Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

[HS 202] E3 (Microbiology and Parasitology + BPS) > Samplex 2014 Set A (Microbiology) > Flashcards

Samplex 2014 Set A (Microbiology) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which is used to define the field of microbiology?

A. size of the organism
B. technique used regardless of the size of the organism
C. both
D. neither

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who was the one who made concepts that link between infective organisms and diseases?

A. Franchoso
B. Pasteur
C. Koch
D. Lister

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who disproved spontaneous generation?

A. Koch
B. Pasteur
C. Semmelweis
D. Lister

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Simple cells that do not have membrane-bound nucleus

A. prokaryotic
B. urkaryotic
C. eukaryotic
D. deuterokaryotic

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cells with relatively complex cytoplasm and a true membrane delimiting the nucleus.

A. prokaryotes
B. urcaryotes
C. norcaryotes
D. eukaryotes

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Microbiology can be used in bioremediation of pollutants:

A. True
B. False

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Most pathogens of human diseases belong to the bacterial group.

A. True
B. False

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The composition of the ___ is the basis of the differential reaction of bacteria to the Gram-staining procedure

a. chromosome
b. cytoplasmic membrane
c. cell wall
d. slime layer

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Primary stain in gram staining

A. crystal violet’
B. gram’s iodine
C. alcohol
D. safranin

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Mordant for gram staining:

A. crystal violet’
B. gram’s iodine
C. alcohol
D. safranin

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

After decolorizing, gram positive organism are stained _____ while gram negative organisms are stained _____.

A. Blue:pink
B. Blue: colorless
C. Colorless: colorless
D. None of the above

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

After the secondary stain is added, Gram positive organisms are stained _____ and Gram negative organisms are stained _____.

A. Blue: Blue
B. Blue: Colorless
C. Blue: Pink
D. Pink: Pink

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A virus can be defined as

A. The smallest living thing
B. Can cause a disease
C. Obligatory intracellular
D. All of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

One of the following is not a characteristic of viruses:

A. can be filtered
B. obligate intracellular (not so sure about choice)
C. none are susceptible to antibiotics
D. not easily destroyed by heat

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most of the viruses have the following except

A. nucleocapsid
B. virion
C. capsid
D. envelope

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Regarding the viral envelope, which of the following is least accurate?

A. Proteins in the envelope determine host cell specificity.
B. Enveloped viruses are more easily inactivated by lipid solvents than are non-enveloped viruses.
C. When RNA polymerases are present in a virus, they are typically found as one of the envelope proteins.
D. None of the choices.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Proteins in the virus envelope are called:

A. Spikes
B. Capsids
C. Capsomers
D. Globular proteins

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following is a DNA virus?

a. Adenovirus
b. Rubella virus
c. Dengue virus
d. Mumps virus

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which is not a viral taxonomic characteristic?

a. nucleic acid
b. host affected
c. presence or absence of nucleocapsid
d. strandedness of nucleic acid
e. presence or absence of envelope

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Viral penetration occurs by all of the following except?

a. conjugation
b. nucleic transformation
c. endocytosis
d. direct fusion

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Most viral receptors are:

a. Lipids
b. Lipopolysaccharides
c. Capsule
d. Glycoproteins
e. Proteins

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Viral uncoating refers to:

a. Release of nucleocapsid
b. Release of NA
c. Release of virion
d. AOTA
e. A and B

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. DNA virus replication happens in the nucleus
b. RNA virus replication happens in the cytoplasm
c. both
d. neither

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

RNA viruses which serve as their own mRNA are:

a. Ss negative sense
b. Ds negative sense
c. Ds positive sense
d. Ss positive sense

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which virus has DNA for its genome?

A. Adenovirus

b. Rubella virus
c. Measles
d. Dengue

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. DNA virus replication happens in the nucleus
b. RNA virus replication happens in the cytoplasm
c. both
d. neither

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the cytopathic effects of viral infection does not include which of the following?

A. Hemagglutination

b. Nucleated cells
c. Rounding of cells in tissue culture
d. Inclusions in cytoplasm
e. Inclusions in nucleus

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Permissive cells:

A. support multiplication of the virus
B. Ends with productive infection
C. Both
D. Neither

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In viral pathogenesis, the nature of the disease will depend on all of the following except:

A. The type of virus
B. genetic make-up of the host
C. target organ
D. presence of the inclusion

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The CPE or cell injury in viral infection may result from:

A. disruption of the host chromosome
B. disruption of the cell structures
C. transformation of cells
D. AOTA
E. NOTA
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Viral capsomers are accumulations of:

A. nucleocapsids
B. identical protein blocks
C. glycoproteins
D. all of the chromosomes

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The symmetric protein shell that encloses the viral nucleic genome

A. nucleocapsid
B. capsomer
C. capsid
D. NOTA

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the following is not properly matched?

A. Cell wall – protects against osmotic pressure
B. Endospore – protects against phagocytosis
C. Pili - adhesion
D. Cell membrane - filter

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Amphotericin B disrupts the plasma membrane by combining with sterols. It will affect the following except

A. Animal cells
B. Bacteria
C. Fungi
D. Mycoplasma
E. Plant
A

B

35
Q

True of bacterial cell wall except:

A. Made up of several chains of peptidoglycan
B. Made up of alternating NAG and NAM
C. Tetrapeptide is attached to NAG.
D. Gram positive bacteria have several layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acid.

A

C

36
Q

Least accurate about Gram staining:

A. All Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria will stain.
B. Alcohol will fix the stain.
C. Crystal violet will be retained in Gram positive bacteria.
D. Not all bacteria will stain with Gram staining.

A

B

37
Q

Which is true about bacterial flagella?

A. Can easily be removed
B. Present only in Gram negative bacteria
C. Superficially attached to the cell wall
D. Made up of one kind of protein

A

D

38
Q

Which of the following types of culture would not be used to culture aerobes:

a. selective
b. reducing
c. enriched
d. differential

A

B

Selective media: suppression of unwanted microbes; encouraging desired microbes
Reducing media: growth of obligate anaerobes
Enriched media: similar to selective media but designed to increase numbers of desired microbes to detectable levels
Differential media: differentiation of colonies of desired microbes to detectable levels

39
Q

The transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell by bacteriophage:

a. conjugation
b. transformation
c. transduction
d. translation

A

C

40
Q

The transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient as naked DNA in a solution

a. conjugation
b. transformation
c. transduction
d. translation

A

B

41
Q

Bacterial recombination using cell-to-cell communication and plasmids:

a. conjugation
b. transduction
c. transformation
d. transposons

A

A

42
Q

Clostridium tetani is spore-forming. What characteristics of spores make them survive in not so favourable conditions?

a. able to withstand extreme temperature
b. able to withstand extreme pH
c. resistant to dessication
d. AOTA

A

D

43
Q

Bacteria which thrive in aerobic or anaerobic conditions:

a. obligate aerobes
b. obligate anaerobes
c. microaerophiles
d. facultative anaerobes

A

D

44
Q

Bacteria which survive best at 10 degrees Celsius:

a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles

A

A

45
Q

Bacteria which grow at 0.5% oxygen:

a. obligate aerobes
b. obligate anaerobes
c. microaerophiles
d. capnophiles
e. NOTA

A

B

46
Q

Which among them are human pathogens?

a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles

A

B

47
Q

Fungi are:

a. autotrophs
b. caprophils
c. eukaryotes
d. prokaryotes

A

C

48
Q

Fungi cannot:

a. reproduce sexually
b. reproduce asexually
c. utilize co2 from the air
d. utilize co2 from organic compounds

A

C

49
Q

visualization of fungi in clinical specimen is best treated with:

a. silver nitrate
b. 10% KOH
c. formaldehyde
d. 5% LPCB

A

B

50
Q

Which of the following is not an ASEXUAL spore:

a. zygospores
b. sporangiospores
c. blastospores
d. arthrospores

A

A

51
Q

Mass of intertwined hyphal elements is called:

a. conidia
b. rhizoids
c. mycelia
d. arthrospores

A

C

52
Q

a fungi that exists in yeast form at 37C and mold form outside the body is dimorphic

A. True
B. False

A

A

53
Q

The main component of the cell walls of fungi

A. chitin
B. peptidoglycan
C. lipopolysaccharide
d. cellulose

A

A

54
Q

Fungi whose sexual reproduction had not been observed were temporarily placed in what category?

A

Deuteromycota

55
Q

Mushrooms belong to division:

a. ascomycota
b. basidiomycota
c. chytridiomycota
d. deuteromycota

A

B

56
Q

These are coenocytic fungi that are fast growing and are frequently lab contaminants. In the tissue, they have predilection for arterial blood vessels. The family they belong to is which division?

A. Ascomycota
B. Basidiomycota
C. Chytridiomycota
D. Deuteromycota
E. Zygomycota
A

E

57
Q

Which of the following is the most common medium used for fungal culture?

A. Potato dextrose agar
B. Corn meal agar
C. CZA
D. Saboraud’s Dextrose agar

A

D

58
Q

Mounting fluid used for fungi in artificial medium:

A. Calcifluor white
B. India ink
C. 10% KOH
D. Lactophenol cotton blue

A

D

59
Q

Best method to visualize capsular yeast:

A. Calcofluor white
B. India ink
C. 10% KOH
D. Lactophenol cotton blue

A

B

The India ink can be added to specimens such as CSFs or exudates to provide a dark background that will highlight hyaline yeast cells and capsular material to produce a halo effect.

60
Q

The following can be used as specimen to pinpoint the sources of systemic infection, except:

A. blood
B. CSF
C. hair
D. skin
E. sputum
A

C, D

The specimen collected during systemic infection include the ABCs: abscess, blood, CSF, and sputum.

61
Q

The Riddel method is used to observe the undisturbed growth of fungi

A. False
B. True

A

B

62
Q

The sexual stage of fungi is called

A. Anamorph
B. Holomorph
C. Telopmorph

A

C

63
Q

The fungal form that is filamentous is nature:

A. Yeast form
B. Mold form
C. Dimorphic form

A

B

64
Q

Part of the fungus that anchors it to the substrate

A. Reproductive mycelium
B. Thallus
C. Vegetative mycelium

A

C

65
Q

Amphotericin B and the azoles target the ergosterol component of the fungal:

A. Cell membrane
B. Cellulose
C. Chitin
D. Peptidoglycan

A

A

66
Q

A complete virus particle is called:

a. capsid
b. nucleocapsid
c. virion
d. cell

A

C

67
Q

[T/F] The first categorization of viruses is based on host specificity.

A

F

Categorization of viruses is first based on 1) nucleic acid type, then 2) strandedness, 3) presence/absence of envelope, 4) capsid size or shape and finally, 5) host specificity.

68
Q

[T/F] The envelope is not a primary source for classification of viruses because any virus at one time may be with an envelope and at another time may not have an envelope.

A

F

69
Q

[T/F] Like bacteria and eukaryotic organisms, viruses can be cultured on artificial media.

A

F

In growing of animal viruses, live animals, bird embryos, and cell culture/lines may be used

70
Q

[T/F] Lysogeny involves incorporation of virus DNA into host chromosome.

A

T

71
Q

[T/F] With a pathogen and microbial flora identified in a sample, the use of selective medium inhibits the growth of the latter.

A

T

72
Q

[T/F] Darkfield microscopy is best used for visualizing spirochetes.

A

T

73
Q

[T/F] L-forms are wall-less bacteria which exist in nature, for example Mycoplasma.

A

T

74
Q

[T/F] Expectorated sputum is an example of a direct specimen.

A

F

75
Q

[T/F] A 4-fold or greater increase in specific Ab titers between acute and convalescent sera is necessary to establish the diagnosis of dengue.

A

T

76
Q

[T/F] Serologic tests based on Ab detection are not fully reliable for early diagnosis of HIV infection.

A

T

Antibodies against HIV are developed 5-8 months of infection while the median time for detectable Ab using ELISA is 21 months. Because of this, early serologic tests turn up many false negatives.

77
Q

[T/F] Immunoblotting is used to detect the presence of antibody produced against an antigen.

A

T

Immunoblotting is an analytical technique used to detect protein antibodies produced against an antigen by gel electropheresis. Also known as Western Blot.

78
Q

[T/F] Dengue IgG Capture ELISA is used to diagnose secondary infection.

A

T

For Dengue, IgG Indirect ELISA is for detecting past and active infections, IgG Capture ELISA is for detecting secondary infections while IgM Capture ELISA is for detecting present, active infections.

79
Q

[T/F] In radioimmunoassay, the radioisotopes are linked to antigen or antibody instead of enzymes.

A

T

Radioimmunoassay measures antigens by attaching isotopes directly onto the antigen (or vice versa) in contrast to ELISA – enzyme-linked.

80
Q

[T/F] Indirect immunofluorescence is more sensitive than direct because of signal amplification.

A

T

Amplification of signal is achieved in indirect immunofluorescence because multiple labeled secondary antibodies (anti-antibodies) can attach to the primary antibodies. In direct signaling, the signal is delimited by the fluorescent label already attached to the primary antibody.

81
Q

[T/F] In complement fixation test a positive test is lysis of RBCs

A

F

RBC lysis indicates that complement was not fixed by Ag/Ab complex. If the Ag/Ab’s were present, complement would be fixed and unable to lyse RBCs.

82
Q

[T/F] IgE can fixate complement.

A

F

The best antibodies for fixing complement are IgG and IgM.

83
Q

Which of the ff. is used as selective medium.

A. Nutrient broth
B. MacConkey
C. sbAgar
D. Nutrient agar

A

B

84
Q

Western blot for HIV is used

A. as confirmatory test
B. to detect HIV Abs
C. to Ag-specific for HIV
D. only A and C
E. all of the above
A

E

Western Blot is the confirmatory test for HIV. It detects both components of HIV (gene products: env, pol, gag) and antibodies against HIV. (Wiki)

[HS 202] E3 (Microbiology and Parasitology + BPS) (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions