

D

50
Q

Most human pathogens belong to this type of bacteria

A. psychrophiles
B. mesophiles
C. thermophiles
D. halophiles

A

B

51
Q

The bacterial growth stage wherein cell death is balanced with the division and production of new cells

A. Log phase
B. Lag phase
C. Stationary phase
D. Death phase

A

C

52
Q

Autoimmunity, immune tolerance, hypersensitivity, and primary and secondary immune response can be demonstrated by which of the following?

A. humoral immune response
B. cell-mediated immune response
C. Both
D. Neither

A

C

53
Q

Antibody production requires the increase in production and differentiation

A. B-lymphocytes
B. Neutrophil
C. Macrophages
D. T-cell

A

A

54
Q

Which of the following viruses exhibits latent infections?

A. Dengue virus
B. Varicella zoster virus
C. Hepatitis A virus
D. Rotavirus

A

D

55
Q

Prion will cause the following diseases except:

A. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease C. Mad cow’s disease
B. Scrapie in sheep D. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

A

D

56
Q

Infection of the fetus in the uterus involves which antibodies?

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgE
D. IgM

A

A

57
Q

A girl was bitten by a dog in the face and injected with a vaccine. She was given a vaccine for tetanus as well as for rabies virus. What type of immunity did she acquire?

A. Artificial active immunity B. Natural active immunity
C. Artificial passive immunity
D. Natural passive immunity

A

C

58
Q

This virus has a prediliction for epidermal cells, has an envelope and is brick-shaped

A. Cytomegalovirus B. Molluscum contangiosum virus
C. Human Papilloma virus
D. Herpes virus-1

A

B

59
Q

Method of bacterial recombination which involves DNA being passed from one bacterium to another through bacteriophage

A. transformation
B. transposons
C. transduction
D. conjugation

A

D

60
Q

What can you see in the Central Nervous system of a rabies infected patient (pathological finding)

A. Golgi bodies
B. Heavenly bodies
C. Negri bodies
D. Cowdry bodies

A

C

61
Q

Patient workup shows hepatitis profile comprising negative HBsAg,negative IgM core antibody and positive Anti-HBS,. What is the best interpretation of these results?

A. Patient chronic active hepatitis.
B. Patient is in “window phase” of infection.
C. Patient has is immune to hepatitis B.
D. Patient has acute hepatitis infection.

A

C

62
Q

. The following are vectors of Chaga’s disease EXCEPT:

A. Trypanosoma cruzi C. Triatoma infestans
B. Rhodnius prolixus D. Ponstrongylus megistus

A

A

63
Q

Transmitted by Aedes EXCEPT

A. Dengue
B. Filariasis
C. Chikungunya
D. Malaria

A

D

64
Q

Components of bee venom except

A. Histamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Milletin
D. Phospholipase

A

B

65
Q

Flea intermediate host of Hymenolepsis diminuta

A. Pulex iritans
B. Tunga penetrans
C. Ctenocephalides canis
D. Xenopsylla cheopis

A

D

66
Q

Which of the following exhibit specific myiasis

A. Fanna
B. Musca
C. Calliphora
D. Dermatobia

A

D

67
Q

Period of communicability of Pediculosis?

A. lice alive on the person or clothing
B. eggs found on broken hair
C. eggs found on lose hair
D. AOTA

A

D

68
Q

Ant injects this toxin:

A. Milletin
B. Formic acid
C. histamine
D. sulfa-hydryl

A

B

69
Q

The Anapheles species that breeds in saline water

A. A. flavirostris
B. A. litoralis
C. A. balabasensis
D. A. maculatus

A

B

70
Q

Vectors of Japanese encephalitis except

A. Culex vishnui
B. Culex gelidus
C. Culex tritaeniorhynchus
D. Culex quinquefasciatus

A

D

71
Q

Insect lesion with 1.2.3 linear pattern

A. Pulex
B. Tunga
C. Cimex
D. Rhodnius

A

C

72
Q

The following are louse adaptation for parasitism except

A. small and wingless C. sucking mouth parts
B. slender legs with claws
D. segmented antennae

A

D

73
Q

Also known as Chigoe Flea

A. Pulex iritans
B. Tunga penetrans
C. Ctenocephalicus canis
D. Xenopsylla chiopis

A

B

74
Q

These transmit Hepatitis B virus except:

A. P. iritans
B. Cimex lectularius
C. Cimex hemipterus
D. Lepticimex boueti

A

A

75
Q

These diseases are caused by human lice except:

A. Relapsing fever
B. Endemic typhus
C. Trench fever
D. Hymenolepiasis

A

D

76
Q

A kind of host where the parasite attains its sexual maturity

A. Accidental
B. Definitive
C. Intermediate
D. Paratenic

A

B

Definitive host – a parasite attains sexual maturity w/in host (e.g. malaria)
Paratenic host – can harbor the parasite which does not go through development, usually asymptomatic

77
Q

Most common roundworm

A. Ascaris
B. Ancyclostoma
C. Necator
D. Trichuris

A

A

78
Q

The diagnostic stage for Ascaris is:

A. Adult worm
B. Egg
C. Larva
D. A and B

A

D

79
Q

True of Ascaris

A. Most people with Ascaris are asymptomatic
B. Ascaris worm has both male and female reproductive organs
C. Obstruction of the GI tract is usually due to a minor infection
D. Unfertilized egg in the soil usually takes a longer time to become in the infective stage than fertilized egg

A

A

80
Q

This is a characteristic of the Trichuris egg

A. Thin shelled
B. Thickened abopercular ends
C. Unembryonated when passed in stool
D. With mammillations

A

C

81
Q

Heavy Trichuris infestation usually presents with

A. Colonic perforation
B. Intestinal Obstruction
C. Rectal prolapse
D. Anemia

A

C

82
Q

Where is the final habitat of adult Trichuris?

A. Cecum
B. Stomach
C. Rectum
D. Perianal skin

A

A

83
Q

Which is true of hookworm infection?

A. Rhabditiform larvae is infective
B. Ancylostoma has a mouth with cutting plates
C. There is a stage in the lungs that is needed
D. Malnutrition and anemia are rare

A

C

84
Q

Diagnostic phase of hookworms

A. Adult worm
B. Filariform larva
C. Rhabditiform larva
D. Ova

A

D

85
Q

Choose the statement that is TRUE about Strongyloides:

A. The number of Strongyloides worms may increase in a human host even without repeated exposure to the infective stage in the soil.
B. The final habitat of adult Strongyloides worms is the large intestine.
C. Disseminated Strongyloides infection is equally common in immunocompromised and immunocompetent hosts.
D. The stage excreted in human stool is the embryonated or fertilized egg.

A

A

86
Q

Effective STH management

A. Control of Strongyloides spread through awareness programs on properly washing utensils and avoiding sharing of towels
B. Most of Ascaris infections are asymptomatic thus, there is no need for treatment
C. Mass treatment of helminth infections by the DOH
D. Educating people on the dangers of open defecation

A

C

87
Q

This drug kills worms by binding to free beta-tubulin and inhibiting glucose uptake. Which is it?

A. ivermectin
B. mebendazole
C. praziquantel
D. pyrantel pamoate

A

B

[HS 202] E3 (Microbiology and Parasitology + BPS) (6 decks)

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