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2018 ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Exams > Chapter 5 Test Management > Flashcards

Chapter 5 Test Management Flashcards

1
Q

Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test manager and which by the tester?

a. Adapt planning based on test results.
b. Create the detailed test execution schedule
c. Plan tests.
d. Write or review a test strategy

A. c and d by the test Manager; a and b by the tester

B. a and b by the test Manager; c and d by the tester.

C. a and d by the test Manager; b and c by the tester

D. a, c and d by the test Manager; b by the tester.

A

D. a, c and d by the test Manager; b by the tester.

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2
Q

Which of the following is a standard for Test Documentation?

A. IEEE Std. 1028

B. IEEE Std. 1044

C. ISO 9216

D. IEEE Std. 829

A

D. IEEE Std. 829

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3
Q

Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?

A. A metrics-based approach is based on data gathered from previous projects; an expert-based approach uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts

B. A metrics-based approach is based on creating a work-breakdown structure first; an expert-based approach is based on input from estimation experts

C. A metrics-based approach is based on data gathered from previous projects; an expert-based approach is based on a work-breakdown structure

D. A metrics-based approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents; an expert-based approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organization J

A

A. A metrics-based approach is based on data gathered from previous projects; an expert-based approach uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts

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4
Q

Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method

A. Heuristic testing approach

B. Methodical testing approach

C. Model based testing approach

D. Process or standard compliant testing approach

A

C. Model based testing approach

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5
Q

Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress?

i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers

A. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect

B. i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect

C. i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect

D. i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect

A

B. i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect

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6
Q

Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?

A. The name and/or organizational position of the person raising the problem.

B. Version of the Software Under Test.

C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.

D. Actual and expected results.

A

C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?

A. Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.

B. Incidents may be raised against user requirements.

C. Incidents require investigation and/or correction.

D. Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

A

A. Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.

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8
Q

Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and

activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the following best pairs the two sets?

v - Test control 1 - Calculation of required test resources

w - Test monitoring 2 - Maintenance of record of test results

x - Test estimation 3 - Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun

y - Incident management 4 - Report on deviation from test plan

z - Configuration control 5 - Tracking of anomalous test results

A. v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4

B. v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3

C. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2

D. v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

A

C. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2

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9
Q

What determines the level of risk?

A. The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.

B. The probability that an adverse event will occur.

C. The amount of testing planned before release of a system.

D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.

A

D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.

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10
Q

From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?

i. Identifying the version of the software under test
ii. Controlling the version of testware items
iii. Developing new testware items
iv. Tracking changes to testware items
v. Analysing the need for new testware items

A. ii, iv and v

B. ii, iii, and iv

C. i,ii, and iv

D. I, iii, and v

A

C. i,ii, and iv

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11
Q

Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?

A. Number of detected defects, testing cost;

B. Number of residual defects in the test object.

C. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared

D. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

A

D. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed

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12
Q

Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?

A. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the test ware and the test object

B. Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board

C. Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management

D. Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools

A

A. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the test ware and the test object

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13
Q

What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?

A. To specify when to stop the testing activity

B. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs

C. To ensure that the test case specification is complete

D. To know when a specific test has finished its execution

A

A. To specify when to stop the testing activity

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14
Q

Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?

A. As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most effective way to test the project on hand.

B. Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project

C. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles

D. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.

A

C. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles

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15
Q

You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days after the due date. You cannot change the resources (work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take to be able to finish the testing in time.

A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.

B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur

C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing

D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided

A

C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing

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16
Q

A test harness is a:

A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing

B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project

C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test

D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test

A

C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test

17
Q

‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such as:

I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to operate the system and judge correct behavior.

II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?

III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively and efficiently.

IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use?

A. I, II and IV C. I, II, III and IV

B. I, II and III D. II, III and IV.

A

A. I, II and IV C. I, II, III and IV

18
Q

Item transmittal report is also known as:

A. Incident report

B. Release note

C. Review report

D. Audit report

A

B. Release note

19
Q

Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

i. Review and contribute to test plans
ii. Prepare and acquire test data
iii. Automate tests as needed
iv. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing

A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false

C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false

D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect

A

A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false

20
Q

Which of the following is a MAJOR test planning task?

A. Determining the exit criteria

B. Measuring and analyzing results

C. Implementing corrective actions

D. Monitoring and documenting progress

A

A. Determining the exit criteria

21
Q

Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below?

S. Process-compliant approaches

T. Heuristic approaches

U. Consultative approaches

V. Regression-averse approaches

  1. Includes reuse of existing test material
  2. Listens to suggestions from technology experts
  3. Adheres to industry-specific standards
  4. Runs test execution and evaluation concurrently
    a. S4, T3, U2, V1
    b. S1, T2, U3, V4
    c. S2, T3, U1, V4
    d. S3, T4, U2, V1
A

d. S3, T4, U2, V1

22
Q

Consider the following statements:

i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test

A. ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false

B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false

C. i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false

D. i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false

A

B. i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false

23
Q

Which is a potential product risk factor?

A. Failure of third-party vendor

B. Training issues

C. Problems requirements definition

D. Poor software functionality

A

D. Poor software functionality

24
Q

Which of the following demonstrates independence in testing?

J. Independent testers are external to the organization

K. Independent testers are part of the development team.

L. Independent testers are from user community

M. Programmers who wrote the code serve as independent testers.

N. Customers who wrote the requirements serve as independent testers

a. J, L, and N
b. J,K,L, and N
c. K,M and N
d. J,L,M, and N

A

b. J,K,L, and N

25
Q

Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester?

a. Reviewing tests developed by others
b. Writing a test strategy for the project
c. Deciding what should be automated.
d. Writing test summary reports

A

a. Reviewing tests developed by others

26
Q

In software testing, what is the MAIN purpose of exit criteria?

a. to enhance the security of the system.
b. to prevent endless loops in codes
c. to serve as an alternative or “Plan B”
d. to define when to stop testing

A

d. to define when to stop testing

27
Q

Which test approaches or strategies are characterized by the descriptions below? (k2)

s. Analytical approaches
t. Model-based approaches
u. Methodical approaches
v. Consultative approaches
1. Relies on guidelines from domain experts
2. Includes error guessing and fault-attacks
3. Uses statistical information about failure rates
4. Focuses on areas of greatest risk
a. S4,T3,U2,V1
b. S1,T2,U3,V4
c. S2,T3,U1,V4
d. S3,T4,U2,V1

A

a. S4,T3,U2,V1

28
Q

Which of the following can be used to measure progress against the exit criteria?

w. Number of test cases that passed or failed
x. Number of defects found in a unit of code
y. Dates from milestones and deliverables
z. Subjective confidence of testers in the product
a. w,x,y, and z
b. w,x, and y
c. w and x
d. w,x, and z

A

a. w,x,y, and z

29
Q

What type of risk includes potential failure areas in the software?

a. project risks
b. product risks
c. economic risks
d. requirements risks

A

b. product risks

30
Q

Based on the IEEE Standard for Software Test Documentation (IEEE Std 829-1998), in which sections of test incident report should the following items be recorded?

Section

a. Test incident report identifier
b. Summary
c. Incident description
d. Impact

e.

Items

  1. Unique identifier
  2. Version level of the test items
  3. inputs
  4. expected results
  5. Actual results
  6. anomalies
  7. date and time
    a. a:1; b:2 and 7;c: 3,4, and 5; d:6
    b. a:1; b: 6 and 7;c: 3,4, and 5; d:7
    c. a:1 b:2;c:3,4,5,6, and 7
    d. a:1; b:6 and 7;c:3,4, and 5
A

c. a:1 b:2;c:3,4,5,6, and 7

31
Q

Dynamic and __________ approaches, such as exploratory testing were testing is more reactive to events than pre-planned, and where execution and evaluation are concurrent tasks.

a. Consultative
b. Regression-averse
c. Analytical
d. Heuristic

A

d. Heuristic

32
Q

Which of the following are potential drawbacks of independence in testing? (K2)

  1. Independent testers may feel they are not part of the development in testing? (K2)
  2. Developers may lose a sense of personal responsibility for quality
  3. Project managers will not have as much control over the project
  4. Customers may end up requesting features that are technically impossible.

A. 01 and 02

B. 01, 02, and 03

C. 03 and 04

D. 01,02,03, and 04

A

A. 01 and 02

33
Q

Which tasks are performed by a test Manager versus a tester? (K3)

s. Writing a project test strategy
t. Selecting tools to support testing
u. Preparing and acquiring data
v. Scheduling tests
a. Test Manager: s and v; Tester: t and u
b. Test Manager: s,t, and v; Tester: u
c. Test Manager: s, u, and v; Tester :t
d. Test Manager: s; Tester: t,u,and v

A

b. Test Manager: s,t, and v; Tester: u

34
Q

Which document specifies the sequence of test executions? (K1)

a. Test procedure specification
b. Test design specification
c. Test case specification
d. Test plan

A

a. Test procedure specification

35
Q

Stochastic testing is an example of which test approach or strategy? (K1)

a. Model-based
b. Analytical
c. Methodical
d. Heuristic

A

a. Model-based

36
Q

Which sections are included as part of the test summary report?

w. Variances
x. Comprehensive assessment
y. Evaluation
z. Summary of activities
a. w, x, and y
b. w,x,y, and z
c. w and x
d. w,x, and z

A

b. w,x,y, and z

37
Q

The role of test Manager cannot be performed by:

a. Project manager
b. Configuration manager
c. Development manager
d. QA manager
e. Manager of test group

A

b. Configuration manager

2018 ISTQB Foundation Level Mock Exams (12 decks)

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