Sample Exam from ISTQB.org

Question 1

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a test condition?
a) An attribute of a component or system specified or implied by requirements
documentation.
b) An aspect of the test basis that is relevant to achieve specific test objectives.
c) The capability of the software product to provide functions which meet stated and
implied needs when the software is used under specified conditions.
d) The percentage of all single condition outcomes that independently affect a decision
outcome that have been exercised by a test case suite.

Answer 1

a) Not correct – Definition of feature according to Glossary.
b) Correct – From Glossary.
c) Not correct – Definition of functionality according to Glossary.
d) Not correct – Definition of modified condition decision coverage according to Glossary

Question 2

Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing?

a) To determine whether enough component tests were executed within system testing.
b) To find as many failures as possible so that defects can be identified and corrected.
c) To prove that all possible defects are identified.
d) To prove that any remaining defects will not cause any failures.

Answer 2

Justification
a) Not correct – Component testing is not part of System testing.
b) Correct – Syllabus 1.1.1
c) Not correct – Principle #1 states that exhaustive testing is impossible, so one can
never prove that all defects were identified.
d) Not correct – To make an assessment whether a defect will cause a failure or not, one
has to detect the defect first. Saying that no remaining defect will cause a failure,
implicitly means that all defects were found. This contradicts Principle #1.

Question 3

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and
debugging?
a) Testing identifies the source of defects; debugging analyzes the defects and proposes
prevention activities.
b) Testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the
causes of failures in the software.
c) Testing removes faults; debugging identifies the causes of failures.
d) Testing prevents the causes of failures; debugging removes the failures.

Answer 3

a) Not correct. Testing does not identify the source of defects.
b) Correct. Syllabus 1.1.2: Executing tests can show failures that are caused by defects
in the 8 software. Debugging is the development activity that finds, analyzes, and fixes
such defects.
c) Not correct. Testing does not remove faults.
d) Not correct. Testing does not directly prevent the causes of failures. Debugging does
not removes the failures, only the causes of failuresq

Question 4

Which one of the statements below describes a failure discovered during testing or in
production?
a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box.
b) The wrong version of one source code file was included in the build.
c) The computation algorithm used the wrong input variables.
d) The developer misinterpreted the requirement for the algorithm.

Answer 4

a) Correct – A failure is an external manifestation of a defect. A crash is clearly
noticeable by the user.
b) Not correct – This is a defect, not a failure, since there is something wrong in the code.
It may not result in a failure, for example if the changes in the source code file are only
in comments.
c) Not correct – This is a defect, not a failure, as there is a flaw in the code implementing
the algorithm. If this computation is not used in a test or in production, a failure will not
occur.
d) Not correct – This is an error, not a failure. The misinterpretation of the requirement
may or may not lead to a defect in the impementation of the algorithm, which in turn
may or may not lead to a failure.

Question 5

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes one of the seven key principles of
software testing?
a) By using automated testing it is possible to test everything.
b) With sufficient effort and tool support, exhaustive testing is feasible for all software.
c) It is impossible to test all input and precondition combinations in a system.
d) The purpose of testing is to prove the absence of defects

Answer 5

FL-1.3.1 (K2) Explain the seven testing principles
Justification
a) Not Correct – Exhaustive testing is impossible, regardless of it being manual or
automated.
b) Not Correct– Exhaustive testing is impossible, regardless of the amount of effort put
into testing.
c) Correct – Syllabus 1.3: Principle #2 says “Testing everything (all combinations of
inputs and preconditions) is not feasible except for trivial cases”.
d) Not Correct– This statement is contradicting Principle #1 says “Testing shows the
presence of defects: Testing can show that defects are present, but cannot prove that
there are no defects”.

Question 6

In what way can testing be part of Quality assurance?

a) It ensures that requirements are detailed enough.
b) It reduces the level of risk to the quality of the system.
c) It ensures that standards in the organization are followed.
d) It measures the quality of software in terms of number of executed test cases

Answer 6

FL-1.2.2 (K2) Describe the relationship between testing and quality assurance and give
examples of how testing contributes to higher quality
Justification
a) Not correct – This is Quality assurance but not testing.
b) Correct – Syllabus 1.2.2. Testing contributes to the achievement of quality in a variety
of ways.
c) Not correct – This is Quality assurance but not testing.
d) Not correct – The quality can not be measured by counting the number of executed
test cases without knowing the outcome

Question 7

Which of the below tasks is performed during the test analysis activity of the test process?

a) Identifying any required infrastructure and tools.
b) Creating test suites from test scripts.
c) Analyzing lessons learned for process improvement.
d) Evaluating the test basis for testability.

Answer 7

FL-1.4.2 (K2) Describe the test activities and respective tasks within the test process
Justification
a) Not correct – this activity is performed during the Test design activity.
b) Not correct – this activity is performed during the Test implementation activity.
c) Not correct – this activity is performed during the Test completion activity.
d) Correct – this activity is performed during the Test analysis activity. Syllabus 1.4.2.

Question 8

Differentiate the following test work products,1-4, by mapping them to the right description, AD.
1. Test suite.
2. Test case.
3. Test script.
4. Test charter.
A. A group of test scripts or test execution schedule.
B. A set of instructions for the automated execution of test procedures.
C. Contains expected results.
D. An event that could be verified.
a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D.
b) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C.
c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B.
d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A.

Answer 8

Test suite: Syllabus 1.4.3 for Test implementation:
Test implementation work products also include test suites, which are groups of test scripts,
as well as a test execution schedule. (1A).
Test case: Glossary, A set of input values, execution preconditions, expected results and
execution postconditions…. (2C).
Test script: Glossary test script, A set of instructions for the automated execution of test
procedures (3B).
Test charter: Glossary, A statement of test objectives, and possibly test ideas about how to
test. Test charters are used in exploratory testing. (4D).
Thus:
a) Correct
b) Not correct
c) Not correct
d) Not correct

Question 9

How can white-box testing be applied during acceptance testing?

a) To check if large volumes of data can be transferred between integrated systems.
b) To check if all code statements and code decision paths have been executed.
c) To check if all work process flows have been covered.
d) To cover all web page navigations.

Answer 9

a) Not correct – Relevant for integration testing.
b) Not correct – Relevant for component testing.
c) Correct – Syllabus 2.3.5: For acceptance testing, tests are designed to cover all
supported financial data file structures and value ranges for bank-to-bank transfers.
d) Not correct – Relevant for system testing.

Question 10

Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?
a) Component testing verifies the functionality of software modules, program objects, and
classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces
between components and interactions between different parts of the system.
b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications,
design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are
usually derived from requirement specifications, or use cases.
c) Component testing only focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing
focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics.
d) Component testing is the responsibility of the testers, whereas system testing typically
is the responsibility of the users of the system.

Answer 10

a) Not correct – System testing does not test interfaces between components and
interactions between different parts of the system; this is a target of integration tests.
b) Correct – Syllabus 2.2.1: Examples of work products that can be used as a test basis
for component testing include: detailed design, code, data model, component
specifications.
Syllabus 2.2.3: Examples of work products for system testing include: System and
software requirement specifications (functional and non-functional), …,.. use cases.
c) Not correct – Component testing does not ONLY focus on functional characteristics.
d) Not correct – Component testing typically is the responsibility of the developers,
whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of testers.

Question 11

Which one of the following is TRUE?
a) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the correction has been successfully
implemented, while the purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the correction
has no side effects.
b) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the
purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the system is still working in a new
environment.
c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the
purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed.
d) The purpose of regression testing is to check if the new functionality is working, while
the purpose of confirmation testing is to check if the originally defect has been fixed.

Answer 11

a) Not correct – Confirmation testing does not check successful implementation and
confirmation testing does not check for side effects.
b) Not correct– The statement about confirmation testing should be about regression
testing.
c) Correct – Syllabus 2.3.4
d) Not correct – Testing new functionality is not regression testing

Question 12

Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model?
a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in a series with added
pieces.
b) A phase in the development process should begin when the previous phase is
complete.
c) Testing is viewed as a separate phase which takes place after development has been
completed.
d) Testing is added to development as an increment

Answer 12

a) Correct– Syllabus 2.1.1: Incremental development involves establishing requirements,
designing, building, and testing a system in pieces.
b) Not correct – This is a sequential model.
c) Not correct – This describes the Waterfall model.
d) Not correct – Testing alone is not an increment in the development.

Question 13

Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing?

a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software.
b) Decision to test the system after migration to a new operating platform.
c) Decision to test if archived data is possible to be retrieved.
d) Decision to test after “hot fixes”.

Answer 13

a) Correct – this is maintainability testing, not maintenance testing.
b) Not correct – this is a trigger for maintenance testing, see the syllabus chapter 2.4.1:
Operational tests of the new environment as well as of the changed software.
c) Not correct – this a the trigger for maintenance testing, see the syllabus chapter 2.4.1:
Testing restore/retrieve procedures after archiving for long retention periods.
d) Not correct – this a the trigger for maintenance testing, see the syllabus chapter 2.4.1:
Reactive modification of a delivered software product to correct emergency defects
that have caused actual failures.

Question 14

Which of the following options are roles in a formal review?

a) Developer, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Tester.
b) Author, Moderator, Manager, Reviewer, Developer.
c) Author, Manager, Review leader, Reviewer, Designer.
d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe.

Answer 14

Justification

a) Not correct – Tester and developer are NOT roles as per Syllabus, section 3.2.2.
b) Not correct – Developer is NOT a role as per Syllabus, section 3.2.2.
c) Not correct – Designer is NOT a role as per Syllabus, section 3.2.2.
d) Correct –see Syllabus, section 3.2.2.

Question 15

Which of the following describes the main activities of a formal review?
a) Initiation, backtracking, individual review, issue communication and analysis rework,
follow-up.
b) Planning, individual review, issue communication and analysis, rework, closure,
follow-up.
c) Planning, initiate review, individual review, issue communication and analysis, fixing
and reporting.
d) Individual review, issue communication and analysis, rework, closure, follow-up, root
cause analysis.

Answer 15

Justification
a) Not correct – See c) for the activities in the review process.
b) Not correct – See c) for the activities in the review process.
c) Correct – According to Syllabus chapter 3.2.1: planning, initiate review, individual
review, issue communication and analysis, fixing defects and report.
d) Not correct – See c) for the activities in the review process.

Question 16

Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a
formal process based on rules and checklists?
a) Informal Review.
b) Technical Review.
c) Inspection.
d) Walkthrough.

Answer 16

a) Not correct – Informal review does not use a formal process.
b) Not correct – Use of checklists are optional.
c) Correct – As per Syllabus 3.2.3: Formal process based on rules and checklists.
d) Not correct – Does not explicitly require a formal process.

Question 17

Which TWO of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?
a) A cheap way to detect and remove defects.
b) It makes dynamic testing less challenging.
c) Early validation of user requirements.
d) It makes it possible to find run-time problems early in the lifecycle.
e) When testing safety-critical system, static testing has less value because dynamic
testing finds the defects better.

Answer 17

a) Correct – Syllabus 3.1.2: Defects found early are often much cheaper to remove than
defects detected later in the lifecycle.
b) Not correct – Dynamic testing still has its challenging objectives
c) Correct – Syllabus 3.1.2: Preventing defects in design or coding by uncovering
omissions, inaccuracies, inconsistencies, ambiguities, and redundancies in
requirements.
d) Not correct – This is dynamic testing.
e) Not correct – Static analysis is important for safety-critical computer systems. Syllabus

Question 18

The design of a newspaper subscriptions system is being reviewed. The expected system
users are:
- Subscribers
- Technical support team
- Billing department
- Database administrator
Each type of user logs into the system through a different login interface (e.g. subscribers
login via a web page; technical support via an application).
Different reviewers were requested to review the system’s login flow from the perspective of
the above user categories.
Which of the following review comments is MOST LIKELY to have been made by all
reviewers?
a) The login page on the web is cluttered with too much advertisement space. As a result,
it is hard to find the “forgot password?” link.
b) The login to access the billing information should also allow access to subscribers’
information and not force a second login session.
c) After logging-in to the database application, there is no log-out function.
d) The log in flow is un-intuitive since it requires entering the password first, before the
user name can be keyed-in.

Answer 18

a) Not correct – this impacts only the subscribers; possibly others but for sure not the
technical support since they don’t access the data via a web page.
b) Not correct – this comment would come from the review that took the perspective of
the billing department, but not from other reviewers.
c) Not correct – this comment would come from the review that took the perspective of
the database administrator, but not from other reviewers.
d) Correct – Every type of user must be authenticated before accessing to the system,
so all users of the system would note (and suffer) an un-intuitive login flow

Question 19

What is checklist-based testing?
a) A test technique in which tests are derived based on the tester’s knowledge of past
failures, or general knowledge of failure modes.
b) Procedure to derive and/or select test cases based on an analysis of the specification,
either functional or non-functional, of a component or system without reference to its
internal structure.
c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a high-level
list of items to be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against
which a product has to be verified.
d) An approach to testing where the tester dynamically designs and executes tests based
on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests.

Answer 19

a) Not correct – This is error giessing,defined in Glossary.
b) Not correct – This is black-box test technique, defined in Glossary.
c) Correct – Defined in Glossary.
d) Not correct – This is exploratory testing, defined in Glossary

Question 20

Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique?

a) Techniques based on analysis of the architecture.
b) Techniques checking that the test object is working according to the technical design.
c) Techniques based on the expected use of the software.
d) Techniques based on formal requirements.

Answer 20

a) Not correct – This is a white-box test technique.
b) Not correct – This is a white-box test technique.
c) Not correct – This is a experience-based test technique.
d) Correct – Syllabus 4.1.2: Black-box test techniques (also called behavioral or
behavior-based techniques) are based on an analysis of the appropriate test basis
(e.g. formal requirements documents, specifications, use cases, user stories).

Question 21

The following statement refers to decision coverage:
“When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, any
single test case we run will result in 50% decision coverage.”
Which of the following sentences is correct?
a) The sentence is true. Any single test case provides 100% statement coverage and
therefore 50% decision coverage.
b) The sentence is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if”
statement to be either true or false.
c) The sentence is false. A single test case can only guarantee 25% decision coverage in
this case.
d) The sentence is false. The statement is too broad. It may be correct or not, depending
on the tested software.

Answer 21

a) Not correct – While the given statement is true, the explanation is not.
b) Correct – Since any test will cause the outcome of the “if” statement to be either
TRUE or FALSE, by defintion we achieved 50% decision coverage.
c) Not correct – A single test can give more than 25% decision coverage.
d) Not correct – The statement is specific and always true.

Question 22

Which one of the following is the BEST description of statement coverage?
a) It is a metric which is used to calculate and measure the percentage of test cases that
have been executed.
b) It is a metric, which is used to calculate and measure the percentage of statements in
the source code which have been executed.
c) It is a metric, which is used to calculate and measure the number of statements in the
source code which have been executed by test cases that are passed.
d) It is a metric that give a true/false confirmation if all statements are covered or not.

Answer 22

a) Not correct – Statement coverage measures the percentage of statements exercised
by test cases.
b) Correct – Syllabus 4.3.1: Statement testing exercises the executable statements in
the code. Coverage is measured as the number of statements executed by the tests
divided by the total number of executable statements in the test object, normally
expressed as a percentage.
c) Not correct – The coverage does not measure pass/fail.
d) Not correct – It is a metric, not a true/false.

Question 23

Which TWO of the following statements about the relationship between statement coverage
and decision coverage are true?
a) Decision coverage is stronger than statement coverage.
b) Statement coverage is stronger than decision coverage.
c) 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
d) 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
e) Decision coverage can never reach 100%.

Answer 23

See syllabus chapter 4.3.3: Achieving 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% statement
coverage (but not vice versa).
Thus
a) Correct – The statement is true.
b) Not correct – The statement is false.
c) Not correct– The statement is false.
d) Correct – The statement is true.
e) Not correct – The statement is false.

Question 24

Which of the following situations is NOT suited for using exploratory testing?

a) When there is time pressure, and/or the requirements are incomplete or inapplicable
b) When the system is developed and tested incrementally.
c) When only new and inexperienced testers are available.
d) When the main part of the application can be tested only at the customer’s site.

Answer 24

a) Not correct – Syllabus 4.4.2: Exploratory testing is most useful when there are few or
significant time pressure on testing.
b) Not correct – exploratory testing can be used here.
c) Correct – exploratory tests should be performed by experienced testers with
knowledge of similar applications and technologies. The tester needs constantly to
make decisions during exploratory testing, e.g.what to test next.
d) Not correct – exploratory testing can be used at any location.

Question 25

An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down
to zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment.
The categories are: less than or equal to 2 years, more than 2 years but less than 5 years, 5
or more years, but less than 10 years, 10 years or longer.
What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for
calculating the bonus?
a) 3.
b) 5.
c) 2.
d) 4.
Select one option

Answer 25

Justification

a) Not correct – see the correct partitions in d).
b) Not correct – see the correct partitions in d).
c) Not correct – see the correct partitions in d).
d) Correct – Partions as below:
1. equivalence partition: 0 < employment time ≤ 2.
2. equivalence partition: 2 < employment time < 5.
3. equivalence partition: 5 ≤ employment time < 10.
4. equivalence partition: 10 ≤ employment time.

Question 26

A speed control and reporting system has the following characteristics:
If you drive 50 km/h or less, nothing will happen.
If you drive faster than 50 km/h, but 55 km/h or less, you will be warned.
If you drive faster than 55 km/h but not more than 60 km/h, you will be fined.
If you drive faster than 60 km/h, your driving license will be suspended.
Which would be the most likely set of values (km/h) identified by two-point boundary value
analysis?
a) 0, 49, 50, 54, 59, 60.
b) 50, 55, 60.
c) 49, 50, 54, 55, 60, 62.
d) 50, 51, 55, 56, 60, 61.
Select one option.

Answer 26

Justification
The following partitions can be identified:
1. – 50 Two-point boundaries 50, 51
2. 51 – 55 Two-point boundaries 50, 51, 55, 56
3. 56 – 60 Two-point boundaries 55, 56, 60, 61
4. 61 – Two-point boundaries 60, 61
Thus:
a) Not correct – Does not include all two-point boundary values. Also includes values not
necessary for two-point boundary value analysis.
b) Not correct – Does not include all two-point boundary values.
c) Not correct – Does not include all two-point boundary values. Also includes values not
necessary for two-point boundary value analysis.
d) Correct – Includes all two-point boundary values

Question 27

A video application has the following requirement:
The application shall allow playing a video on the following display sizes:
1. 640x480.
2. 1280x720.
3. 1600x1200.
4. 1920x1080.
Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the Equivalence Partitioning test
technique to test this requirement?
a) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 1920x1080 (1 test).
b) Verify that the application can play a video on a display of size 640x480 and
1920x1080 (2 tests).
c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the
requirement (4 tests).
d) Verify that the application can play a video on any one of the display sizes in the
requirement (1 test).

Answer 27

Justification
a) Not correct – See c).
b) Not correct – See c).
c) Correct – This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration of discrete
values. Each enumeration value is an Equivalence Class by itself, therefore each will
be tested when using Equivalent Partitioning test technique.
d) Not correct – See c).

Question 28

Which of the following BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test manager and
the tester?
a) The test manager plans testing activities and chooses the standards to be followed,
while the tester chooses the tools and controls to be used.
b) The test manager plans, organizes, and controls the testing activities, while the tester
specifies and executes tests.
c) The test manager plans, monitors, and controls the testing activities, while the tester
designs tests and decides about automation frameworks.
d) The test manager plans and organizes the testing and specifies the test cases, while
the tester prioritizes and executes the tests.

Answer 28

Justification

a) Not correct – Syllabus 5.1.2: The tester uses the tools.
b) Correct – See Syllabus 5.1.2.
c) Not correct – Deciding about automation frameworks is not a tester’s task.
d) Not correct – Test manager does not specify the test cases.

Question 29

Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?

a) Percentage of executed test cases.
b) Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
c) Percentage of planned test cases prepared.
d) Percentage of work done in test case preparation.

Answer 29

Justification
a) Correct Syllabus 5.3.1: Test case execution (e.g. number of test cases run/not run,
and test cases passed/failed).
b) Not correct – Should be monitored during test preparation.
c) Not correct – Should be monitored during test preparation.
d) Not correct – Should be monitored during test preparation

Question 30

Which TWO of the following can affect and be part of test planning?
a) Budget limitations.
b) Test objectives.
c) Test log.
d) Failure rate.
e) Use cases.
Select two options.

Answer 30

Justification
a) Correct – When you are planning the test and there are budget limitations, prioritizing
is needed; what should be tested and what should be omitted.
b) Correct – See syllabus 5.2.1.
c) Not correct – it is a part of test monitoring and control.
d) Not correct – it is a part of test monitoring and control.
e) Not correct – it is a part of test design

Question 31

Which of the following are typical exit criteria from testing?
a) Reliability measures, degree of tester’s independence, and product completeness.
b) Reliability measures, test cost, availability of testable code, time to market, and
product completeness.
c) Reliability measures, test cost, schedule and unresolved defects.
d) Time to market, residual defects, tester qualification, degree of tester independence
and test cost.
Select one option.

Answer 31

Justification
a) Not correct – Degree of tester’s independence does not play a role in exit criteria.
b) Not correct – “Availability of testable code” is an entry criteria.
c) Correct – See Syllabus 5.2.3.
d) Not correct – Degree of tester’s independence as well as tester qualification do not
play a role in exit criteria.

Question 32

Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report?

a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing.
b) Deviations from the test approach.
c) Measurements of actual progress against exit criteria.
d) Evaluation of the quality of the test item.

Answer 32

Justification
a) Correct – This information has been defined earlier in the test project.
b) Not correct – This information is included in a test report; see the Syllabus chapter
5.3.2: Information on what occurred during a test period.
c) Not correct – This information is included in a test report; see Syllabus 5.3.2:
Information and metrics to support recommendations and decisions about future
actions, such as an assessment of defects remaining, the economic benefit of
continued testing, outstanding risks, and the level of confidence in the tested software.
d) Not correct – This information is included in a test report; see Syllabus 5.3.2:
Information and metrics to support recommendations and decisions about future
actions, such as an assessment of defects remaining, the economic benefit of
continued testing, outstanding risks, and the level of confidence in the tested software.

Question 33

There are several test strategies. Which strategy (1-4) is characterized by which description
(A-D) below?
1. Analytical.
2. Methodical.
3. Model-based.
4. Consultative.
A. Tests are based on a state diagram of a required aspect of the product
B. Tests are designed and prioritized based on the level of risk.
C. Systematic use of some predefined set of test conditions.
D. Tests are chosen based on the views of business domain experts.
a) 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C.
b) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B.
c) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A.
d) 1B, 2C, 3A, 4D.

Answer 33

Justification
Analytical: Syllabus 5.2.2, This type of test strategy is based on an analysis of some factor
(e.g. requirement or risk). (1B).
Methodical: Syllabus 5.2.2, In this type of test strategy relies on making systematic use of
some predefined set of tests or test conditions, (2C).
Model-based: Syllabus 5.2.2, In this test strategy, tests are designed based on some model of
some required aspect of the product, … (3A).
Consultative (or Directed): Syllabus 5.2.2, This type of test strategy is driven primarily by the
advice, guidance, or instructions of stakeholders, business domain experts, or technology
experts, who may beoutside the test team or outside the organization itself. (4D).
Thus:
a) Not correct.
b) Not correct.
c) Not correct.
d) Correct.

Question 34

Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test
estimation?
a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project.
b) Overall experience collected in interviews with test managers.
c) Overall estimate agreed with the developers.
d) Average of calculations collected from business experts.

Answer 34

Justification
a) Correct – From Syllabus chapter 5.2.6: The metrics-based approach: estimating the
testing effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical values .
b) Not correct – This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates
made by the owners of the tasks or by experts.
c) Not correct – This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates
made by the owners of the tasks or by experts.
d) Not correct – This is expert-based approach: estimating the tasks based on estimates
made by the owners of the tasks or by experts.

Question 35

You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare
different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e. coffee size, sugar, milk and syrup. The
criteria are as follows:
● Coffee size (small, medium, large),
● Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units),
● Milk (yes or no),
● Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla).
Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:
Title: Low coffee temperature.
Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too
long and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 oC )
Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 oC).
Degree of risk: Medium
Priority: Normal
What valuable information is MOST likely to be omitted in the above defect report?
a) The actual test result.
b) Data identifying the tested coffee machine.
c) Status of the defect.
d) Ideas for improving the test case.

Answer 35

Justification
a) Not correct – the test result is given in the short summary.
b) Correct – when testing different versions of software, identifying information is
necessary. Syllabus 5.6: Identification of the test item (configuration item being tested)
and environment.
c) Not correct – You are just writing the defect report, hence the status is automatically
open.
d) Not correct – This information is useful for the tester, but does not need to be included
in the defect report.

Question 36

Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of using test execution tools?

a) It is easy to create regression tests.
b) It is easy to maintain version control of test assets.
c) It is easy to design tests for security testing.
d) It is easy to run regression tests.

Answer 36

Justification
a) Not correct – The benefits are not when creating regressions tests, more in executing
them.
b) Not correct – This is done by configuration Management tools.
c) Not correct – This needs specialized tools.
d) Correct – Syllabus 6.1.2: Reduction in repetitive manual work (e.g. running regression
tests, environment set up/tear down tasks, re-entering the same test data, and
checking against coding standards), thus saving time.

Question 37

Which test tool is characterized by the classification below?
1. Tool support for management of testing and testware.
2. Tool support for static testing.
3. Tool support for test execution and logging.
4. Tool support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis.
A. Coverage tools.
B. Configuration management tools.
C. Review tools.
D. Monitoring tools.
a) 1A, 2B, 3D, 4C.
b) 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A.
c) 1A, 2C, 3D, 4B.
d) 1B, 2C, 3A, 4D.

Answer 37

Justification
Support for management of testing and testware: Syllabus 6.1.1, Configuration management
tools, (1B).
Support for static testing: Syllabus 6.1.1, Tools that support reviews, (2C).
Support for test execution and logging: Syllabus 6.1.1, Coverage tools, (3A).
Support for performance measurement and dynamic analysis: Syllabus 6.1.1, Performance
testing tools/monitoring tools/dynamic analysis tools, (4D).
Thus:
a) Not correct
b) Not correct
c) Not correct
d) Correct