Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SAM 4 past questions > SAM 1 past questions > Flashcards

SAM 1 past questions Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
WSET ® Level 4 D2 Business of Wine flashcards
1
Q

 Characteristic of aspiration pneumonia
o Can be caused by megaesophagus and laryngeal dysfunction
o Its prognosis can be influenced by the pH , volume and quality of aspirated
volume
o Glucocorticoid and furosemide are not recommended for treatment
o All above mentioned are true

A

All above mentioned are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
Which of the following reflects the most severe acute respiratory distress (pO2< 60
mmHg )
o Dyspnea
o Cyanosis
o Hyperventilation
o Labial breathing
A

o Cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Characteristic of canine/feline pneumonia
o Usually, a primary disease
o Good general condition, cough
o Its background is usually a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration
o Normal body temperature, good general condition, good appetite

A

Its background is usually a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which statement is incorrect regarding cervical tracheal resection/anastomosis?
o Ventral cervical approach is usually applied
o In adults even the 50% of the tracheal length can be resected
o in immature dogs even the 25% of the tracheal length can be resected
o either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable tor anastomosis

A

o either interrupted or continuous stitches are applicable tor anastomosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following categories is correct according to the approximation of the
wound edge?
o Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial - …
o Interrupted vs. continuous
o Appositional - inverting - tension-relieving …
o simple - mattress - cruciate ligament …

A

Skin - intradermal - subcutaneous - muscular - fascial - …

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which is the following prognostic factors had no impact on the disease free interval
(DFI) in a retrospective study by McNeil al (JAVMA, 1997) analyzing cases with
primary lung tumor removed pulmonary lobectomy?
o the histopathologic grade of the lung tumor
o clinical signs
o regional lymph node metastases
o / - chemotherapy

A

o / - chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

 Characteristic of “reverse sneezing”:
o Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background
o indicates a serious, life- threatening illness
o usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity
o indicates a laryngeal lesion

A

o Nasopharyngeal irritation is presumed in the background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

 Which of the following clinical findings is not a member of the diagnostic triad
defining the absolute indication of surgery in case of thoracic trauma?
o Status of the thoracic wall
o Skin defect on the thoracic wall
o Positive radiological finding of lung contusion
o ARD

A

o Skin defect on the thoracic wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

According to Shamir et al (JSAP, 2002), which of the following features is incorrect
concerning the typical canine population usually suffering from thoracic trauma?
o Male
o bite trauma
o bodyweight <10 kg
o body weight <20 kg

A

o body weight <20 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In which of the following conditions is the rhinotomy not the primarily indicated
therapy?
o nasal foreign body abscess
o nasopharyngeal polyp
o chronic, conservative therapy-resistant rhinitis
o nasal adenocarcinoma

A

o nasal adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
Which muscle / muscles can be used for intramuscular drug application?
o M femoralis
o M. gastrocnemius
o M. semitendinosus / semimembranosus
o Tibialis cranialis muscle
A

o M. semitendinosus / semimembranosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
Which of the following suture materials is absorbable?
o Polypropylene (Prolene (tm))
o Polyamides (Supramid (tm))
o Both of them
o None of them
A

None of them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q 
Which of the following statement is incorrect? An active drain ...
o … is not recommended as flushing drain
o ... can be open suction-drain
o ... can be closed suction-drain
o ... is used as flushing drain
A

o … is not recommended as flushing drain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
Which of the following statement is incorrect? Radon drain ...
o ... is a tube drain
o ... is made of latex
o ... can be used as passive drain
o ... is mostly used as active drain
A

o … is made of latex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Primary Survey. Mark the incorrect answer!
o Determine all organic disorders
o Reveal direct life-threatening conditions
o Check and stabilize circulation and respiration
o Check and stabilize CNS

A

o Determine all organic disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does “3-Metric “mean on a suture material pack?
o The suture material has” grade 3” tensile strength
o The suture material absorption time is 3 months
o The suture material is 0.3 mm of diameter
o The suture material is 0.3 meter (30 cm) long

A

o The suture material is 0.3 mm of diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Characteristic of feline herpes viral rhinitis:
o the vaccinated animals can not be infected
o bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge
o vaccination is not recommended against this disease
o easy to cure

A

o bilateral mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Which of the following sterilization methods operates at the highest temperature?
o Autoclave (steam)
o Gamma-beam radiation
o Ethylene-dioxide sterilization
o Dry heat sterilization
A

o Dry heat sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q 
Which of the following suture materials is non-absorbable?
o Polyglactin (Vicryl (tm))
o Polydioxanones (PDS (tm))
o Both of them
o None of them Submit
A

o None of them Submit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
To perform a complete blood count examination, you need a (n)
o heparinized blood sampling tube.
o EDTA blood sampling tube.
o citrated blood sampling tube.
o NaF blood sampling tube. Submit
A

o EDTA blood sampling tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
Primary assessment of the circulation. Mark the incorrect answer!
o Check for bleeding
o Check mucous membranes and CRT
o Check pulse rate and quality
o Perform ECG and heart US examination
A

Perform ECG and heart US examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
Which of the following USP numbers indicates the thickest suture material?
o 0
o 2-0
o 2
o 3-0
A

o 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In the case of acute epistaxis / nasal bleeding:
o Immediate X-Ray examination is required
o immediate rhinoscopy is required
o as soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are
required
o Nasal foreign body and fungal rhinitis cannot be presumed in the background

A

o as soon as possible hemostasis and coagulation profile laboratory tests are
required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
according to Poncet classification system for BAOS which is the most defining clinical
condition of the grade III category?
o severity of stridor / stertor
o syncope
o duration of clinical signs
o grade III laryngeal collapse
A

o syncope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which finding is incorrect about pneumonectomy cases in the ??pective multicenter
study by Wavreille et al (Vet Surg 201
o primary lung tumors were represented in 52% of the indications
o 76% of dogs and 80% of cats had postoperative respiratory complications
o the acute perioperative (< 24h) mortality was around 10%
o subacute (<2 weeks) postoperative mortality affected 1 dog and 2 cats

A

o the acute perioperative (< 24h) mortality was around 10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which statement is Incorrect regarding midline sternotomy
o it causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral
thoracotomy
o oscillating saw or osteotome is necessary for the approach
o Finachietto rib retractor or Gelpi retractor is applicable
o it is indicated by mediastinal and/or bilateral thoracic conditions

A

o it causes significantly bigger postoperative pain compared to lateral
thoracotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Characteristics of critical care. Mark the incorrect answer!
o The order of examination and therapeutical methods are different than in
non-emergency cases
o Diagnostics and therapy overlap each other in order to gain time
o The examination consists of two phases. primary and secondary survey
o All emergency patients require intensive ward care

A

o All emergency patients require intensive ward care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Choose the correct answer. Colloid infusions
o contain small molecular weight compounds
o in a dosage less than 20ml / kg/day they may induce coagulopathy
o are used to treat dehydration
o are used in hypovolemia combined with crystalloids

A

o are used in hypovolemia combined with crystalloids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The point of maintenance infusion therapy is
o treat dehydration
o replace obligatory fluid losses by an animal with anorexia and hypodipsia
o provide appropriate calorie intake
o giving low potassium containing infusions

A

o replace obligatory fluid losses by an animal with anorexia and hypodipsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Delayed primary closure
o is normally performed on the first day post-trauma
o may be indicated in deep infected puncture wounds
o is usually performed 2 to 5 days after injury
o involves the complete excision of granulation tissue

A

o is usually performed 2 to 5 days after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
What does 'atypical' operation mean?
o one sort of ide-saving surgeries
o One sort of tumor removal procedures
o Specific plastic surgical intervention
o An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition
of the surgeon
A

An individual procedure using the whole knowledge, experience and intuition
of the surgeon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q 
In case of hypovolemia, the first choice of infusion is:
o 5% glucose
o HAES infusion
o Lactated Ringer Solution
o 10% NaCI infusion
A

o Lactated Ringer Solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
which of the following breeds is the congenital laryngeal paralysis common?
o Hungarian vizsla
o Husky
o Greyhound
o Pointer
A

o Husky

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
What is the most frequent complication of CricoArytenoid Lateralization?
o laryngeal collapse
o recurrence
o aspiration
o none of them
A

o aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q 
which of the following features makes polyprolylene the most popular
cardiovascular suture material?
o Monofilament feature (true)
o Good tensile strength (true)
o Good knot security
o Unique thrombophobic feature (true)
A

Monofilament feature

So no sure which to chose I would probably go with the trombophobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q 
Which approach is recommended for nasal opening in brachycephalic breeds?
o Dorsal rhinotomy
o Ventral rhinotomy
o Dorsal rhinotomy sinus trephination
o Ventral rhinotomy sinus trephination
A

o Ventral rhinotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q 
which of the following brachycephalic disorders is not surgically curable?
o Stenotic nares
o Elongated soft palate
o Laryngeal collapse
o Tracheal hypoplasia
A

o Tracheal hypoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis:
o Bronchial pattern on X-Ray
o Mucopurulent discharge in the bronchi during bronchoscopy
o Cytology and microbiology of BAL are required
o All the above mentioned are true

A

o All the above mentioned are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which belong to the core vaccines in dogs?
o parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarths disease
o panleukopenia, parvoviral enteritis, Rubarths-disease
o panleukopenia, distemper ruburths-disease
o leptospirosis, parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarth’s- disease

A

o leptospirosis, parvoviral enteritis, distemper, Rubarth’s- disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q 
How many lung lobes has the dog?
o 5
o 6
o 7
o 8
A

o 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q 
Which arytenoid structure is anchored during CAL?
o processus muscularis
o processus cuneiformis
o processus corniculatus
o none of them
A

o processus muscularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Characteristic of canine chronic bronchitis:
o it is more common in old, large breed dogs
o it is more common in young, small breed dogs
o inspiratory type dyspnoea
o crackles and wheezes with auscultation

A

o crackles and wheezes with auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q 
The concept of moist wound therapy does not include
o surgical debridement
o autolytic debridement
o a wet-to-dry dressing
o a hydrocolloid dressing
A

o surgical debridement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
Which of the following features defines the suture material's drainage ability?
o Monofilament vs. multifilament
o Tensile strength
o Knot security
o Absorption
A

o Tensile strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q 
Which is the uppermost muscle layer to be incised during lateral thoracotomy?
o Dorsal latissimus m.
o Dorsal serratus m.
o Ventral serratus m.
o Cutaneus trunci
A

o Cutaneus trunci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the „golden Period“ in the treatment of fresh traumatic wounds:

A

o 6-8h from injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In the early phases of healing, the most essential white blood cell in wounds are the

A

o Monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

 What characterises the proliferation phase of wound healing

A

Angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Granulation tissue is especially sensitive to

A

Desiccation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Primary wound closure should be avoided in

A

Gunshot and bite wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Delayed primary closure

A

Is usually performed 2-5 days after injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which statement is FALSE?

A

o Wounds are rinsed with large volumes of hydrogene peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The preferred method of debridement in a fresh lacerated wound is:

A

o Surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In case of a wound infection presumably caused by a multiresistant organism:

A

o The patient should be treated in isolation wearing protective clothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

First aid key points:

A

o Haemostasis and prevention of further contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The concept of moist wound treatment is:

A

Obsolete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Select the FALSE answer. A good bandage:

A

o Reduces blood flow to the wound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

o Reduces blood flow to the wound

A

o Calcium alginate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Used as topical wound medication, the metabolism of action is based on
hyperosmolarity:

A

o Sugar & honey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Surgical site infection:

A

o Is caused my multiresistant microorganisms in about 5% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

A layer of a Robert-jones bandage:

A

o Secondary absorbent layer (e.g cotton wool)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Pseudomonas ssp. Grows from a sample from the surface of a wound with healthy
granulation tissue. This is most likely due to:

A

o Contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the most dangerous complication of bandaging?

A

o Distal limb edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The concept of wet wound care
o is obsolete / out of date
o can be used in the vascular phase of wound healing
o is based on the retention/keeping of wound secretions on the wound surface.
o Is only applicable to chronic wounds

A

is obsolete / out of date

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q 
Which of the following sutures is absorbed? 
o Polypropylene (ProleneO) 
o Polyamide (Nylon)
o both 
o neither
A

neither

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q 
During lateral thoracotomy, which is the most superficial muscle layer to be cut? 
o m. latissimus dorsi 
o m. serratus dorsalis 
o m. serratus ventralis 
o m. cutaneus trunci
A

m. cutaneus trunci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q 
What is the appropriate respiration rate for cardiopulmonary resuscitation?
o 6-7 / min 
o 20-30 / min 
o 30-40/min 
o 10-12 / min.
A

o 10-12 / min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q 
How many lung lobes does the dog have?
o 5
o 6
o 7
o 8
A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The concept of wet wound treatment
o is obsolete
o can be used in the maturation phase of wound healing
o is based on the retention of wound secretion on the wound surface.
o It can only be used for chronic wounds.

A

s obsolete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Select the CORRECT answer. The peripheral venous cannula
o not suitable for purchase stroke
o suitable for monitoring of central venous pressure
o not suitable for infusion therapy with colloids
o suitable for re-administration

A

suitable for re-administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q 
Which is not the task of the students in the intensive care unit? 
o Treatment of patients 
o Patient Monitoring 
o Keeping environment clean
o Ownership Consultation
A

Ownership Consultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q 
Which sterilization procedure operates at the highest temperature of the following?
o autoclave 
o gamma radiation 
o ethylene dioxide 
o heat sterilization
A

heat sterilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q 
What drug/ medicine can be given intravenously? 
o Oil injection 
o Vaccine 
o Tissue irritant drugs
o Long-acting antibiotic suspension
A

Tissue irritant drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Select the CORRECT answer. Open-system blood collection
o blood obtained by this method is suitable for blood testing
o suitable for receiving large amounts of blood
o is easy to perform / implement
o no contamination

A

is easy to perform / implement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q 
In the case of paravenous injection,
o the animal's feet swell 
o swelling occurs at the injection site. 
o to resist the beeping down.?? 
o apnea often occurs
A

swelling occurs at the injection site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Characteristic of the foreign body in the nasal cavity:
o in most cases, spontaneously healing rhinitis
o Requires glucocorticoid and antibiotic treatment
o improper treatment/ handling can cause fungal rhinitis
o rhinoscopy can be postponed for months

A

improper treatment/ handling can cause fungal rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which statement is correct?
o There is no valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we take
blood from here.
o There is a valve in the upper opening of the venous cannula, so we cannot
take blood from here.
o There is no valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so no
infusion can be given here
o There is a valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so we can
infuse it here

A

There is a valve in the opening at the end of the venous cannula, so we can
infuse it here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Deferred primary closure
o can usually be performed on the first day after the injury.
o performed on deep wounds suspected of being infected
o can be performed 2-5 days after the injury
o Complete development of the developed granulation tissue is performed
afterwards

A

can be performed 2-5 days after the injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q 
Which of the following surgical instruments is not part of the chest kit? 
o Balfour rib splitter 
o De Bakey / Satinsky vascular occluder 
o Mixter dissector 
o Long Mayo-Hegar pliers
A

Mixter dissector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Characteristic of “reverse sneezing”:
o irritation of the nasopharynx is suspected in the background
o indicates a serious, life-threatening disease/illness
o usually caused by irritation of the anterior third of the nasal cavity
o indicates a laryngeal lesion

A

irritation of the nasopharynx is suspected in the background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q 
When used in a contact layer, its antibacterial effect is due to its dehydrating 
properties 
o Iodine 
o sugar 
o Silver 
o Paraffin
A

Silver

82
Q 
Which muscle can be used for intramuscular drug administration? 
o m. quadriceps fermoris 
o m. gastrocnemius 
o m. tibialis cranialis 
o m. deltoideus
A

gastrocnemius

83
Q 
According to Poncet's BAOS classification system, which clinical condition is decisive 
for grade III classification? 
o the severity of the stridor/stertor 
o the fact of fainting 
o the length of history 
o grade III collapse
A

the severity of the stridor/stertor

84
Q 
Which nasal excision is recommended in brachycephalic dogs? 
o Dorsal rhinotomy 
o Ventral rhinotomy 
o Dorsal rhinotomy + sinus trepanation
o Ventral rhinotomy + sinus trepanation
A

Ventral rhinotomy

85
Q

Which statement is correct?
o Dogs have preformed antibodies to DEA L1 blood group antigens
o The first transfusion is dangerous in dogs
o Dogs have preformed antibodies to blood group antigens DEA
o There are no preformed antibodies to blood group antigens in dogs

A

There are no preformed antibodies to blood group antigens in dogs

86
Q

Which of the following statements is false about chest trachea and resection?
o aitala right 2-4. rib lateral thoracotomy.
o up to 50% of the trachea can be removed in cavities
o up to 25% of the trachea can be removed
o only a pressure suture is used to establish tracheal anastomosis

A

up to 50% of the trachea can be removed in cavities

87
Q 
In the complex therapy of heartworm, the only adulticidal agent accepted by AHS is
o milbemycin oxime
o moxidectin 
o melarsomine 
o ivermectin
A

melarsomine

88
Q 
What is the normal capillary filling time? 
o 1-2 sec 
o 2-4 sec 
o 45 sec
o 6-7 sec
A

1-2 sec

89
Q 
The recommended time of the last combined primary vaccine in the primary 
vaccination series of the pup 
o 16 weeks of age 
o 14 weeks of age 
o 12 weeks of age 
o 10 weeks of age
A

16 weeks of age

90
Q 
Which contact layer is best to cover the wound in the exudative phase? 
o Sponge-free 
o hydrogel 
o B. Iodine-paraffin pad C. 
o Calcium alginate
A

Calcium alginate

91
Q 
What is the correct frequency of chest compression during resuscitation? 
o 100-120 / min
o 50-60 / min 
o 10-12 / min 
o 150-200 / min
A

100-120 / min

92
Q

Which statement is true? Passive drain ..
o … can only be single-pass
o … only double-pass ..
o ..can only be double-pass .
o covered with a pressure bandage, the effectiveness of drainage can be
increased

A

… can only be single-pass?

93
Q

At what age is it recommended to start vaccinating dogs?

A

6-8 weeks

94
Q 
Which part of the canal cartilage is fixed during CAL surgery? 
o processus muscularis 
o processus cuneiformis 
o processus corniculatus 
o none
A

processus muscularis

95
Q 
Prognath bite is normal: 
o siamese cat, bulldog, pug persian 
o cat, bulldog, boxer pug, 
o griffon, springer spaniel boxer, 
o sheltie, puli, bulldog
A

cat, bulldog, boxer pug

96
Q 
What is the correct marking method on the medical record at temperature? 
o Plus sign (+)
o Arrow (->) 
o 38 
o Cross (x)
A

38

97
Q 
Where can I get blood to measure my blood sugar? 
o Ear skin 
o oral Mucous membrane
o Both 
o None
A

Both

98
Q

Bacterial pneumonia in dogs / cats is typical:
o usually primary disease
o is a good general condition,
o cough is usually caused by a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration,
o patients are usually feverish, lively, have a good appetite

A

cough is usually caused by a viral infection, foreign body or food aspiration

99
Q

U

A

H

100
Q 
Which of the following cannot be administered subcutaneously? 
o Microchip
o Crystalloid infusion 
o Hormone implant
o Glucose-containing injections
A

Glucose-containing injections

101
Q

If a wound infection is suspected
o Treat the surface with a concentrated cytotoxic agent B
o Bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed
o The affected area should be surgically excised
o The wound should be sprayed with rocking powder and covered with a
bandag

A

Bacterial culture and antibiotic resistance testing should be performed

102
Q

Characteristic of ingestion pneumonia:
o megaoesophageal or laryngeal dysfunction
o the course of the disease is affected by the pH, volume and quality of the
aspirated content
o glucocorticoid and furosemide administration is not recommended
o all

A

all

103
Q 
Which instrument is not a member of the abdominal surgical instrument kit? 
o Balfour wound dressing 
o Doyen pliers 
o Finochietto wound dressing 
o Atraumatic forceps
A

Finochietto wound dressing

104
Q 
Closed system blood collection 
o for mandatory blood count 
o for BHB measurement 
o for ammonia measurement 
o for fructosamine measurement
A

for mandatory blood count

105
Q

Vena cava syndrome caused by heartworm can be clearly identified by
echocardiography as
o a mild form of heartworm
o A2. clinical category

A

echocardiography as ?

106
Q 
•Characteristic of monofilament suture materials (as opposed to multifil):
easier to knot
more resistant to infection
cannot be used for intestinal suturing
all of them are absorbable
A

more resistant to infection

107
Q

• What is the diameter of the USP 3/0 thread?
0.3 mm
0.2 mm
3 mm
cannot be answered exactly it depends on the type of the suture

A

cannot be answered exactly it depends on the type of the suture

108
Q

• Which statement is NOT true for artery clamps (haemostats)?
Used for intraoperative hemostasis
They crush the vascular intima
Can not be not used to fix surviving tissues
They are used for vascular anastomosis procedures.

A

They are used for vascular anastomosis procedures

109
Q 
•Absorbable suters are generally NOT used for which of the followings?
İntestinal sutures
Ligation of the overs
Skin sutures
Subcuticular sutures
A

Skin sutures

110
Q 
• What is the name of the instrument in the picture?
Artery forceps
Intestinal forceps
Needle holder
Wound spreader
A

Wound spreader

111
Q

• Needle holders. Mark the incorrect statement!
Needle holders grasp and manipulate straight needles.
Long needle Holders faninternal
facilitate working in deep wounds
Tungsten carbide inserts city re reposed when they false holdaway meprovetoly
Mayo-Heyar needis holders are commonly used in small antral veterinaly menic

A

Needle holders grasp and manipulate straight needles

112
Q

• Retractors. Mark the incorrect statement!
Retractors are used to retract tissue and improve visualization
The ends of handheld retractors may be booked, curved spatula shaped, of mouthed.
Retractors can be divided into two groups fandroid and sell retaining.
Self retaining retractors may be bent by the surgeon.

A

Self retaining retractors may be bent by the surgeon.

113
Q

• Suture materials. Mark the incorrect statement!
The size is indicated of the package either in metric or in USP units.
Catgut is an organic and absorbsale suturing material
Polyglycolic acid, polyglactin and polydioxanone are synthetic and absorbable.
Polyesther, polyamide and polypropylene are synthetic and non absorbable.

A

The size is indicated of the package either in metric or in USP units.

114
Q

Which of the following blood pressure (in mmHg) is the critical value of
central nervous system blood flow maintenance in shock?
70
60
50
40

A

60

115
Q

• Which statement is incorrect concerning congenital diaphragmatic
hernias?
They take 5 to 10% of diaphragmatic hernias
Hiatus hernia has basically 2 different forms axial and para esophageal
The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited
The peritoneopericardial hernia is due to the impaired development of septum transversum.

A

The peritoneopericardial hernia is inherited

So the other cards are wrong? It is congenital so from birth but not genetic

116
Q 
Which of the following approaches is mostly recommended in case of
diaphragmatic hernia repair?
Laparatomy
Lateral thoracotomy
Laparoterry + Lateral thoracotomy
Sternotomy
A

Laparatomy

117
Q 
Which sign of the following is characteristic of PRAA?
Vomiting 30 min after leading
vomiting -2 hours after feeding
Vomiting - 5 hours after feeding
Regurgitation
A

Regurgitation

118
Q 
• echocardiography:
Uses ionizing radiation
Detects electrical activity of the heart
Is an ultrasound based imaging method
Is not a real time imaging method
(except 4D echocardiography)
A

Is an ultrasound based imaging method

119
Q 
• the optimal transducer for echocardiography is a:
Phased array
Microconvex
Linear
Convex
A

Phased array

120
Q 
Echocardiographic FS value
Can be measured in M-mode
Can be measured in Color Doppler mode
Can be measured in spectral Doppler mode
Reflects pulmonary congestion
A

Can be measured in M-mode

FS fractional shortening

121
Q 
• Echocardiographic standard planes are:
Different in all species
Used in cardiology in image the heart
Depending on heart rate
Not use in echocardiography
A

Used in cardiology in image the heart

122
Q 
•In which condition horizontal dullness occurs during thoracic percussion?
In pleura effusion
During preumonia
In pulmonary neoplastic diseases
During cardiac enlargement
A

In pleura effusion

123
Q

• Why we can reduce preload dramatically in heart failure?
Because reducing preload during heart failure does not lead to arrhythmia
Because in heart failure reducing preload hardly reduces cardiac output
Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear
Because the afterload will offset the reduction of the preload anyway

A

Because the survival of heart failure animals is so short that we have nothing to fear

124
Q

Which is the first compensation during heart failure?
The renin angiotensin-aldosterone system is activated
Processes that reduce plasma volume are initiated
The peripheral blood vessel’s dilate
Heart rate increases

A

Heart rate increases

125
Q 
• What medicine should be given to a dog with grade B1 mitral valve
disease (MMVD)?
ACE inhibitor
Pimobendan
Furosemide
None of them
A

None of them

126
Q 
• The most recommended drug combination for the chronic treatment of
congestive heart failure:
ACE Inhibitor spironolactone
ACE inhibitor plus digoxin
Furosemide plus pimobendan
Furosemide plus spironolactone
A

Furosemide plus pimobendan

127
Q

• Lidocaine and mexitil may be used:
For the treatment of the silent atrium
For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia
For the treatment of 3rd-degree AV block
For the treatment of junctional tachycardia

A

For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia

128
Q 
• What changes do you expect to find in case of severe pulmonic stenosis?
Left ventricle concentric hypertrophy
Right ventricle concentric hypertrophy
Left ventricle dilatation
Right ventricle dilatation
A

Right ventricle concentric hypertrophy

129
Q 
What changes do you expect to find in case of dilated cardiomyopathy
(DCM)?
Left ventricle concentric hypertrophy
Right ventricle concentric hypertrophy
Left ventricle dilatation
Right ventricle dilatation
A

Left ventricle dilatation

130
Q

• Heart disease grading: ACVIM-C class
Fatigue, dyspnea, clinical signs of lung oedema
Occasionally collapse, respiratory arrhythmia, respiratory rate is 29/min at the clinic
IV/VI systolic murmur normal sleeping respiratory rate
Left atrial dilatation with x-ray and echocardiography

A

Left atrial dilatation with x-ray and echocardiography

131
Q 
• Drugs with positive inotropic effects
Ramiptil, amlodipin
Digoxin, pimobendan
Propranolol ,diltiazem
Amiodarone, sotalol
A

Digoxin, pimobendan

132
Q

• The most common cardiac disease in dogs:
Congenital, subvaluar aortic stenosis
Dilated cardiomyopathy
Chronic endocardosis with mitral insufficiency
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

A

Chronic endocardosis with mitral insufficiency

133
Q

• Chronic endocardosis/myxomatous mitral valve disease in dogs/Characteristics:
Occurs mainly in medium-aged females of small breeds
Typically results in mitral valve, sometimes tricuspid valve insufficiency
Digoxin and pimpobendan are always contraindicated because they increase the amount of
regurgitated blood
Occurs mainly in medium-aged males of large breads

A

Digoxin and pimpobendan are always contraindicated because they increase the amount of
regurgitated blood

134
Q 
Biochemical parameter(s) important for the evaluation of chylous
effusions
Cholesterol and triglyceride
Creatinine concentration
Total protein concentration
LDH concentration
A

Cholesterol and triglyceride

135
Q

Drugs with positive inotropic effects:

A

Digoxin

136
Q

•An effusion with less than 25 g/l total protein concentration is found in
the abdominal cavity and the total protein in the blood is less than 40g/l Which is the least
likely diagnosis?
Kidney disease
Liver disease
Intestinal disease
Heart failure

A

Heart failure

137
Q 
• Which of the following signs is characteristic of PDA?
Ventricular arrhythmia
Ventricular extrasystole
Atrial arrhythmia
Machinery murmur
A

Machinery murmur

138
Q

Pacemaker implantation is justified:
For the treatment of supraventricular tachycardia
For the treatment of ventricular tachycardia
For the treatment of 3rd degree AV block
For the treatment of 1st degree AV block

A

For the treatment of 3rd degree AV block

139
Q

• Definitions of a grade 5/6 cardiac murmur
A moderate intensity murmur with good audibility
These murmur can be heard only in congenital heart disease
A very strong murmur with precordial thrill
A very strong murmur without precordial thrill

A

A very strong murmur with precordial thrill

140
Q

the most recommended drug combination for the chronic treatment of
Congestive heart failure

A

pimobendan and furosemide

141
Q 
•What are the 3 major components of the complex treatment of canine heartworm disease ?
Doxycycline, selamectin, melarsomine
Fenbendazole, doramectin, clopidrage
Doxycycline , moxidectin , melarsomine
Doxycycline,milbemicin-oxim,melarsomin
A

Doxycycline , moxidectin , melarsomine

142
Q

O

A

U

143
Q 
• What is the most common cardiac disease in cats ?
ARVC
DCM
HCM
RCM
A

HCM

144
Q 
•Which drugs can be used in case of feline symptomatic HCM?
Digoxin
Furosemide
Amlodipine
Amiodarone
A

Furosemide

145
Q 
• Which can be a congenital pericardial disease ?
PPHD
Chylopericardium
Haemopericardium
Constrictive pericarditis
A

Constrictive pericarditis

146
Q

•Which statement is true regarding macrocyclic lactones?
Selamectine is the strongest microfilaricide drug
Ivermectin is the strongest microfilaricide drug
Moxidectin is the strongest microfilaricide drug
Milbemycin is the strongest microfilaricide drug

A

Ivermectin is the strongest microfilaricide drug

147
Q

• How can you determine the left atrial-aortic ratio (LA/AQ) during echocardiography?
Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of left atrium in the same long axis view
Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of left atrium in the same short axis view
Measure the diameter of the aorta and the short axis view and measure the diameter of the
left atrium in the long axis view
Measure the diameter of the left atrium in short -axis view and measure the diameter of the
aorta long-axis axis view

A

Measure the diameter of the aorta and the diameter of left atrium in the same short axis view

148
Q 
•Which of the following types of shock SIRS is rated in ?
Hypovolemic
Cardiogenic/Obstructive
Distributive
Hypoxic
A

Distributive

149
Q 
Which of the following parameters is mostly specific of DIC ?
fibrinogen
D-dimer
APTT
FDP
A

fibrinogen

I would say D-dîmer which indicates the degradation of thrombi will if liver isn’t working fibrinogen would go down to

150
Q 
• Characteristic of monofilament suture materials (as opposed to
multifil):
easier to knot
more resistant to infection
cannot be used for intestinal suturing
all of them are absorbable
A

more resistant to infection

151
Q 
Which statement is NOT true? Coating:
Is used for multifil suture materials
Improves knot security
Is made of lactic acid
May have antibacterial effect .
A

Improves knot security

152
Q

• Tissue Forceps. Mark the incorrect statement!
Tissue forceps are used to grasp tissue.
Tissue forceps with large teeth should be used to handle tissue that is easily traumatized
Tissue forceps are generally used in the nondominant hand.
Tissue forceps are used to stabilise tissue and/orexpose tissue layers during suturing

A

Tissue forceps with large teeth should be used to handle tissue that is easily traumatized

153
Q 
• Which part of the stomach usually dislocates in axial (sliding) hiatal hernia?
cardia
fundus
corpus
antrum pylori
A

cardia

154
Q 
•Doppler-mode echocardiography is
To measure velocities
To measure distances during cardiac cycles
To produce grey scale static image
To measure distances
A

To measure velocities

155
Q 
Which of the following abdominal organ does usually not dislocate in PPDH?
spleen
greater omentum
liver
small intestine
A

Greater omentum

156
Q

•Mark the incorrect statement ! Considerations for suture selection
include
The length of time the suture will be required to help strengthen the wound or tissue .
The risk of infection .
The effect of the suture material on wound healing .
The the skill of the surgeon

A

The the skill of the surgeon

157
Q 
•Echocardiographic FS value
Can be measured in M-mod
Can be measured in Color Doppler mode
Can be measured in spectral Doppler mode
Reflects pulmonary congestion
A

Can be measured in M-mod

158
Q

• Where can fluid accumulate in case of right sided heart failure in small animal?
Abdominal cavity
Thoracic cavity
Both
In the thoracic cavity in dogs, in both of them in cats

A

Both

159
Q 
•The most recommended drug combination for the chronic treatment of
congestive heart failure
ACE inhibitor spironolactone
ACE inhibitor plus digoxin
Furosemide plus pimobendan
Furosemide plus spironolactone
A

Furosemide plus pimobendan

160
Q 
• Which of them will never cause haemopericardium in dogs ?
Chemodectoma
Idiopathic inflammation
Thromboembolism
Coagulopathy
A

Chemodectoma

161
Q 
• What modality is used for two-dimensional real-time imaging of cardiac structures?
B mode
Color doppler
M mode
Spectral doppler
A

M mode

162
Q 
•Which surface of the surgical gown is considered to be sterile after
putting it on?
the neck area
the back area
the chest area
the inguinal area
A

the chest area

163
Q 
• Which fingers are placed in the two rings of surgical hand tools?
thumb /middle finger
thumb/index finger
index/ middle finger
thumb/ring finger
A

thumb/ring finger

164
Q 
• Suture Picture
horizontal mattress
vertical mattress
cross suture
simple continuous
A

horizontal mattress

165
Q 
•Suture Characteristics. Mark the incorrect statement!
The ideal suture is noncarcinogenic
The ideal suture is nonferromagnetic.
The ideal suture is easy to handle.
The ideal suture is capillary .
A

The ideal suture is capillary .

166
Q

U

A

T

167
Q

• Basic surgical instruments. Mark the incorrect statement!
Their function can be separating, gripping, exploring and merging.
The scalpel is held with fingertips in the case of long straight incisions and pencil grip in the
case of short, fine incisions.
The Mayo-Hegar needle holder is held in the palm. The Mathieu needle holder is similar to
an artery forceps, but its jaw is designed to hold a needle
Scissors and artery forceps are held with the tips of the thumb and ring finger through the
finger rings and with the index finger resting on the shanks.

A

The Mayo-Hegar needle holder is held in the palm. The Mathieu needle holder is similar to
an artery forceps, but its jaw is designed to hold a needle

168
Q 
•Which of the followings is the main shock organ of the
dog?
Liver
Lung
GI tract
Pancreas
A

GI tract

Lung is for cats!

169
Q 
•Which of the following organs is the source of MDF release in shock?
Liver
Lung
GI tract
Pancreas
A

Pancreas

170
Q 
•Which colour is typical of the compensatory stage of shock?
Pale
Cyanotic
Dirty red
Bright red
A

Bright red

171
Q

•Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding incisional
hernia?
It is a iatrogenic complication
It might be suppurative
It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases
It may be caused by surgical technical error

A

It can be prevented by Elizabethan collar in all cases

172
Q 
Doppler-mode echocardiography is
to measure velocities
to measure distances during cardiac cycles
to produce grey scale static image
to measure distances
A

to measure velocities

173
Q 
Echocardiographic standard planes are
different in all species
used in cardiology to image the heart
depending on heart rate
not used in echocardiography
A

used in cardiology to image the heart

174
Q 
•cardiac causes of pulmonary edema can be excluded by ultrasound
based on the
FS value
LVIDd value
LVIDS value
LA/ Ao ratio
A

FS value

175
Q

•Where can fluid accumulate in case of left sided heart failure in small
animals?
abdominal cavity
thoracic cavity
both
in the thoracic cavity in cats, in neither of them in dogs

A

thoracic cavity

176
Q 
•Which abdominal fluid to plasma creatinine ratio is diagnostic for
uroperitoneum?
one to one
two to one
three to one
one to two
A

Two to one

177
Q

• Which plane is used to measure the left atrium to aortic root ratio?
Short-axis view at the heart base from the right side
Long-axis view at the mitral annulus level from the right side
Apical view
Subcostal view

A

Short-axis view at the heart base from the right side

178
Q 
•What is NOT characteristic of feline hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?
May cause thromboembolism
May cause sudden death
Often has long survival
Causes right-sided heart dilation
A

Causes right-sided heart dilation

179
Q 
•Which step is incorrect after ECG examination of an animal with
ventricular arrhythmia:
Blood test, abdominal ultrasound
cTroponin-I measurement
Administration of digoxin
Echocardiography
A

Blood test, abdominal ultrasound

180
Q 
•What changes do you expect to find in case of severe PDA?
Left ventricle concentric hypertrophy
Right ventricle concentric hypertrophy
Left ventricle dilatation
Right ventricle dilatation
A

Left ventricle dilatation

181
Q 
•What changes do you expect to find in case of dilated cardiomyopathy
(DCM)?
Left ventricle concentric hypertrophy
Right ventricle concentric hypertrophy
Left ventricle dilatation
Right ventricle dilatation
A

Left ventricle dilatation

182
Q 
•What is NOT needed for a standard echocardiographic examination?
phased array transducer
right lateral recumbence
using standard planes
linear transducer
A

linear transducer

183
Q

•Heart disease grading: ACVIM-B2 class:
Fatigue, coughing, clinical signs of lung oedema
Occasionally collapse, respiratory arrhythmia, respiratory rate is 49/min at the clinic
IV/VI systolic murmur, increased sleeping respiratory rate
Left atrial dilatation with x-ray and echocardiography

A

Left atrial dilatation with x-ray and echocardiography

184
Q

•The most common congenital cardiac diseases of dogs in Europe (also in
Hungary)
Ventricular (VSD) and atrial septal defect (ASD)
Tetralogy of Fallot
Mitral valve dysplasia
Aortic stenosisand PDA

A

Aortic stenosisand PDA

185
Q

What is diagnostic for uroperitoneum?
High creatinine concentration in the abdominal fluid.
The creatinine concentration of the effusion is at least twice the creatinine concentration of
the plasma .
The creatinine concentration of the plasma is at least twice the creatinine concentration of
the ascites fluid .
High concentrations of creatinine in both blood plasma and effusion

A

The creatinine concentration of the effusion is at least twice the creatinine concentration of
the plasma .

186
Q

• Where to puncture the chest in case of suspected fluid accumulation?
3-5 th intercostal places on the left side
3-5 th intercostal places on the left side
Where you can see the largest amount of fluid during the ultrasound examination
2 -3 rd intercostal place on the left side

A

Where you can see the largest amount of fluid during the ultrasound examination

187
Q 
•PDA means
abnormally directed Botallo ligament
patency of the Botallo duct
abnormally directed aortic arch
abnormally directed subclavian artery
A

patency of the Botallo duct

188
Q

To measure blood flow velocity by ultrasound:
the flow should be as parallel as possible with the ultrasound beam
the flow should be as perpendicular as possible with the ultrasound beam
is possible in M-mode echocardiography
is possible in B-mode echocardiography

A

the flow should be as perpendicular as possible with the ultrasound beam

189
Q

•Which echocardiographic modality is used to measure linear chamber sizes and display
their alteration as a function of time in echocardiography?
Color Doppler
Pulsed wave Doppler
B-mode
M-mode

A

M-mode

190
Q

•What is the typical finding in FIP caused effusions?
Honey-like, viscous exudate, that is Rivalta positive
Thin, water-like fluid during puncture
Bloody fluid during puncture
Yellowish, cloudy exudate, that is Rivalta negative

A

Honey-like, viscous exudate, that is Rivalta positive

191
Q

•An ECG exam is most appropriate (indicated) if:
When the heart rate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm
When a dog that had an accident has 200 bpm heart rate
When a dog with a body temperature of 40.8 C has a heart rate of 180 bpm
When the heart rate of a dog arrived for microchip implantation is 160 bpm

A

When the heart rate of a dog arrived for vaccination is 200 bpm

192
Q

•Ventricular extrasystoles are:
Caused by atrial disease (e.g. dilatation)
Often caused by extracardiac diseases (e.g. splenic tumour)
Always caused by heart failure
Caused by increased vagal tone

A

Often caused by extracardiac diseases (e.g. splenic tumour

193
Q

•What is the most important compensation priority during
heart failure?
Maintenance of the systemic venous blood pressure
Maintenance of the systemic arterial blood pressure in vital organs
Keeping the systemic arterial blood pressure low in non-vital organs
Keeping the systemic venous blood pressure low

A

Keeping the systemic venous blood pressure low

I would have answered B

194
Q

Heart disease grading: ACVIM-B2 class:( multiple choice)

A

Occasionally collapse, respiratory arrhythmia, respiratory rate is 49/min at the clinic
IV/VI systolic murmur, increased sleeping respiratory rate
Left atrial dilatation with x-ray and echocardiography

195
Q

•The effect of pimobendan
ACE-inhibitor
Positive inotropic drug, with vasodilatatoric effect
Antiarrhythmic drug
Negative chronotropic drug with some vasoconstrictive effect

A

Positive inotropic drug, with vasodilatatoric effect

196
Q

Suture Size. Mark the incorrect statement!
The smallest diameter suture that will adequately secure wounded tissue should be used to
minimize trauma
There is no advantage to using a suture that is stronger than the tissue to be sutured.
A rarely used standard for suture size is the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) standard
The smaller the size of a particular suture, the less tensile strength it has.

A

A rarely used standard for suture size is the United States Pharmacopeia (USP) standard

197
Q

•Which statement is true for open gloving?
It is used for procedures that require maximal sterility.
Always starts on the left hand.
Sterile surgical gown is not a prerequisite.
Requires another type of gloves than the closed technique.

A

Always starts on the left hand

I think surgical gown is not a prerequisite

198
Q

•Which statement is NOT true for artery clamps (haemostats)?
Used for intraoperative hemostasis
They crush the vascular intima
Can not be not used to fix surviving tissues
They are used for vascular anastomosis procedures

A

They are used for vascular anastomosis procedures

199
Q

•Scissors. Mark the incorrect statement!
Scissors come in a variety of shapes and sizes.
Scissors are classified according to the type of point and blade shape.
Metzenbaum scissors are designed for dissection.
Mayo scissors are used for dissection.

A

Mayo scissors are used for dissection.

200
Q

•Suture Characteristics. Mark the incorrect statement!
The ideal suture is easy to handle.
The ideal suture reacts minimally in tissue
The ideal suture does not influence bacterial growth.
The ideal suture holds securely when knotted

A

The ideal suture does not influence bacterial growth.

SAM 4 past questions (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions