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SAM 4 past questions > SAM 4 surgery past question > Flashcards

SAM 4 surgery past question Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following features defines the suture materials drainage ability

a. Monofilament vs multifilament
b. Tensile strength
c. Knot security
d. Absorption

A

a. Monofilament vs multifilament

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2
Q

. Which statement is correct regarding intra-and postoperative hypothermia

a. Decreased anesthetic demand
b. Doxopram is the drug of choice in case of hypothermia
c. Is mostly due to the use of opioids
d. Increases the oxygen demand of the central nervous system

A

a. Decreased anesthetic demand

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3
Q

Which statement is correct concerning the maintenance phase of anesthesia
a. General anesthesia may be maintained by either inhalant or injectable agents;
combinations for maintenance are contraindicated
b. In the maintenance phase of anesthesia, application of 100 ml/bwkg/h
crystalloid infusion is recommended to maintain normovolemia and
normotension
c. The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anesthesia using
the lowest sufficient dose of anesthetics
d. The main duties of the anesthetist are monitoring of the patient,
maintenance of homeostasis, fine adjustment of the depth of anesthesia and
preservation of vagotonia

A

c. The goal is to maintain the “surgical tolerance” depth of anesthesia using
the lowest sufficient dose of anesthetics

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4
Q

What is the normal value of the Norberg angle in healthy dogs

A

a. Higher than 105 degrees

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5
Q

Which of the following items is member of the mixing part of the anesthesia machine

a. Y-piece
b. Soda lime canister
c. Flowmeter
d. Breathing tubes

A

c. Flowmeter

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6
Q

Which statement is correct

a. Acids can cause coagulation necrosis
b. Alkalines can cause colliquation necrosis
c. Both
d. None

A

c. Both

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7
Q

What is the number of permanent teeth in dogs

A

42

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8
Q

. Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thinnest suture materia

A

4-0

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9
Q

. What statement is correct regarding the imaging of spinal cord compression (SCC)

a. Disc calcification indicated SCC
b. A survey radiograph is generally enough to diagnose SCC
c. SCC can be caused exclusively by the intervertebral disc
d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

A

d. Myelography is useful tool in the diagnostics of SCC

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10
Q

Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable

a. Polypropylene
b. Polydioxanone
c. Both
d. None

A

. Polypropylene

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11
Q

. The proper name of the “oxspring” view for the examination of the navicular bone is

A

a. Dorsoproximal-palmarodistal oblique view

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12
Q

Which of the following parameters decreases in DIC

A

Fibrinogen

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13
Q

Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable

a. Polypropylene
b. Polyamide
c. Both
d. None

A

. Both

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14
Q 
Which of the following features makes polypropylene the most popular 
cardiovascular suture material
a. Monofilament features
b. Good tensile strength
c. Good knot security
d. Unique thrombophob feature
A

b. Good tensile strength

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15
Q
  1. What does “2-Metric” mean on a suture material pack
A

a. The suture material is 0.2 mm of diameter

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16
Q

Current concepts of pain management/analgesia is
a. Presumptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites of
action)
b. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites
of action)
c. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multilocal (acting at several different sites of
action)
d. Of higher importance in adults than in pediatric patients

A

b. Preemptive (prophylactic) and multimodal (acting at several different sites
of action)

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17
Q

What is Spongostan

A

Gelatin sponge

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18
Q

W

A

N

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19
Q

. Which statement is not correct regarding the tracheal collapse

a. The entire trachea is affected
b. The radiographic appearance is influenced by the respiratory phase
c. Its cause is the weakening of the cartilage
d. Mostly small breed dogs are affected

A

The entire trachea is affected

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20
Q

Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the pediatric patient

A

a. The vegetative innervation of the heart and the vasomotor function is
immature

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21
Q

Which statement is correct
a. Clean soft tissue procedures require broad spectrum antibiotic treatment
preoperatively
b. Clean soft tissue procedures require first generation cephalosporins
preoperatively
c. Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis
d. In clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures, amoxicillin treatment is the
therapy of choice

A

c. Clean-contaminated soft tissue procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis

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22
Q

W

A

H

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23
Q

Which one is opioid antagonist

A

Naloxon

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24
Q

Phases of wound healing are

A

a. Acute inflammation, resorption, proliferation, remodeling

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25
Q

. The proper name of the “skyline” or the examination of the navicular bone is

A

Palmaroprox-palmarodistal oblique view

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26
Q

Which of the followings is the main “shock organ” of the horse and the cat

A

a. Lung

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27
Q

Which statement is correct regarding dentine in dog

a. It is capable of repair in living tooth
b. Dentine layer is thickening towards enamel during production
c. It comprises more than 98% inorganic elements (false)
d. It is continuously narrowing during aging

A

. It is capable of repair in living tooth

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28
Q

Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated leading to
acute symptoms in case of perineal hernia
a. Urinary bladder
b. Small intestines
c. Large intestines
d. Uterus

A

a. Urinary bladder

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29
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect? An active drain

a. Is not recommended as flushing drain (it is used as flushing drain)
b. Can be open suction-drain
c. Can be closed suction-drain
d. Is used as flushing drain

A

a. Is not recommended as flushing drain (it is used as flushing drain)

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30
Q

What does “epulis” mean

A

Benign fibromatous mass on the gingiva

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31
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding salivary mucocele

A

. It´s one of the effective treatments is puncture and content removal from
the cyst

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32
Q

According to Vasanjee et al Vet Surg paper (2006), which of the following liver biopsy
techniques caused remarkable colleteral tissue damage

A

Laparoscopic “pinch” biopsy

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33
Q

. Which of the following statements is correct? The injuries of the tongue

a. Are not be operated on
b. Mostly heal with complications
c. Mostly approximated with metal clips or sutures
d. Always be regarded as contaminated?

A

Always be regarded as contaminated?

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34
Q

. Which of the following conditions does not cause hydronephrosis

a. Ureteral torsion
b. Ureteral stricture associated with previous surgery
c. Ureteral tumor
d. Ureterolithiasis

A

. Ureteral torsion

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35
Q

J

A

H

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36
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning gastric foreign body
a. The success rate of the gastroscopic foreign body removal can be as high as
95%
b. The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure
c. Gastric foreign body may cause perforation
d. Oral feeding can be started 4-6 hours after gastrotomy

A

The gastrotomy is a contaminated/septic procedure

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37
Q

W

A

L

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38
Q

.I

A

H

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39
Q 
Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of diaphragmatic 
hernia repair
a. Laparotomy 
b. Lateral thoracotomy
c. Laparotomy + lateral thoracotomy
d. Sternotomy
A

a. Laparotomy

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40
Q

.I

A

c.

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41
Q

. Which of the following suture materials is absorbable

a. None
b. Both
c. Polypropylene
d. Polyamide

A

a. None

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42
Q

Which of the following signs has the strongest diagnostic value in intestinal
intussusception
a. Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section
b. Positive contrast abdominal GI radiography
c. Lack of feces
d. Vomiting

A

a. Palpation of the invaginated intestinal section

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43
Q

Which statement is correct

a. Glucocorticoids specifically inhibit the cyclo-oxygenase (COX) enzyme
b. Non-steroids (NSAID´s) inhibit the production of leukotrienes
c. NSAID´s inhibit phospholipase A2 (false)
d. Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

A

d. Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of inflammatory prostaglandins

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44
Q

. Which statement is correct concerning endotracheal tube

A

Not only aspiration may be prevented by using endotracheal tubes, but it
also allows for connection to the anesthesia machine by the Y-piece and
mechanical ventilation

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45
Q

. Which of the followings is indicated in case of unilateral hydronephrosis

a. Partial nephrectomy
b. Unilateral nephroureterectomy
c. Kidney-drainage
d. Euthanasia

A

b. Unilateral néphroureterectomy

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46
Q

. Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic dogs

A

Ventral rhinotomy (due to lack of space dorsally)

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47
Q

Which of the following arteries does not directly contribute to splenic blood supply

a. Left gastric
b. Left gasteoepiploic
c. Short gastric
d. Splenic

A

a. Left gastric

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48
Q

I

A

b

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49
Q 
Which of the following diseases cannot cause hindlimb lameness in skeletally 
immature dogs
a. Panosteitis 
b. Perthes disease
c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy
d. Achilles tendineopathy
A

c. Biceps tendon insertion tendineopathy

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50
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding nephrolithiasis

a. It can occur bilaterally
b. It can lead to ureterolithiasis
c. It can be caused by congenital disorder
d. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

A

d. Dalmatians always form urate uroliths

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51
Q 
Which sign of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2 is 
less than 60mmHg)
a. Dyspnoe
b. Cyanosis
c. Hyperventilation
d. Labial breathing
A

b. Cyanosis

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52
Q

Which anal zone involves circumanal hepatoid glands

a. Zona cutanea
b. Linea anorectalis
c. Zona intermedia
d. Zona columnaris

A

a. Zona cutanea

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53
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning prostate US

a. It can detect fluid accumulation within the organ
b. It can detect parenchymal hypertrophy
c. It can differentiate cyst from abscess?
d. It provides possibility of core biopsy

A

c. It can differentiate cyst from abscess?

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54
Q
  1. Which of the following nerves is mostly prone to iatrogenic injury during TECA + LBO procedure
A

a. Auriculopalpebral branch of facial nerve

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55
Q

. Shockwave therapy is a useful method in the treatment of

a. Septic inflammation of the carpal sheat
b. Tendinitis of the superficial flexor tendon
c. Septic synovitis of the digital flexor tendon sheat
d. Septic bursitis

A

b. Tendinitis of the superficial flexor tendon

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56
Q

. Which of the following diagnostic tools is the next to be chosen in case of uncertain
radiographic findings in suspected diaphragmatic hernia
a. Thoracocentesis
b. Abdominocentesis
c. Ultrasonography
d. Respiratory endoscopy

A

c. Ultrasonography

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57
Q

. Intramedullary pinning is not good for

a. Treatment of Achilles tendon fracture
b. Femoral fracture treatment in cats
c. Fixing calcaneal fractures
d. Treatment of avulsion fractures

A

a. Treatment of Achilles tendon fracture

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58
Q

. Which type of small intestinal obstruction has usually the poorest prognosis

A

. Mesenteric torsion

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59
Q

Which is not correct regarding pelvic fractures

a. It is an absolute indication for surgical treatment?
b. It can be resulted by major trauma
c. Commonly combined with urinary tract injury
d. It could be associated with pneumothorax

A

a. It is an absolute indication for surgical treatment?

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60
Q

Which of the following protocols is to be followed in case of acute obstruction form
of Feline lower urinary tract disease
a. Stabilization + perirenal urethrostomy (if unsuccessful catheterization)
b. Stabilization + cystocentesis
c. Stabilization + urinary bladder expression (not)
d. Stabilization + urethral catheterization

A

d. Stabilization + urethral catheterization

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61
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Gastric Dilatation and
Volvulus (GDV)
a. GDV starts right after the last feeding
b. The GDV may be caused by dietary disorders
c. There is also a chronic form of GDV
d. GDV is usually of acute onset

A

a. GDV starts right after the last feeding

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62
Q 
Which of the following suture materials is not recommended for cystotomy wound 
closure (Greenberg, Am J Vets Res, 2004)
a. PDS
b. Polyglyconate
c. Glycomer
d. Polyglecaprone
A

d. Polyglecaprone

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63
Q

Which of the followings is the most informative one for diagnosing ectopic ureter

a. Cystoscopy
b. Double contrast cystography
c. Intravenous urography + pneumocystography
d. Urinary scintigraphy (TcO4-)

A

c. Intravenous urography + pneumocystography

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64
Q

What does “sceletonisation” mean
a. Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply on the intestinal section to be
resected
b. V-shaped excision of the mesentery
c. Excision of the affected intestinal section
d. Suturing of the V-shaped mesenteric defect

A

a. Cessation of the mesenterial blood supply on the intestinal section to be
resected

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65
Q

How many lung lobes has the dog

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

A

b. 6

Cats have 7

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66
Q

J

A

b.

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67
Q 
Which of the following procedures is not recommended for surgical resolution of 
prostatic cysts
a. Marsupalisation
b. Omentalisation
c. Drainage
d. Puncture
A

d. Puncture

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68
Q

. The material of Cerclage can be

a. Kirschner wire
b. Absorbable suture
c. Non-absorbable suture
d. Fishing line

A

b. Absorbable suture

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69
Q

What is the advantage of scrotal uretrostomy

a. Castratio can prevent urinary incontinence
b. The perineal urethrostomy can be avoided
c. Early dissectable urethral section, wider and safer stroma?
d. The cystotomy can be avoided

A

c. Early dissectable urethral section, wider and safer stroma?

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70
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning acute abdominal catastrophe
a. The diagnosis of acute abdomen is sufficient for surgical indication?
b. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for
surgical indication
c. It definitely requires emergency care
d. It is caused by morphological and/ or functional disorders of abdominal
organ(s)

A

b. The precise diagnosis of particular organ dysfunctions is necessary for
surgical indication

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71
Q

What does Einschuss phlegmone mean

a. Septic inflammation in the subcutis of the front limbs
b. Septic inflammation in the subcutis of the hind limbs?
c. Aseptic inflammation in the subcutis of the front limbs
d. Aseptic inflammation in the subcutis of the hind limbs

A

b. Septic inflammation in the subcutis of the hind limbs?

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72
Q

Which of the followings mostly contributes to the successful revision of postoperative ligature-fistulation

a. Drainage
b. Curettage
c. Removal of the suture material
d. Disinfecting lavage of the wound base?

A

Disinfecting lavage of the wound base?

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73
Q

. Which of the following breeds is usually not affected by ectopic ureter?

a. German shepherd
b. Labrador
c. Husky
d. West highland terrier

A

a. German shepherd

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74
Q

. Which of the diagnostic findings indicates the diagnosis of urinary bladder rupture
a. If the cystourethral catheterization cannot harvest urine in a traumatized
patient
b. If the urine is bloody obtained via cystourethral catheterization in a
traumatized patients
c. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive anterograde cystography
d. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

A

d. If the contrast leakage is confirmed by positive retrograde cystography

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75
Q

Which statement is incorrect concerning diaphragmatic hernias
a. They take 5 to 10 % of diaphragmatic hernias?
b. Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms: axial and para-esophageal
c. The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited (true)
d. The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of
septum transversum (true)

A

a. They take 5 to 10 % of diaphragmatic hernias?

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76
Q

Which statement is correct concerning inguinal hernia
a. In direct hernia: the small intestines escape to the subcutaneous space of the
scrotum
b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one
c. Both
d. None

A

b. The indirect inguinal hernia is more common than the direct one

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77
Q

Ideal therapy in case of a joint injury is

a. Joint lavage within 6 hours
b. Joint lavage within 10 hours
c. Joint lavage within 10 hours
d. Joint lavage within 10 hours

A

a. Joint lavage within 6 hours

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78
Q

Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy

a. Dorsal latissimus m
b. Dorsal serratus m
c. Ventral serratus m
d. M.cutaneus trunc

A

d. M.cutaneus trunci

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79
Q

Which of the following nerves is mostly prone to iatrogenic injury during ventral bulla
osteotomy (VBO) procedure

A

a. Hypoglossal nerve

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80
Q

In which case the conservative fracture treatment is not contraindicated

a. Intraarticular fracture
b. Salter-harris fracture
c. Oblique fracture
d. Fracture with massive dislocation

A

c. Oblique fracture

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81
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is not recommended for cystotomy wound
closure

A

Double layer (penetrating + Lambert) suture

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82
Q

Which of the following statements is correct? Penrose drain is

a. A tube drain
b. Made of latex
c. A multi-lumen drain
d. Mostly used s active drain

A

. A tube drain

And it is made out of latex so idk

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83
Q

Which of the following decisions is correct in case of disuse gastric necrosis during
GDV surgery
a. Billroth I gastroduodenostomy
b. Partial gastrotomy
c. Euthanasia (because its diffuse necrosis)
d. Resorption and gastroplexy

A

Euthanasia (because its diffuse necrosis

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84
Q

Which of the following uroliths is surely radiodense

a. Struvite
b. Calcium-oxalate
c. Ammonium-urate
d. Cystine

A

b. Calcium-oxalate

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85
Q

Which of the following brachycephalic disorders is not surgically curable

A

a. Tracheal hypoplasia

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86
Q

Which of the following statement is correct? A passive drain

a. Is always a single exit drain?
b. Can only be used as double exit drain
c. Is mostly used for flushing
d. Is more effective with a compression bandage on it

A

a. Is always a single exit drain?

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3
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5
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87
Q

Which statement is correct

a. The overexposed area is dark in the digital x-ray image
b. The overexposed area is “noisy” in the digital x-ray image
c. It is easy to overexpose digital radiographs
d. Overexposure looks the same on both digital and analogue radiographs

A

b. The overexposed area is “noisy” in the digital x-ray image

I think I’m not sure

88
Q

Which statement is correct concerning pain
a. During hypnosis there is no conscious perception of pain, therefore analgesia
is only required pre-, and postoperatively
b. Stress and fear have no effect on subjective pain sensation
c. Of several concurrent noxious stimuli, the most intensive one is perceived
d. There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and
the intensity of pain experience by the patient

A

d. There is no linear correlation between the physical extent of damage, and
the intensity of pain experience by the patient

89
Q

. Which one is opioid antagonist

A

a. Naloxon

90
Q

Which statement is correct

a. The direct effect of the bullet is the traumatic shock
b. Injuries caused by gun shots regenerate if the bullet only hits the muscle
c. Both
d. None

A

. None?

91
Q

hich statement is correct regarding electricity caused injuries

a. It is always lethal above 50 mA
b. It is always lethal above 100 mA
c. Both
d. None

A

It is always lethal above 100 mA

92
Q

. Which statement is correct

a. The fast healing is typical of contused wounds
b. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds
c. The traumatic shock is not common in contused wounds
d. The anerobic wound infection is rare in contused wounds

A

b. The tissue damage is extensive in contused wounds

93
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anesthesia of patients with liver dysfunction
a. Diazepam is the choice of drug in a patient with hepatic disease, instead of
midazolam
b. Phencyclidines (e.g. ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic
encephalopathy
c. Isoflurane and sevoflurane significantly affects hepatic function
d. Administration of colloid solutions in case of hypoalbuminemia is risky

A

b. Phencyclidines (e.g. ketamine) may induce a bout of hepatic
encephalopathy

94
Q

Which therapy has of primary importance in case of cranial injury

a. Analgesia
b. Anti-convulsion therapy
c. Intracranial pressure decrease
d. Artificial hypothermia

A

c. Intracranial pressure decrease

95
Q

Which of the following does not represent an increased risk of infection of surgical
infection
a. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure
b. Prolonged hospitalization
c. Obesity
d. Prolonged procedure time

A

a. Antimicrobial prophylaxis for a previous surgical procedure

96
Q

Which of the following categories is correct according to the wound edge
approximation
a. Skin-intradermal-subcutaneus-muscular-fascial
b. Interrupted vs continuous
c. Appositional-inverting-tension relieving?
d. Simple-matress-cruciate

A

c. Appositional-inverting-tension relieving?

I think it’s A

97
Q

Which is not a type of periosteal reaction

a. Lamellar
b. Columnar
c. Sunburst-like
d. Medullar

A

d. Medullar

98
Q

Which of the following USP numbers indicate the thickest suture material

a. 0
b. 2-0
c. 2
d. 3-0

A

c. 2

99
Q

. Which location is not typical of OCD in dogs

a. Tarsus
b. Carpus (elbow that is typically affected)
c. Shoulder
d. Stifle

A

b. Carpus (elbow that is typically affected)

100
Q

Which of the following instruments is not the member of the abdominal
instrumentation set
a. Balfour self retraining retractor
b. Doyen clamp
c. Finochietto self retaining retractor (used in thoracic operation)
d. Atraumatic tissue forceps

A

c. Finochietto self retaining retractor (used in thoracic operation)

101
Q

Which non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) is highly toxic to cats

A

Paracetamol (acetaminophen)

102
Q

Which of the following disorder is the most urgent to be acutely solved

a. External venous bleeding
b. Upper airway obstruction
c. Spinal fracture
d. Open extremity fracture

A

b. Upper airway obstruction

103
Q

. W

A

H

104
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anesthesiologic considerations of
hypothyreoidism
a. Due to thermoregulatory imbalance hyperthermia occurs
b. The overall metabolic rate is decreased, drug metabolism is slower, therefore
the “vulnerability” of the patient to anesthesia is lower
c. Myocardial contractibility is decreased, tachycardia is present
d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

A

d. Obesity results in a limited range of motion of the diaphragm

105
Q

Which local anesthetic technique is the safest from the patient´s aspect

a. Infiltrational
b. Epidural
c. Intrathecal
d. Paravertebral

A

a. Infiltrationa

106
Q

. Which color is typical for compensatory stage of shock

a. Pale
b. Cyanotic
c. Dirty red
d. Bright red

A

d. Bright red

107
Q

Which procedure is a definite indication for preoperative administration of an
antibiotic
a. Splenectomy
b. Small intestine biopsy
c. Ovariectomy
d. Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament
replacement material

A

d. Removal of previously implanted, infected and fistulating ligament
replacement material

108
Q

. Which statement is correct concerning tendon injuries

a. One or two % overextension of the tendons causes partial rupture
b. Three or four % overextension of the tendons causes total rupture
c. More than 5-6% overextension of the tendons causes total rupture
d. None

A

c. More than 5-6% overextension of the tendons causes total rupture

109
Q

Which of the following factors does not effect the success of feline perineal
urethrostmy
a. Mucocutaneous approximation of the stroma
b. Transection of bulbospongious muscle
c. Transection of ischiocavernous muscle
d. Type of the suture material

A

c. Transection of ischiocavernous muscle

110
Q

The intramedullary pinning technique is not good to fix midshaft fracture of the

a. Radius
b. Tibia
c. Humerus
d. Metacarpus

A

a. Radius

111
Q 
. Which of the following tools/findings is of lowest diagnostic value in the diagnosis of 
urinary bladder tumors
a. Double contrast cystography
b. Ultrasonography 
c. Urine sediment analysis/cytology 
d. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria
A

d. Therapy-irresponsive hematuria

112
Q

Which of the following clinical findings is not member of the diagnostic triad defining
the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?
a. Skin defect on the thoracic wall
b. Status of the thoracic wall
c. Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
d. ARD

A

b. Status of the thoracic wall

113
Q

Which is the appropriate diagnostic/therapeutic protocol in GDV

A

Stabilization and gastrocentesis-adequate narcosis-orogastric tubation and
gastric lavage-surgery

114
Q

According to Shamir et al (JSAP, 2002), which of the following features is incorrect
concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma
a. Male
b. Bite wound
c. Bodyweight is less than 10kg
d. Bodyweight is less than 20kg

A

d. Bodyweight is less than 20kg

115
Q

What is the sequester

a. Connective tissue surrounded cavity filled with pus
b. Natural body cavity filled with pus
c. Necrotized, demarcated area in the bone
d. Vital, demarcated area in the bone

A

c. Necrotized, demarcated area in the bone

116
Q

. Which is necessary for bone healing

a. Antibiotic treatment
b. NSAID treatment
c. Good bloody supply
d. Fluid therapy

A

c. Good bloody supply

117
Q

Which statement is correct? The locking plate has no

a. Special oval shaped holes; interfragmental compression
b. Ability for stable fixation
c. Ability for temporary joint immobilization
d. Potential for treating hip luxation

A

a. Special oval shaped holes; interfragmental compression

118
Q

. Which of the following methods is to be chosen as first in case of foreign body
caused caudal thoracic (prediaphragmatic) esophageal obstruction
a. Pushing down the foreign body into the stomach via orogastric tubation
b. Endoscopic removal
c. Laparotomy + gastrotomy + transluminal foreign body removal
d. Thoracotomy + esophagotomy

A

b. Endoscopic removal

119
Q

. Which statement is correct? In case of renal traumatic bleeding
a. The abdominocentesis is always positive (blood)
b. The plain abdominal radiography is usually pathognomonic
c. Retroperitoneal blood loss may even lead to exsanguination
d. Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually does not lead to life
threatening circulatory changes?

A

Retroperitoneal blood loss may occur but usually does not lead to life
threatening circulatory changes?

I think it’s C but not sure

120
Q

. Which statement is correct regarding extracapsular fixation method in cranial
cruciate ligament repair
a. The suture material is non-absorbable
b. The fixation of Vesalius bones is essential
c. Precise tibial osteotomy is done
d. The suture material is placed outside the join

A

a. The suture material is non-absorbable

121
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding linear foreign body caused small intestinal
obstruction
a. It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy
b. It usually requires multiple GI incisors
c. Iatrogenic perforation might be caused
d. Multiple GI incisions do not increase septic risk compared to single GI opening

A

a. It may be corrected via only one gastrotomy

122
Q

The recommended fluid to lavage a joint is

a. Sterile, isotonic infusion solution
b. Sterile, hypertonic infusion solution
c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution
d. Sterile, hypertonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution

A

c. Sterile, isotonic 1% povidone-iodine (Betadine) solution

123
Q

Which of the following causes is not primary in the etiology of external otitis in dogs

a. Bacteria
b. Paracite
c. Grass awn
d. Atopia

A

a. Bacteria

124
Q 
. Which of the following organs is most commonly displaced/incarcerated in case of 
scrotal hernia
a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Uterus
d. Urinary bladder
A

a. Small intestine

125
Q

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in
feline otitis media

A

. Ventral bulla osteotomy

126
Q 
. Which of the following diagnostic methods is the most reliable one to assess bone 
involvement of oral tumors
a. Radiography 
b. Fine needle aspiration biopsy
c. Computed tomography
d. Ultrasonography
A

a. Radiography

127
Q

K

A

Y

128
Q 
Which of the following decisions is correct in case of fundus necrosis during GDV 
surgery
a. Billroth 1 gastroduodenostomy 
b. Partial gastrectomy 
c. Euthanasia
d. Resorption and gastroplexy
A

b. Partial gastrectomy

129
Q

Which of the following procedures is the most effective and appropriate one in
canine otitis externa and media

A

TECA + LBO

130
Q

J

A

K

131
Q

Which is the correct regarding intervertebral disc disease

A

It is generally acute in chondrodystrophic dogs (short legs, long back)

132
Q

Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding incisional hernia

a. It is an atrogenic complication
b. It might be suppurative
c. It can be prevented by Elisabethan collar in all cases?
d. It may be caused by surgical technical error

A

It can be prevented by Elisabethan collar in all cases?

133
Q

I

A

c.

134
Q

Which of the following conditions indicates liver lobectomy

a. Liver abscess
b. Superficial liver rupture
c. Cholelithiasis
d. Diffuse hepatomegaly

A

a. Liver abscess

135
Q

The synovial fluid is determined as septic if

A

The WBC count is more than 40g/L, with mostly neutrophil

136
Q

Which statement is correct

a. Mepivicain is less irritant than lidocaine
b. Bupivacain har longer duration than mepivacaine
c. Bupivacain has approx. 4 hours of duration
d. All of them are correct

A

d. All of them are correct

137
Q

Which statement is correct
a. The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal part
of the major tubercle of the humerus, behind the infraspinatus muscle
insertion
b. The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal
part of the major tubercle of the humerus, in front of infraspinatus muscle
insertion
c. Intraarticular analgesia of the shoulder needs min 40 ml anesthesia solution
d. A and C are correct

A

B. The puncture site of the shoulder joint is between the cranial and caudal
part of the major tubercle of the humerus, in front of infraspinatus muscle
insertion

138
Q

Which statement is correct regarding patellar luxation in dogs

a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line
b. It is always lateral in large breeds
c. It is always traumatic
d. It is mostly caudal

A

a. The anatomical and functional axis of the leg is not in the same line

139
Q

. Which of the following statements is correct? The injuries of the tongue

a. Are not to be operated on
b. Mostly heal with complications
c. Mostly approximated with metal clips or sutures
d. Always to be regarded as contaminated

A

. Always to be regarded as contaminated

140
Q

Which of the following layers is the first to be closed during midline laparotomy

a. Rectus sheet
b. Falciform ligament
c. Peritoneum
d. Peritoneum + rectus abdominis muscle

A

a. Rectus sheet

141
Q

Which of the following metric numbers indicates the thickest suture material

a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

A

d. 3

142
Q

Which statement is correct concerning syringe pumps
a. Syringe pumps are less accurate than infusion pumps regarding continuous
drug dosage
b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h)
are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of
the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h)
c. Conventional infusion lines are suitable for as accurate dosing of drugs as
syringe pumps, by counting drop numbers
d. In case of a power-cut, even modern syringe pumps stops, just like anesthesia
machines

A

b. Parameters required for adequate calculation of the rate of infusion (ml/h)
are body weight (bwkg), drug concentration (mg/ml or %) and the dose of
the drug to be used (mg/bwkg/h)

143
Q

Which statement is correct regarding recovery from anesthesia
a. Extubation is done prior to the return of swallowing and coughing reflexes
b. If aspiration is not a concern, the cuff of the endotracheal tube is better left
inflated on extubation
c. Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued
or antagonists are administered
d. The close observation of the patient is no longer necessary after extubation

A

Takes place when the administration of the anesthetic (s) are discontinued
or antagonists are administered

144
Q

. Which corticosteroid is recommended in the treatment of shoch
a. Methyl-prednisolone Na-succinate
b. Prednisolone Na-succinate
c. Dexamethasone
d. Corticosteroids are not recommended in shock (steroids are NOT
recommended)

A

a. Methyl-prednisolone Na-succinate

145
Q

Which statement is correct regarding acepromazine used in small animals
a. Because of the inhibitory effect on the thermoregulatory center, hypothermia
invariably develops with the usage of acepromazine
b. High doses are recommended, as low doses merely prolong duration of action
c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good
general condition
d. It is anti-arrhythmogenic and anticonvulsive

A

c. It is recommended for young anxious or aggressive patients of a good
general condition

146
Q

Optional drug for preoperative analgesia are

a. Phenotiazines and butyrophenone-derivates
b. Alpha2-antagonist and NMDA-agonist
c. Local anesthetics and muscle relaxants
d. Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist

A

d. Alpha2-agonists and NMDA-antagonist

147
Q

Which activity is to be done first in case of pneumothorax

a. Thoracocentesis
b. Percutaneous chest drainage
c. Oxygenisation
d. Thoracotomy/sternotomy/lobectomy

A

a. Thoracocentesis

I would say Oxygen therapy

148
Q

Which of the following procedures can be used to demonstrate urethral rupture

a. Double contrast cystography
b. Intravenous urography
c. Excretory urethrography
d. Retrograde urethrography

A

d. Retrograde urethrography

149
Q

The increasing sequence of capacity of a vein catheter is

a. Yellow, blue, pink, green
b. Blue, pink, grey, yellow
c. Yellow, pink, blue grey
d. Green, pink, blue, yellow

A

a. Yellow, blue, pink, green

150
Q

. Stadium analgesia

a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness
b. Pupils are dilated to the maximum, and the cornea has lost its turgor
c. Coughing reflex is still present, but endotracheal intubation is possible
d. Gradually decreasing level of immobilisatio

A

a. Is a transitional phase towards the state of complete unconsciousness

151
Q

Polyglactin (Vicryl)

a. Polyglactin (VicrylO)??
b. Polydioxanone (PDSO)
c. Both of them
d. None of them

A

a. Polyglactin (VicrylO)??

152
Q

Barium-sulphate can be used for which of the following procedures

a. Myelography
b. Gastric emptying study
c. Retrograde cystography
d. Arthrography

A

b. Gastric emptying study

153
Q

Which statement is correct regarding anesthesia of patients with renal dysfunction

a. The prevention of intraoperative hypertonia is the primary goal
b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function
c. Ketamine is contraindicated in dogs with kidney dysfunction
d. Fentanyl and NSAID´s are recommended for intraoperative analgesia (not)

A

b. Alpha-2 agonist decrease renal function

154
Q

What statement is correct regarding the GGE (guaiphenesine)

a. It has good analgesic effect
b. It is available for induction alone
c. It doesn’t cause ataxia
d. It is a muscle relaxant

A

d. It is a muscle relaxant

155
Q

General infusion rate in perioperative period in dogs and cats

a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h
b. 10ml/kg/h e.g. 1700-2000 drops/10kg/h
c. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/10kg/h
d. 10ml/kg/h e.g 170-200 drops/kg/min

A

a. 1ml/kg/h e.g. 17-20 drops/kg/h

156
Q

What do we use the grid for in radiography

a. To filter scattered beam
b. To improve image sharpness
c. To reduce radiation exposure of the staff
d. To restrain the animal

A

a. To filter scattered beam

157
Q

Which statement is correct? During nephrotomy

a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein
b. Renal vein is to to be occluded so that the arterial supply remains intact
c. Renal artery is to be occluded so that the venous drainage remains intact
d. The ureter is also occluded

A

a. The kidney is occluded via clamping both the renal artery and vein

158
Q 
Which of the following therapeutic steps is to be taken first after diagnosing urethral 
obturation in a male dog
a. Urethrohydropropulsio
b. Prescrotal urethrostomy 
c. Scrotal urethrostomy 
d. Perineal urethrostomy
A

a. Urethrohydropropulsio

159
Q

J

A

G

160
Q

Which statement is correct regarding screw osteosynthesis

a. Good for humeral condyle fractures
b. Good for tibial oblique fractures
c. Good for antebracial fractures
d. Never good as a sole method

A

. Good for tibial oblique fractures

161
Q

I

A

O

162
Q

J

A

c

163
Q

. Which ligament repair is required in case of patellar luxation

a. Cranial cruciate ligament
b. Patellar straight ligament?
c. Both of them
d. None of them

A

b. Patellar straight ligament?

164
Q

Which statement is correct
a. Compressive spinal injury needs emergency treatment
b. Spinal cord injury has no effect for visceral functions
c. The treatment of patients with spinal cord injury is hopeless
d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal
injury

A

d. Corticosteroid and NSAID treatment is recommended in case of acute spinal
injury

165
Q

Which statement is correct

a. The overexposed area is dark in the digital x-ray image
b. The overexposed area is “noisy” in the digital x-ray image
c. It is easy to overexpose digital radiographs
d. Overexposure looks the same on both digital and analogous radiographs

A

a. The overexposed area is dark in the digital x-ray image?

I think noisy

166
Q

. Locking compression plate is good for

a. Minimizing the stress concentration at the plate hole
b. Septic fractures
c. Temporary joint immobilisation
d. Supporting tendon repair

A

a. Minimizing the stress concentration at the plate hole

167
Q 
. Which diagnostic step/sign is pathognomonic in case of cranial cruciate ligament 
rupture
a. Radiology 
b. Cranial drawer test
c. Gait analysis
d. Historical date
A

b. Cranial drawer test

168
Q 
. Which examination method is not enough alone for diagnosing Cauda Equina 
Compression
a. MRI
b. Plain X-ray
c. CT
d. CT myelography
A

d. CT myelography

Not enough would be plain X-ray no?

169
Q

Which statement is not correct

a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain
b. Haematoma can be the consequence of a contusion
c. The urinary bladder injury can cause bloody urine
d. In case of severe pneumothorax, emergency thoracocentesis is necessary

A

a. The commotion causes irreversible damage in the brain

170
Q

J

A

H

171
Q

In which of the following breeds is the congenital cleft palate common

a. French bulldog
b. German shepherd
c. Yorkshire terrier
d. Hungarian vizsla

A

a. French bulldog

172
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding splenic hemangiosarcoma
(HSA)
a. Tumorous splenectomy is to be regarded as palliative procedure
b. Chemotherapy does not definitely improve the outcome
c. The ruptured status of the tumor at surgery is not a negative prognostic
factor
d. Splenic HSA does not metastatise into the heart

A

c. The ruptured status of the tumor at surgery is not a negative prognostic
factor

173
Q 
Which of the followings is the least effective in German shepherd´s perineal 
fistulation
a. Fistulectomy 
b. Cyclosporine
c. Prednisolone
d. Conservative management?
A

d. Conservative management?

174
Q

. Which oral region is the mostly affected one by oral tumors

a. Soft palate
b. Hard palate
c. Gingiva
d. Tongue

A

c. Gingiva

175
Q

Which statement is correct concerning pulse oxymetry
a. The status of the peripheral circulation has no effect on pulse oxymetry
values
b. Low environmental temperature has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
c. Bilirubinaemia has no effect on pulse oxymetry values
d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values (hypotension has)

A

d. Hypertension has no effect on pulse oxymetry values (hypotension has)

176
Q

Reversible drugs and their antagonists

A

a. Diazepam:flumazenil; fentanyl:naloxone; medetomidine:atipamezole

177
Q

. Which statement is correct concerning preanesthetic assessment
a. Sedation is always recommended, regardless of the general condition of the
patient, in order to reduce further anesthetic doses
b. Following the physical examination of the respiratory, circulatory, renal and
hepatic function, complementary diagnostic measures are taken
c. Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea,
Urea, ALT and AST
d. The enhanced preanesthetic blood test protocol includes complete
hematology panel, coagulation tests, blood gas analysis, electrolyte balance,
blood glucose and urinalysis

A

Recommended “minimum” laboratory parameters are WBC, PCV, TPP, Crea,
Urea, ALT and AST

178
Q

Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature

a. Autoclave (steam)
b. Gamma-beam radiation
c. Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
d. Isopropyl-alcoholic sterolisation

A

a. Autoclave (steam)

179
Q

Which of the following can happen if alpha-2 agonist is injected intraarterially

a. Collapse?
b. Oxytocin-like effect
c. Awakening
d. Ileus

A

a. Collapse?

180
Q

Which statement is correct regarding physiology of the geriatric patients
a. Lung capacity and compliance as well as respiratory rate and volume are
increased
b. The reserve capacity of the cardiopulmonary system in unchanged
c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased
d. GFR and renal urine concentrating capacity are increased

A

c. Functional reserve capacity of the adrenal glands is decreased

181
Q

Which statement is correct

a. The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds (true)
b. The movement of the edges of the incised wound can help the healing
c. Both
d. None

A

a. The tissue damage is minimal associated with incised wounds (true)

182
Q

Which does not belong to the arthrosis signs on the radiograph

a. Perichondral osteophyte formation
b. Irregular subchondral bone
c. Widened joint space?
d. Cortical osteolysis

A

c. Widened joint space?

183
Q

. The columnar periosteal reaction is typical of which disorder

a. Hypertrophic osteopathy
b. Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
c. Nonunion
d. Osteochondrosis dissecans

A

a. Hypertrophic osteopathy

184
Q

W

A

Y

185
Q

. Which of the following breeds is mostly predisposed to Wobbler syndrome

a. Dobermann
b. German shepherd
c. Dachshound
d. Labrador retriever

A

a. Dobermann

186
Q

. Which one is not a postural reaction

a. Hopping
b. Placing
c. Wheelbarrowing
d. Panniculus reflex

A

d. Panniculus reflex

187
Q

I

A

c

188
Q
  1. Which statement is incorrect concerning perianal adenoma
    a. It is uncommon in females
    b. It mostly occurs in males
    c. It mainly originates from circumanal glands
    d. It originates from the anal sac in females
A

d. It originates from the anal sac in females

189
Q

. What is the major difference between midline and incisional gastropexy
a. Midline gastropexy uses seromuscular pattern, whilst incisional operates with
penetrating sutures
b. The technique fix different areas of the stomach?
c. In the framework of incisional gastropexy scarification of the stomach serosa
is done, unlike midline gastropexy
d. Incisional gastropexy has just temporary efficacy

A

The technique fix different areas of the stomach?

190
Q

Which statement is correct regarding ectopic ureter
a. It may cause dysuria
b. In acquired form, the incontinence is recurring
c. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition
episodes
d. The urinary incontinence is always constant

A

c. The urinary incontinence might be combined with normal micturition
episodes

191
Q

J

A

I

192
Q

Which tissue is least sensitive to ionizing radiation

a. Adrenal gland
b. Skin
c. Brain
d. Bone marrow

A

c. Brain

193
Q

Which statement is correct

a. It is preferable to suture the edges of a bite wound
b. The bite wounds usually heal by primary intention
c. Both
d. None

A

d. None

194
Q

Which solution of the most alkalizing effect in the treatment of metabolic acidosis

a. NaCl solution
b. NaHCO3 solution
c. Lactated Ringer´s
d. Acetated Ringer´s

A

b. NaHCO3 solution

195
Q

What is the number of permanent teeth in cats

a. 30
b. 32
c. 40
d. 42

A

a. 30

196
Q

Which statement is correct concerning capnometry
a. The end tidal CO2 (EtCO2) equals to the arterial partial CO2 pressure (PaCO2)
b. PaCO2 is less than EtCO2
c. The physical principle of measurement is HPLC (measurement of absorption)
d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas
mixture

A

d. It is the analysis of the CO2 concentration of the inhaled and exhaled gas
mixture

197
Q

. Which statement is correct

a. Vulnus ruptum is an incised wound
b. The vulnus ruptum is usually a lobed wound
c. Both
d. None

A

d. None
Vulnus: wound
Ruptum: rupture

198
Q

Which one of the followings does not contraindicate the use of NSAIDs

a. Shock
b. Prolonged mucous membrane bleeding time
c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system
d. Active gastro-intestinal ulceration

A

c. Immaturity of the musculoskeletal system

199
Q

Which statement is correct in dental nomenclature

a. Mesial surface faces to the previous tooth in the dental arch
b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch
c. Distal surface faces to the apex
d. Distal surface faces to the crown

A

b. Mesial surface faces to the next tooth in the dental arch

200
Q

. Which of the following radiographic densities look the same

a. Bone and metal opacity
b. Fat and soft tissue opacity
c. Fluid and soft tissue opacity
d. Fluid and fat opacity

A

c. Fluid and soft tissue opacity

201
Q

Which statement is correct

A

a. The formation of bullae are typical of II.degree burning injury

202
Q

Which of the following suture patterns is tension relieving

A

a. Interrupted horizontal mattress

203
Q

I

A

O

204
Q

I

A

I

205
Q

O

A

d.

206
Q

Which disorder resembles the malignant bone tumours in a dog

a. Osteochondrosis dissecans
b. Osteomyelitis
c. Osteoporosis
d. Osteomalacia

A

b. Osteomyelitis

207
Q

Where do we place the aluminium wedge filter during the radiological exam of the
back of the horse
a. between the horse and the cassette
b. between the collimator of the equipment and the horse
c. between the grid and the horse
d. between the grid and the cassette

A

b. between the collimator of the equipment and the horse

208
Q

Which is NOT correct regarding balance anaesthesia

a. recovery is better than at the inhalational anesthesia
b. mortality rate is reduced than at inhalational anesthesia
c. MAC is lower than at inhalational anesthesia
d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

A

d. drug accumulation should be considered in case of a longer surgery

209
Q

Which structure can be seen in a radiograph of a healthy dog

a. joint cartilage
b. subchondral bone
c. periosteum
d. adrenal gland

A

b. subchondral bone

210
Q

. Which statement is correct regarding anaesthetic aspects of hyperadrenocorticism
a. the choice of anesthetic is substantially influenced by the underlying
endocrine changes
b. the actual risk factors are multiorgan changes that result from the primary
condition ( ie hyperadrenocorticism )
c. pathological changes associated with the disease result in safer anaesthesia
d. limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation
necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

A

d. limited range of motion of the diaphragm make mechanical ventilation
necessary in the maintenance phase of anesthesia

211
Q

Which is correct regarding inhalant anaesthetics ?
a. they are flammable and explosive agents
b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp
c. in low doses , they are no threat to the health of the surgical personnel in the
long run (occupational risk)
d. as isoflurane is highly irritative as inhalation , halothane is preferred for mask
induction

A

b. most inhalant anesthetics are liquid at room temp

212
Q

Where is/are the scrotal incision(s) made for castration ?

a. along the line of raphe scroti
b. parallel with raphe scroti -1cm from the midline, 1 incision
c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions
d. parallel with raphe scroti- 5cm from the midline ,2 incisions

A

c. parallel with raphe scroti-1 cm from the midline, 2 incisions

213
Q

Advantages of the light cast are

a. quick application possible - fluid impregnation , not heavy
b. quick application possible-no fluid impregnation, light
c. quick application possible - fluid impregnation , cheap
d. slow application , no fluid impregnation

A

b. quick application possible-no fluid impregnation, light

214
Q

Which fixation method does not have a remodeling phase

a. plate osteosynthesis
b. external fixator frame
c. internal fixator frame
d. intramedullary pinning

A

b. external fixator frame

215
Q
  1. External fixation is good for
    a. septic fractures
    b. temporary joint immobilisation
    c. both
    d. none
A

c. both

216
Q

G

A

d.

SAM 4 past questions (4 decks)

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