SA oncology Flashcards

1
Q

How are solid tumours clinically staged?

A
TNR classification
T: primary tumour
- clinical exam
- location and palpable extent (well demarcated?)
- fixation to deep tissues, skin
- ulceration
- histological diagnosis (biopsy or FNA)
- diagnostic imaging
N: metastatic disease in local and regional lymph nodes
M: distant metastatic disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Difference between tumour stage and grade?

A

Stage: tumour burden and sites involved
Grade: histological features of tumour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the gold standard for cancer diagnosis?

A

Histopathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of cytology for cancer diagnosis?

A
Relatively non-invasive
Often requires minimal restraint
Minimal tissue disruption
Rapidly performed
Rapid results
Cheaper
No architectural detail
Small numbers of cells examined- representative?
Limited assessment of tumour type/grade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of histopathology for cancer diagnosis?

A
More invasive
GA (or sedation) required
Moderate tissue disruption
More time consuming
Delay in results
More expensive
Architecture apparent
Larger sample size - more representative
More accurate tumour type/grade
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Biopsy techniques for cancer diagnosis?

A
Needle core biopsy
Incisional biopsy
Surface and pinch biopsies
Punch biopsies
Excisional biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Risks of biopsy?

A

Haemmorrhage
Transplantation of tumour cells
Compromise of future surgery
Damage to adjacent structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Needle core biopsy - how?

A

Cylinder of tissue is removed from the lesion by a specialised needle
Ultrasound guidance very useful
Adequate restraint
Trucut needles - two handed operation, need assistance, can be cold sterilised
Cook’s/Arnolds biopsy needles - semi automated, can be cold sterilised
Clip, prepare site aseptically
Make small stab incision in skin (essential to not blunt needle)
Immobilise mass and introduce needle
Once embedded, advance central obturator, rotate through 90 degrees, briskly advance outer cannula over central obturator, remove from mass
Flush sample from notch with saline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of needle core biopsies?

A

Advs:
- larger sample than aspirate
- comparatively inaccessible tissues can be accessed percutaneously
- multiple samples can easily be taken
- superficial lesions can be biopsied under sedation and local anaesthesia
Disadvs:
- small sample size compared to other biopsies (still might not be sufficient to view architectural change)
- greater risk of complications compared to FNA
- not good for lymph nodes (insensitive to metastatic disease, inadequate for architectural assessment in lymphoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is used for a bone core biopsy? What must be done/not done?

A

Jamshidi needle
Do not penetrate far cortex - risk of pathological fracture
Take multiple samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of incisional biopsies?

A
Advs:
- good evaluation of architecture
- histopathological grading
- surgical approach allows selection of biopsy site
- more tissue - can carry out special stains etc
Disadvs:
- GA normally required
- increased time
- both increase costs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the most common technique used for incisional biopsies? Rules?

A

Inverted wedge - easy closure
Plan your site
Sample selection
Avoid major structures
Avoid necrotic, haemorrhagic or infected areas
Position incision and biopsy so that entire biopsy tract can be removed during subsequent surgery
Make the incision large enough to harvest the sample without excessive tissue manipulation
Minimise instrumental manipulation of biopsy
Avoid diathermy, cryosurgery etc
Include a portion of normal tissue only if easy to do so
Ensure adequate fixation - serially section large samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Surface pinch and grab biopsies - used for? how?

A

Accessible surfaces - resp tract, GIT, urogenital tract
Direct visualisation
Endoscopy
Blind
Laparoscopy/thoracoscopy
GA often required
Very small biopsies - always take multiple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Punch biopsies - used for/not used for? How?

A

Cutaneous and other superficial lesions only
Not for lymph nodes
Sedation (+/- local)
Rotate punch continuously in same direction so don’t shear layers apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is excision biopsy?

A

(Attempted) surgical extirpation of a lesion or mass, followed by removal of biopsies from it for histopathological evaluation or submission of whole sample if possible
Often results in inadequate excision
Only used when knowledge of tumour type will not affect surgical dose
Widely used in treatment of skin tumours
All excised tumours should be submitted for histopathology - assess margins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Contraindications for excision biopsy for skin and s/c masses?

A
Rapidly growing masses
Ill defined or poorly demarcated lesion
Peritumoural oedema or erythema
Skin ulceration
Injection site masses in cats
FNA suspicious of MCT or STS
Non diagnostic FNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What percentage of bone mineral content must be lost for lysis to be apparent on radiographs?

A

> 60%

So lack of obvious lysis doesn’t mean no bony involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which lymph node enlargement may be seen on a lateral thorax radiograph?

A

Suprasternal
Cranial mediastinal
Tracheobronchial
Only moderate-marked enlargement detectable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which lymph node enlargement may be seen on an abdominal radiograph?

A
Medial iliac (sub lumbar) 
Very unlikely to detect enlargement of mesenteric nodes unless massively enlarged
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is lymphangiography used for?

A

Detection of sentinel nodes
Inject contrast into the tumour to find out which nodes drain it
Doesn’t tell you if they are affected by metastases
Only tells you which are draining nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

FNA for lymph nodes?

A

More sensitive than palpation or needle core biopsy
Not infallible - can have negative aspirates from positive node
Use needle only technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which lymph nodes do tumours metastasise to?

A

Most which spread by the lymphatic route go to the nearest node towards the centre of the body (ie towards the thoracic duct)
Cranial abdominal tumours can metastasise to the retropharyngeal lymph nodes
Metastases can skip a node
Lesions on the distal forelimb metastasise to the prescapular rather than the axillary lymph nodes
Lesions on the proximal forearm metastasise to the axillary node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Common sites of distant metastasis?

A
Lung
Parenchymatous organs - liver, spleen, kidney
Bone
Skin
CNS
Distant nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Detection of pulmonary metastases?

A

Very difficult to pick up on examination - adventitious sounds uncommon, may pick up if concurrent effusion, cough uncommon
Radiographs
- both lateral inflated views, ideally all 4 views
- do not confuse pleural plaques/pulmonary oesteomas with metastases
CT
- more sensitive but more expensive and less available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Detection of metastases to parenchymatous organs?

A

Ultrasound generally superior to radiography
NB old dog changes
- nodular hyperplasia in the liver
- nodular hyperplasia, lymphoid hyperplasia, haematomas in the spleen
Confirm by FNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Are blood tests useful in cancer patients?

A

Haematology will only give a diagnosis if patient has leukaemia
- lymphoma patients seldom have circulating tumour cells
- required prior to chemo
- paraneoplastic syndromes
Biochemistry never diagnostic
- poorly sensitive to organ infiltration
- paraneoplastic syndromes
- concurrent disease
Infectious disease
- vast majority of feline lymphoma patients are not FeLV positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is involved in tumour metastasis?

A

Vascularisation of tumour - angiogenesis factors
Invasion of tumour cells into vasculature
- enzymes (collagenases, matrix metalloproteinases)
- lack of adhesion
- motility characteristics
Dissemination - evasion host immunity
Arrest - adhesion to normal cells
Extravasation - enzymes
Proliferation - angiogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which tumours tend to have haematogenous metastases?

A

Sarcomas

Malignant melanomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which tumours tend to have lymphatic metastases?

A

Local and regional lymph node spread
Mast cell tumours
Carcinomas
Malignant melanomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Limitations of the TNM system?

A

Animals do not always present with the primary disease
Metastatic disease
Paraneoplastic syndromes
Biological behaviour of the tumour must be born in mind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which tumours are highly metastatic?

A

Oral/mucosal malignant melanoma
Visceral and some other soft tissue haemangiosarcomas
Appendicular osteosarcoma
High grade (Patniak grade III/Kiupel high grade or poorly differentiated) MCTs
Subungual malignant melanoma (dogs)
Poorly differentiated mammary tumours (dogs)
Most mammary carcinomas in cats
(Anal sac adenocarcinomas - often slow)
(Prostatic carcinomas - often slow)
(Digital squamous cell carcinomas - often slow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which tumours are variably metastatic?

A
Oral/axial OSA
Thyroid carcinomas (dog)
Patnaik intermediate grade MCTs
Injection site sarcoma
Anaplastic sarcoma
Insulinoma (most do)
Mammary carcinoma (dog)
Apocrine adenocarcinomas
GIT carcinomas
TCC of bladder
Liposarcoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which tumours have a lower metastatic potential?

A

Oral fibrosarcoma
Non-tonsillar oral squamous cell carcinoma
Most ST sarcomas
Sebaceous adenocarcinoma
Low grade MCTs
Multilobular osteoma/osteosarcoma of bone
Intranasal tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which tumours don’t metastasise?

A

Oral acanthomatous ameloblastomas
Haemangiopericytoma
Schwannoma/neurofibroma
Benign tumours!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the aims of oncological surgery?

A
Prophylaxis
Diagnosis and staging
Definitive excision
Cytoreduction of tumour mass
Palliative treatment
Treatment of metastatic disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which cancers are castration and ovariohysterectomy prophylaxis for?

A

Castration: testicular neoplasia (not prostatic cancer)
Ovariohysterectomy: ovarian/uterine neoplasia, reduces mammary cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is multimodality therapy for cancer?

A

Cytoreduction of tumour mass before, at time of or after radio- or chemotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When is palliative treatment for cancer used?

A

If hopeless prognosis (usually due to early metastasis)
Pointless aggressively treating primary neoplasia if patient will die from diffuse disease
Removal of tumour burden may restore or maintain quality of life until euthanasia is inevitable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Pre-op considerations of oncological surgery?

A
Type, grade and stage
Local and systemic effects of disease
Is a cure possible?
Is surgical intervention appropriate?
Prognosis with/without surgery
Anticipated complications
Patient's quality of life
Cost of (ongoing) treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What to be careful of with oncological surgery?

A

Inappropriate surgery may seed tumour to tissue planes previously unaffected
Most active/invasive parts of tumour are at edges
If tumour recurs there is less normal tissue for closure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Pre-operative nutritional support for oncological surgery?

A

Provide if:
Anorexia for >5days
>10% acute loss of lean body weight
Disease or surgery will prevent feeding for >3-5 days post-op

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Methods to achieve surgical margins for cancers?

A

Local excision - easiest, often used inappropriately
Wide excision
Radical excision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Preparation for oncological surgery?

A

Plan reconstruction before tumour excision
Avoid vigorous palpation
Clip and prepare wide area around proposed surgical site
Gentle cleaning using effective skin preparation not vigorous scrubbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Why does oncological surgery have higher infection rates?

A
Old age
Poor nutritional status
Obesity
Diabetes/concurrent disease
Hypoxaemia
Remote infection
Corticosteroid therapy
Immunocompromise
Thrombocytopenia/poor blood supply
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When should antibiotic prophylaxis be used for oncological surgery?

A

If debilitated patient
If clean-contaminated/contaminated/dirty surgery
If surgical procedure >90 mins
In general begin no more than 2h pre-op and continue no more than 24h post-op

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Are adhesions between a tumour and adjacent structures a problem?

A

Represent direct tumour invasion in >50% cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What to do after tumour excision during oncological surgery?

A

Saline lavage - allows removal of blood clots, foreign material, necrotic tissue and possibly any unattached tumour fragments
Change gloves, drapes and instruments after tumour excision and lavage - tumours will adhere to inanimate objects and potentially seed to other tissues prior to closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Vascular occlusion techniques for oncological surgery?

A

Ligate vascular supply to tumour and venous and lymphatic drainage from it as early as possible
Especially important for tumours of ectodermal origin (e.g. SCC, MCT) where probability of exfoliation is high)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How to avoid wound complications (e.g. haematomas, serums, sepsis) in oncological surgery?

A

Meticulous haemostasis
Effective closure of dead space
Appropriate use of drains
Appropriate use of perioperative antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

General recommendations for the management of local lymph nodes in oncological surgery?

A

Non destructive biopsy of grossly normal lymph node
Lymph node removal if:
- histologically proven to contain tumour cells
- appears grossly abnormal at surgery
- intimately associated with tissue being removed and surgical margins dictate its removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Indications for chemotherapy?

A
Systemic tumours
Risk of metastatic disease
Palliative treatment
Delay/prevent local tumour recurrence
Radiation sensitisation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Types of chemotherapy?

A

Primary
Adjunctive (used with another treatment)
Neoadjunctive (used before a treatment to help its success)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How does conventional chemotherapy work?

A

Cytotoxic drugs which are mainly active against highly proliferating cells
So do not specifically target cancer cells
Targets are DNA synthesis, RNA synthesis, protein synthesis and cell cycle progression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which part of the cell cycle is relatively resistant to the actions of cytotoxic chemotherapy drugs?

A

G0 - act as a reservoir to repopulate the tumour after therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Define growth fraction, mitotic index and mass doubling time of tumours?

A

Growth fraction - fraction of cells actively dividing at any given time
Mitotic index - % or number of mitoses per high power field on light microscopy
Mass doubling time - time taken for tumour to double in size (affected by GF, cell cycle time, cell loss)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is Gompertzian growth of tumours? How does this affect chemotherapy sensitivity? Which tumours don’t follow this growth pattern?

A

Decreasing growth rate with increasing number of cells
Early stages (microscopic):
- rapid growth, high GF, short MDT
- more cells in chemotherapy sensitive phases of cell cycle
Later stages (large bulky disease):
- slower growth, lower GF, longer MDT
- fewer cells in chemotherapy sensitive phases of cell cycle
Not true of leukaemia and lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Factors affecting chemotherapy success?

A
Growth fraction and mass doubling time
Inherent tumour sensitivity
Tumour cell heterogeneity
Inherent tumour cell resistance/acquired drug resistance
Drug dosage
Interval between treatments
Tumour blood supply/oxygenation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Are lymphomas and melanomas chemo-sensitive?

A

Lymphoma: remains relatively sensitive even at large volumes
Melanoma: poorly sensitive even with high GF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is Nowell’s hypothesis?

A

Cancer is the result of genetic instability
If a cell develops a genetic mutation this is transferred to further clones
New clones may develop further genetic mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Mechanisms of chemotherapy drug resistance of tumours?

A
Less drug entering cell
Defective drug activation
Increased drug inactivation
Alteration in target molecules
Enhanced DNA repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Intrinsic drug resistance of tumours?

A

Increased DNA repair
Over expression of anti-apoptotic proteins
Altered expression of oncogenes or tumour suppression genes
P-glycoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Acquired drug resistance of tumours?

A

Single agent specific resistance
Resistance to drugs which have similar modes of action
Multidrug resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How to minimise tumour drug resistance?

A
Treat as early as possible
Use standard protocols
Use correct doses
Administer agents properly (e.g. don't pretreat lymphoma patients with steroids)
At relapse, act sooner rather than later
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Drug dosage for chemotherapy?

A

Narrow therapeutic window
Aim for maximum tolerated dose (MTD) to minimise tumour burden but without toxicity
If no response to first dose, don’t keep trying same dose as won’t work
Dose on the basis of body surface area (BSA) - correlates with blood supply to liver and kidneys (better than weight)
For smaller patients sometimes mg/kg instead (dox, carbo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Tumour blood supply? Problems for chemotherapy?

A

Many tumours are poorly vascularised with disorganised sinusoidal blood vessels
Larger tumours tend to outgrow their blood supply
Poor blood supply results in:
- inadequate drug delivery
- inherently low growth fraction
- areas of anoxia -> low pH, build up of toxic metabolites, interference with cytotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What chemotherapy drugs are there?

A

Agents that affect DNA replication:
- alkylating agents (cyclophosphamide, melphalan, chlorambucil, lomustine)
- antitumour antibiotics (doxorubicin, epirubicin, mitoxantrone, Actinomycin D)
- platinum compounds (cisplatin, carboplatin)
Agents which affect purine and pyrimidine synthesis
- antimetabolites (cytosine arabinoside, methotrexate, 5-fluorouracil)
Agents which interfere with mitosis
- vinca alkaloids (vincristine, vinblastine)
Enzymes
- e.g. L-asparaginase
Miscellaneous agents
- corticosteroids
- NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Disadvantages of single agent chemotherapy? When used?

A

Tends to select rapidly for drug resistance
Not capable of adequate antineoplastic activity
Used for exquisitely sensitive tumours - transmissible venereal tumour
Or where no other known effective agents:
- platinum compounds in osteosarcoma
- doxorubicin in high grade STS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Polychemotherapy protocol?

A
Agents should:
- have proven efficacy against the tumour
- have different modes of action
- affect different stages of the cell cycle
- have non-overlapping DLT toxicities
- not interfere with each others actions
Combined or sequential
Toxicity: combined > sequential
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Chemotherapy routes of administration?

A
Oral
IV
IM/SC
Intracavitary
Intratumoural
Intrathecal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Define chemotherapy drug dose intensity and dose density?

A

Dose intensity = the drug dose delivered per time unit, expressed as mg/m^2 per week
Drug density = how often the drug is administered during the protocol
- interval between doses needed to allow recovery of normal tissues
- rapidly dividing tissue e.g. bone marrow and GIT have tremendous capacity to repair rapidly and tend to repair more rapidly than most tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which patients present chemotherapy drug dosing problems?

A

Obese patients - should we estimate lean weight?
Collies and others with known drug sensitivity - can test for MDR1 (ABCB1) mutations
Animals with hepatic functional compromise
Animals with reduced renal function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Immediate toxicity (<24hrs) reactions to chemotherapy?

A
Anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity:
- L-asparaginase, antracyclines, cisplatin, cytosine
- IVFT, dex IV, H1 blocker, adrenaline
Cardiac arrhythmia
- doxorubicin (epirubicin)
Emesis
- platinum compounds, antracyclines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Possible toxicity reactions 1-5 days post chemotherapy treatment?

A

GI toxicity - most agents
Perivascular reactions - antracyclines, platinums, vinka alkaloids
Pancreatitis - corticosteroids, asparagina, azathioprine, platinum compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Why can chemotherapy drugs cause GI toxicity 1-5 days post treatment? Signs? Treatment? Which drugs?

A

Direct damage to enterocytes
Anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea
Syptomatic treatment:
- treat more aggressively than non-chemo patients
- anti-emetics, anti-diarrhoeals, antibiotics, IVFT, gastroprotectants, appetite stimulants
GI toxicity seen before bone marrow toxicity
Disrupted mucosal barrier with neutropenia increases risk of sepsis
Mainly: doxorubicin/epi, vincristine, cyclophosphamide (cats), cytarabine infusion, platinum compounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Why may dogs/cats get myelosuppression 7-10 days post chemotherapy?

A

Damage to haematopoietic stem cells
Neutropenia is generally the limiting toxicity (<3x10^9/L dog, <2.5x10^9/L cat)
Thrombocytopenia less common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What to do if pyrexic neutropenic patient 7-10 days post chemotherapy?

A
  • medical emergency as may be septic
  • translocation of bacteria from patient’s own GI flora
  • hospitalisation
  • stop all cytotoxic drugs
  • barrier nurse and aseptic technique
  • supportive therapy
  • bactericidal antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
What to do if asymtpmatic afebrile neutropenic patient: 
- <1x10^9/L
- 1-1.5x10^9/L
- 1.5-2x10^9/L
7-10 days post chemotherapy?
A
<1x10^9/L:
- ABs if indicated
- drug discontinuation and subsequent dose reduction
- check temperature
1-1.5x10^9/L:
- dose likely postponement
- no Abs unless good reason
1.5-2x10^9/L:
- dose may require postponement/modification
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which chemotherapy drug can cause cumulative cardio toxicity (DCM) in dogs?

A

Doxorubicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What variable onset toxicities are there of chemotherapy?

A

Alopecia - rare
Sterile haemorrhagic cystitis - cyclophosphamide
Hepatotoxicity - Iomustine (dogs)
Nephrotoxicity - cisplatin, doxorubicin (cats), Iomustine (dogs)
Peripheral neuropathy - vincristine
Fatal non cariogenic pulmonary oedema - cisplatin (cats)
Fatal CNS signs - 5-FU (cats)
Acute tumour lysis syndrome - large tumour burdens, rapid destruction of cancer cells, ARF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which chemotherapy drugs can cause extravasation? How to avoid it?

A

Vincristine and vinblastine are perivascular irritants (but stays local as non DNA binding)
Doxorubicin, epirubicin and Actinomycin D are catastrophic perivascular irritants (DNA binding so will spread)
Always use a cleanly placed first stick catheter
Monitor for any swelling, discomfort, changes in resistance to injection or rate of infusion
Never leave an animal unsupervised on an infusion
Flush catheters appropriately before catheter removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Treatment for extravasation from chemotherapy?

A

Doxorubicin/epirubicin/actinomycin D:
- cold packing
- dexrazoxane (expensive)
- topical DMSO (can’t use at same time as dexrazoxane)
- consider (immediate) surgical debridement
Vincristine/vinblastine:
- can try and aspirate drug back out
- hot packing q4h
- topical DMSO for a week
- don’t bandage
- hyaluronidase (unknown efficacy, may mop up free radicals, not recommended)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What is metronomic chemotherapy?

A
Continuous low dose chemotherapy (usually low dose cyclophosphamide with piroxicam or other NSAIDs)
More recently: addition of thalidomide
Dose dense chemotherapy strategy
Main target is angiogenesis
Also inhibition of CEPs
Stimulation of immune response
Direct action of tumour cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Tyrosine kinase inhibitors for chemotherapy?

A

Inhibit the activation of specific signalling pathways involved in specific types of cancer
Two oral drugs targeting the RTK KIT (toceranib and masitinib) licensed for treatment of mast cell tumours in dogs - only in very specific situations
Drugs affect non target tyrosine kinases:
- have an effect on angiogenesis
- other tumour targets
- toxicity
- need regular monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is immunotherapy?

A

Patient’s own immune system to target cancer cells
Highly selective
E.g. canine melanoma vaccine (produces anti-tyrosinase antibodies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Methods of radiotherapy?

A

Brachytherapy:
- direct application (pleisiotherapy)
- implantation (iridium wires to emit gamma rays)
- systemic administration (iodine 131 in feline hyperthyroidism)
Teletherapy:
- external beam (orthovoltage source, linear accelerator, cobalt 60)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Types of radiation used by teletherapy?

A
Electromagnetic radiation:
- X rays - high energy produced by linear accelerators or low energy produced by orthovoltage sources
- Gamma rays - cobalt sources
- Electrons
Particle beam therapy - heavy particles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What happens with low linear energy transfer of x rays or gamma rays for tele therapy radiation?

A

Loses energy slowly as passes through tissues
Deep penetration
Must consider effects on deep structures
Indirectly ionising - absorption by the Compton effect, interaction of photons with water molecules important
The maximum dose is not absorbed at the surface - build up effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the critical target for therapeutic radiation? What causes damage?

A

DNA
Ionised water molecules around DNA -> free radicals generated -> damage DNA
Damage is rapidly reversible unless fixed by oxygen
Oxygen inhibits the repair of free radical induced damage - forms irreversible peroxides
Requires 2/5-3 x more radiation to kill a hypoxic cell (larger tumours more difficult)
Cell death occurs due to:
- induction of apoptosis
- permanent cell cycle arrest
- mitotic catastrophe
Damage often not expressed until cell tries to divide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is a dual modality Linac? How does it work?

A

Produces photons and electrons

Couch, collimator and gantry rotate around a fixed point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How to target photons/electrons for radiotherapy?

A

Photons:
- shape beam with the jaws - rectangle or tumour shaped
- multiple beams can increase tumour dose while sparing surrounding tissue
Electrons:
- directly ionising
- loses energy rapidly as passes through tissue so ionisation only occurs superficially
- can treat superficial tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is fractionation?

A

= Giving multiple small doses instead of one big one
Aim is to achieve better tumour cell kill
Reduce repair and repopulation, achieve deoxygenation and redistribution
Larger fraction sizes: greater normal tissue damage, especially late responding tissues
Smaller fraction sizes: ideal for most tumours, more treatments required for the same anti-tumour effect
Once weekly, M-W-F or daily
Total dose of radiation required to kill cells is less if a few large doses are given rather than lots of smaller doses
2 doses of radiation given at separate times have less effect than the sum of the 2 doses given as a single treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What happens in tissues after radiotherapy that affects the response?

A

Repair
- between treatments cells can rapidly repair sublethal damage
- tumour cells and normal cells have similar capacities
Repopulation
- seen in rapidly dividing tissues
- cells are recruited from G0
- protects rapidly dividing normal tissues
- rapidly dividing tumours also repopulate effectively
Redistribution/reassortment
- cells are more sensitive to radiation in late G2 and M
- cells may become synchronised in post treatment period but soon lost
Reoxygenation
- changes in tumour vascularity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Limitations of fractionation for animal radiotherapy?

A

Requirement of GA
Cost
Owner reluctance - inconvenience, frequent visits, long hospitalisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Tumour features which affect the response to radiotherapy?

A

Tumour growth characteristics - slowly dividing tissues may be more radio resistant as fewer cells in sensitive phases
Tumour size - smaller tumours more sensitive, less likely to contain large numbers of hypoxic cells, easy to dose accurately and evenly
Inherent sensitivity
Tumour type
Tumour site
Patient species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What tumour types are highly radiosensitive?

A

Lymphoma
Transmissible venereal tumour
Gingival basal cell carcinoma (acanthomatous epulid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What tumour types are moderately radiosensitive?

A
Oral SCC (dogs)
Oral malignant melanoma (dogs)
Nasal tumours
Perianal adenocarcinoma
MCTs
Rhinarial SCC (cats)
Thyroid carcinomas
Brain tumours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What tumour types are poorly radiosensitive?

A
Fibrosarcomas
Haemangiopericytomas
Oral SCC (cats)
Osteosarcomas
Rhinarial SCC (dogs)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Side effects of radiotherapy? When seen? What?

A

Radiation damage not usually apparent until cells try to divide
Acute side effects:
- affect rapidly dividing tissues (skin, mm)
- erythema, desquamation
- develop during or soon after treatment (days-weeks)
- resolve within a few weeks of cessation of therapy
Late side effects:
- affects slowly dividing tissues
- develop many weeks, months or years after treatment
- potentially very serious e.g. necrosis of brain or bone tissue
- many inconsequential/less serious e.g. alopecia, skin fibrosis
- reduced healing capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Carcinogenesis of radiotherapy?

A

Radiation therapy is carcinogenic - DNA damage and mutagenesis
Tends to be a long time period before development of malignancy - usually years in dogs
Avoid irradiating young patients
Avoid irradiation caused by inadequate surgery or poor surgical planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Radiotherapy post-operatively for tumours?

A

Commonly used
After radical surgical debulking
First treatment immediately post-op
Remaining tumour has high growth fraction and should be well oxygenated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Radiotherapy intra-operatively for tumours?

A

Application to unresectable, otherwise inaccessible tumours at the time of surgery
Single large dose - side effects on normal tissues
Prolonged surgical time so greater morbidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Radiotherapy pre-operatively or neo-adjunctive for tumours?

A

Reduces tumour burden
Eliminates small numbers of tumour cells at the periphery of the lesion
Can have negative impact on wound healing
Used occasionally for OSA and ST sarcomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Radiotherapy outcomes?

A

The effects of radiation on tumour growth are not instantaneous
Residual mass may be left esp mesenchymal tumours
Analgesia may be achieved within hours - very valuable, powerful analgesic for the majority of patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Clinical signs of oral tumours?

A
Mass/facial swelling
Oral bleeding
Dysphagia/pain
Loose teeth/proliferative lesions noted at dentals (always biopsy lesions)
Halitosis
Epistaxis
Cervical lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Diagnosis and staging of oral tumours? Assessment of lymph nodes?

A
Assessment under GA usually required
Diagnosis - FNA or biopsy
Local staging:
- many are locally invasive
- visal assessment underestimates
- advanced imaging
Distant staging:
- thoracic imaging adequate for some, CT greater se
- abdominal imaging if melanoma
Always assess local lymph nodes:
- FNA submandibular lymph nodes
- consider imaging retropharyngeal nodes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Treatment for an oral tumour local disease?

A

Surgery preferred to RT where excision possible
At least 2cm margin required
Surgery well tolerated in dogs
Cats take long time to adjust after mandibulectomy and may need a feeding tube for several months
For FSA and SCC surgery, follow by adjuvant RT - better results than surgery alone
RT alone is reasonable option for oral melanoma - 4 fractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Complications of surgery for oral tumours?

A
Bleeding
Recurrence
Infection
Altered cosmetic appearance
Difficulty pretending food
Salivation
Mandibular drift after semi-mandibulectomy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Oral melanoma - which animals generally? Diagnosis? Invasiveness? Metastatic potential?

A

Generally smaller, older dogs
GRT, cocker spaniel, miniature poodle, chow chow
Diagnosis based upon melanin containing mesenchymal cells
Some tumours don’t contain melanin and IHC required to diagnose
Locally invasive
High metastatic rate (up to 80%) - check both submandibular lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Oral melanoma - treatment options

A
Surgery associated with quite high rates of local recurrence:
- maxillectomy 48%
- mandibulectomy 22%
- higher risk of metastasis if >2cm
- lower risk if more complete excision
- 1 year survival 35%
Radiotherapy:
- 4 fractions -> RR >80%
- median time to recurrence 5 months
- 1 year survival 36%
Chemotherapy can induce responses but does not appear to extend survival
Plasmid vaccine immunotherapy:
- used in stage II and III disease
- targets melano-protein (tyrosinase)
- injection leads to expression of human tyrosinase in dog cells
- stimulates immune response
- may help a minority of patients
- no side effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Survival time with oral melanoma if distant metastasis?

A

<3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Oral squamous cell carcinomas - metastatic rate? Treatment options?

A
Low metastatic rate
- LN 10%
- distant < 35%
Local surgery:
- mandible 10% recurrence
- maxilla 30% recurrence
- rostral mandible lesions have better outcome
- MST 19-26 months
Radiotherapy:
- MST 15 months
Surgery and radiotherapy 
- MST 34 months
- good option for incomplete excision
Medical therapy
- metastatic disease
- neoadjuvant
- when other therapies not possible 
- Piroxicam RR 20%
- Piroxicam + Carboplatin CR 57%
- sustained responses with MST 18 months
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Clinical presentation of tonsillar squamous cell carcinoma? Metastatic rate? Treatment options? Prognosis (MST)?

A

Dysphagia, coughing
Enlarged cervical lymph nodes -> abscessation (FNA yields necrotic debris and sometimes tumour cells)
Oral exam - enlargement of one or both tonsils
Metastatic rate >70%
Local control of tonsillar enlargement - surgery or RT
Surgery or RT for lymph node metastasis
Carboplatin or mitoxantrone chemotherapy for be beneficial
MST 7 months
Patients who receive the most therapy survive longest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Oral fibrosarcoma - Which animals? Invasiveness? Metastatic risk? Treatment options? MST?

A
Large breed dogs especially GRT and labrador
Middle aged dogs (median 7.5years)
Invasive
Low/moderate metastatic risk - lung and occasionally lymph nodes
Surgery single most important therapy:
- but RR 40-60%
- MST 1y after surgery
Multimodal therapy often best outcomes:
- surgery and RT: MST 18-26 months
- RR 30%
RT alone
- MST 7 montjs
Smaller tumours better outcomes
- T1 tumours MST 31 months
- T2 and T3 tumours (>2cm) MST 7 months
Cats - similar to dogs, successful surgery has better outcome, mandibular more easily addressed, RT can be helpful
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Problem with low histological grade high biological grade sarcomas of the mouth? Treatment?

A

Aggressive, rapidly progressing oral tumour with benign histological appearance even after large biopsy
Tumours reported as low grade, fibroma or even granulation tissue or epulis
Very locally invasive so aggressive local management with surgery and RT required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are epulides? Types?

A

Benign lesions arising from gingiva
Acanthomatous - aggressive local behaviour and bone invasion
Peripheral odontogenic fibroma - slow growing firm masses usually not invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Oral osteosarcoma - treatment options? MST?

A
Surgery most important treatment
RT does not extend survival
Mandibular 14-18 months
Maxillary 5-10 months
Complete excision vital
Local RR >80%
Significance of chemotherapy unknown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What less common oral tumours are there? Treatment?

A

MCT and haemangiosarcoma
Plasmacytoma
Oral lymphoma - generally require multi-agent chemotherapy, some dogs with oral (only) epitheliotrophic lymphoma can do well with RT alone
Undifferentiated tumour of young dogs - rare, grave prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Feline oral squamous cell carcinoma - what increases the risk? Signs? Invasiveness? Metastatic risk? Site?

A

Most common feline oral tumour
Risk increased by:
- use of flea collars
- exposure to smoking
- canned food including canned tuna
Causes considerable oral discomfort -> anorexia
Locally invasive
Low metastatic risk - higher risk in caudally positioned lesions
Predilection at base of tongue (but can be anywhere in mouth)
Bone invasive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Outcome of feline oral squamous cell carcinomas?

A

Cats with surgical resectable disease can have a good outcome but recurrence is common
Best outcomes in rostral mandibular SCC - long term feeding tubes often needed for several months
Soft tissue lesions affecting the tongue have a poor prognosis as resections are difficult
RT occasionally helpful
ECT is an emerging therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Oral multilobular oesteochondrosarcoma in dogs - appearance?

A

Popcorn appearance

Usually local problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Oral viral papillomatosis in dogs - appearance? Prognosis?

A

Wart like lesions affecting oral soft tissues
Usually resolve in 4-8 weeks
Occasionally persist in immunosuppressed animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Oral eosinophilic granuloma - which animals? Treatment?

A

Dogs:
- granuloma affecting ventral and lateral aspect of tongue
- husky and CKCS
- surgery and corticosteroids
Cats:
- typically erosive lesions affecting upper lip near midline
- steroids/hypoallergenic diets, RT, surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Transmissible venereal tumours in dogs - transmission? Prognosis?

A

Proliferative lesion affecting dogs who have been licking place they shoudn’t whilst on hols in southern europe
Spontaneous regression and very responsive to vincristine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Effect of neutering on risk of mammary tumours?

A

Neutering prior to first oestrus – 0.5 % risk
Neutering prior to second oestrus – 8 % risk
Neutering prior to third oestrus – 26 % risk
No risk reduction if neutering after the second season
Must balance early neutering against risk of urinary incontinence
Progestin, oestrogen use increases risk of tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Risk factors for mammary tumours?

A
Obesity:
- reduced sex hormone-binding globulin -> oestrogen levels
- underweight at puberty reduces risk
Age:
- mean age with benign tumours 7-9yo
- mean age with malignant tumours 9-11yo
- mean age of cats 10-12yo
Breed:
- poodles, chihuahua, dachshund, maltese, cocker spaniels and yorkshire terriers
- siamese cats
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Diagnosis and staging of canine and mammary tumours?

A

> 70% have more than one tumour
30-50% are malignant
Incidence increases after 6yo
Majority of malignant tumours are carcinomas
FNA can be useful to exclude other ddx e.g. mastitis, lipoma, MCT
Excisional biopsy by single or segmental mastectomy reasonable for single lesions without negative prognostic indicators
Staging prior to treatment of suspicious lesions
Tumours >3cm have poorer outcome
Local staging:
- assessment of local lymph nodes
- cranial two glands drain to axillary lymph node
- caudal two glands drain to inguinal lymph node
- middle gland drains either way
Distant staging
- thoracic radiographs
- abdominal ultrasound
- consider bone pain as mammary tumours metastasise to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Surgery for canine mammary tumours?

A

Single mastectomy adequate for low risk lesions
Consider regional mastectomy in higher risk tumours or intact bitches - cranial 3 or caudal 3 glands
55% of intact bitches develop a new tumour on the ipsilateral side so consider unilateral chain mastectomy
Likely hormone field effect so consider bilateral resection in young intact bitches with multiple tumours
Mobile lesions - whole gland removal enough
Fixed lesions - need 2cm margins and removal of affected abdominal fascia/wall - if neutering do not penetrate tumour before
Ovariohysterectomy at time of mastectomy in dogs with benign mammary tumours halves the chance of a new mammary tumour (to 35%)
Benefit of OHE less clear for carcinoma but unlikely to be detrimental
Benefit of OHE at time of mastectomy has not been evaluated in cats

128
Q

Post surgical prognostic factors for mammary tumours

A
Tumour type
- Benign versus malignant
- Less tissue heterogeneity associated with a poorer outcome
- Osteosarcoma - poorer
Inflammatory carcinoma - very poor
Possible prognostic factors
- Ki-67
- Grade
- Hormone receptor expression - lack of expression correlate with poorer outcome
129
Q

Canine inflammatory carcinomas (mammary) - Presentation? Behaviour? FNA results? Treatment? Prognosis?

A

Extremely painful, oedema, inflammation, often ulcerated, rash like appearance
Rapid growth, invade cutaneous lymphatics
Difficult to differentiate from mastitis on clinical exam and cytology
FNA yields inflammatory cells and tumour cells
Excision not typically feasible - recurrence very common
Treatment is palliative
Medical therapy might prolong survival for few months
Generally very poor prognosis

130
Q

Clinical presentation of feline mammary tumours? What type are most? Ddx?

A

Often poorly defined, grow rapidly, metastasise to lymph nodes and lungs early
Mainly occur in intact females
>60% have more than one tumour at diagnosis
95% are malignant
Most are adenocarcinomas
Poor prognosis
A significant dddx is fibroepithelial hyperplasia - usually all glands enlarged

131
Q

Clinical prognostic indicators for feline mammary tumours?

A

Tumour size (>2 cm MST 6 months, <2 cm MST >3 years)
Lymph node metastasis - lymphatic drainage less predictable than dog, assess inguinal and axillary nodes bilaterally
Distant metastasis
Breed - DSH have better outcome

132
Q

Surgery for feline mammary tumours?

A

Chain mastectomy better than single or regional mastectomy
Unilateral when lesions on one side
Stage bilateral when lesions bilateral
Surgical resection of inguinal and /or axillary lymph nodes for high risk tumours recommended by some

133
Q

Chemotherapy for mammary tumours?

A

Poss benefit of 5-FU and cyclophosphamide in dogs
Doxorubicin often used in dogs
>50% of cats showed a gross response to doxorubicin
Doxorubicin and cyclophosphamide associated with prolonged survival in one study in cats

134
Q

What is a sarcoma?

A

A malignant cancer that arises from transformed cells of mesenchymal origin

135
Q

Sarcoma subtypes (by cell of origin)?

A

Connective tissue - soft tissue sarcoma, fibrosarcoma, myxosarcoma
Peripheral nerves - peripheral nerve sheath tumour
Bone - osteosarcoma
Blood vessels - haemangiosarcoma
Muscle – rhabdomyosarcoma (striated muscle rare), leiomyosarcoma (smooth muscle - uncommon)
Fat – infiltrative lipoma, liposarcoma
Cartilage - chondrosarcoma, synovial cell sarcoma
(Lymphatic and haematopoetic cells – many of these tumours are considered separately – based on behaviour)

136
Q

Behaviour of sarcomas?

A

Locally invasive
Metastatic risk varies by type:
- lower risk <40%: peripheral nerve sheath tumour, fibrosarcoma/soft tissue sarcoma, histiocytic sarcoma around joint, chondrosarcoma, feline injection site sarcoma
- higher risk >90%: osteosarcoma, haemangiosarcoma, histiocytic sarcoma not around joint
- PNST, FSA and STS: low grade 10%, intermediate grade 20%, high grade 40%

137
Q

Where to image for sarcomas?

A

All have predilection for lung metastasis - inflated 3 view thoracic radiographs
CT more sensitive if availble
Abdomen, areas of bone pain, echocardiography depending on tumour type

138
Q

Osteosarcomas - which animals generally? Which limbs?

A
Middle age and older dogs
Typically large breeds
- front limbs 2:1 hind limbs
- appendicular skeleton: metaphysis of long bones
- 'near the knee, away from the elbow'
Small breeds <15kg only 5% of cases
- 60% in axial skeleton
139
Q

Clinical signs and diagnosis of osteosarcomas?

A

Pain and lameness
- sudden and progressive onset
- localisation to a single bone or joint
Radiographic changes:
- bone lysis
- soft tissue swelling
- new bone - palisades perpendicular ro bone
- periosteal elevation - Codman’s triangle
- zone of transition
Cytology or histology needed to confirm diagnosis

140
Q

Treatment for osteosarcomas?

A

Aims are to prevent/reduce pain and slow development of metastatic disease
Amputation:
- most tolerate well
- even large with mild-moderate orthopaedic problems
- pain free around 1 week after amputation
- complete ambulatory adaptation takes around 1 month
Analgesia - multimodal, opioids, NSAIDs, paracetamol, amantadine
Slow bone destruction - biphosphanates e.g. pamidronate
Reduce sensation - radiation therapy (1 fraction yields pain relied in 60-90% cases for 1-3 months)
Ongoing and increasing risk of pathological fracture
Bone stabilisation and fixation - spares surgery, aims to retain limb function, selected cases for lower limb lesions, high rate of infection and implant failure, patient never pain free

141
Q

Metastasis and chemotherapy of osteosarcomas?

A

95% have metastasis at diagnosis - mostly micrometastasis
Chemotherapy extends survival in patients without gross metastasis at diagnosis
- carboplatin or anthracyclines
- MST 9-11 months, compared to 5-6 months with surgery alone
Toceranib may be helpful in presence of gross metastasis
Conventional chemotherapy does not extend survival with gross metastasis

142
Q

Osteosarcoma prognostic factors in dogs?

A

Location:
- humerus poorer prognosis
- skull has lower metastatic rate - local invasion still problem
- rib, vertebral and pelvis all poorer
Presence of metastatic disease
Total alkaline phosphatase - indirect measure of bone isoenzyme ALKP

143
Q

Cats with primary bone tumours - treatment?

A

Usually cured by surgery alone

144
Q

Treatment for soft tissue sarcoma?

A

Wide surgical resection
If histologically incomplete margins, wide surgical resection of scar or adjuvant radiotherapy
Histologically complete margins -> grade tumour, consider follow up adjuvant chemotherapy with doxorubicin

145
Q

Surgical margins for soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Ideal surgical margins: 3cm lateral and 1 fascial plane beyond the extent of tumour
‘Tumour’ includes FNA tracts and biopsy scars
Not always possible

146
Q

Assessment of margins of excision? How are they assessed?

A
Assessed histologically
Aim is complete excision
Can be incomplete excision
Excision with narrow margins - rule of thumb 1-3mm between tumour and small edges
Most common method of assessment:
- 3 sections
- relies on mass being spheroid
- not always true - some tumours invade along tissue planes
147
Q

Treatment options form microscopic disease remaining or narrow margins excisions of soft tissue sarcomas?

A

Further wide surgical excision
Adjuvant radiation therapy
Metronomic chemotherapy (usually cyclophosphamide and an NSAID, risk of sterile haemorrhagic cystitis, stop if haematuria and no UTI)
Active monitoring - only when chance of recurrence considered low:
- lower grade tumours
- when no gross disease left in animal
- margins are incomplete in a small area not for whole sample
- monitor monthly for at least a year

148
Q

Response rate of soft tissue sarcomas to chemotherapy as anti-metastatic treatment?

A

<40%

149
Q

Outcome of soft tissue sarcoma treatment in patients without metastatic disease?

A

Successful surgery +/- RT associated with very good survival MST>4 years

150
Q

Prognostic factors for soft tissue sarcoma treatment?

A

Tumour grade and mitotic rate
Tumour size
Tumour location
Achieving local control of the tumour

151
Q

Feline injection site sarcomas - histology?

A

Malignant fibroblasts
Inflammation - often high lymphocyte component
Macrophages taking up foreign material thought to be adjuvant/carrier

152
Q

FISS - diagnosis and staging?

A

3-2-1 rule: be suspicious of any mass that:
- Persists longer than 3 months after an injection
- Is > 2cm
- Increases in size after 1 month after an injection
Cytology not always helpful
- reported as inflammation 50% of time
- biopsy better
Advanced imaging
- local staging: assess size and margins as highly invasive
- distant staging (metastatic rate around 20%)

153
Q

FISS treatment?

A

Surgery:
- 3-5 cm surgical margins required to give a chance of surgical cure
- can involve removal of spinous processes of vertebrae
- first surgery is best chance of a good outcome
- outcomes are better if surgery is performed by a specialist
Adjuvant treatments:
- pre-op radiation therapy and/or chemotherapy can be useful for non resectable tumours
- RT for incomplete resections or marginal resections
- doxorubicin based chemotherapy - prolongs survival in cats treated with surgery, radiation therapy and then chemotherapy

154
Q

FISS prevention?

A

Injections to be given in sites amenable to wide surgical excision e.g. limb or tail
Reduce inflammatory reactions at injection sites - avoid irritating substances where possible
Don’t over-vaccinate

155
Q

Clinical signs and diagnosis of haemangiosarcomas?

A

Clinical signs usually associated with bleeding
- shock, collapse, haemoabdomen or pericardial effusion
- intramuscular bruising in the dependent part of the limb
- pericardial effusion if right auricular appendage
Clinical pathology changes reflect bleeding and altered coagulation
- anaemia and sometimes schistocytosis
- in early stages of bleeding: effusion and reduced TP precede measurable anaemia
- low platelet count
- prolonged coagulation tests and DIC
Diagnosis usually requires histological confirmation

156
Q

Staging of haemangiosarcomas? Poor prognostic factors?

A

Should be performed prior to any splenectomy
- thoracic and abdominal +/- cardiac imaging
- in older dogs hyperplastic liver nodules cannot be differentiated from metastasis on appearance alone - requires cytology/histology
Poor prognostic factors:
- invasive tumours
- tumour rupture and bleeding into the abdomen (but diagnosis often not known at this point, other types of splenic tumour will also rupture)

157
Q

Treatment of primary splenic haemangiosarcoma?

A

For splenic tumours surgery is important as a diagnostic tool
50 – 50 rule for splenic tumours
Surgical excision of spleen or masses where possible
Beware of ventricular arrythmias after splenectomy
Tumours are responsive to radiation - useful for muscular or dermal tumours

158
Q

Treatment of haemangiosarcoma metastatic disease? Survival?

A

Survival with metastasis typically 4-6 weeks
Chemotherapy more useful if no gross metastasis
Systemic chemotherapy with anthracycline based protocol
- 4-6 treatments at 3 weekly intervals
- for splenic HSA if no metastasis on staging sx alone MST 2-4 mths; sx + Doxorubicin MST 4-6 mths
Metronomic chemotherapy another option

159
Q

Outcomes of haemangiosarcomas (MST)?

A

Splenic, intramuscular/subcutaneous and right atrial appendage HSA have a poor px - MST not past 6 months in most studies
Intramuscular HSA in cats can be less aggressive
Dermal HSA can have an excellent outcome - MST of around 1000 days

160
Q

Histiocytic sarcomas?

A

Highly metastatic sarcoma
Arising from histiocytes – professional antigen presenting cells of the immune system
Can affect lung, spleen, liver, bone, brain and joint
Best outcomes are achieved with multi-modal therapy
- Surgery, radiation and lomustine / anthracycline chemotherapy
- Dogs wt gross metastasis have quite short survival: MST circa 4 – 5 months
- Dogs with complete response to therapy or no metastasis at diagnosis who have chemotherapy live much longer: MST circa 500 days
Dogs with periarticular histiocytic sarcoma have much better survival if no metastasis at staging: MST around 950 days

161
Q

Clinical presentation of mast cell tumours (MCT)?

A

Any age and no sex predilection
Breed predilections e.g. Boxer, Boston Terrier
Usually solitary
44% develop new mass post treatment
Local effects - erythema, oedema, pruritus, haemorrhage
Systemic signs - vomiting, melaena, rarely collapse

162
Q

What are mast cell tumours made up of?

A

Intracytoplasmic granules containing histamine, heparin and proteases -> degranulation

163
Q

Diagnosis of MCTs?

A

FNA - usually diagnostic, round cells, characteristic purple granules, Diff Quick usually fine
For some poorly differentiated, biopsy +/- IHC required

164
Q

Staging of MCTs?

A

Haematology/biochemsitry/urine analysis usually unremarkable, rule out any other problems
FNA of local LN - always FNA regional LN regardless of size
Abdominal ultrasound - assess liver, spleen , LNs, FNA of spleen (routine - controversial), FNA of liver if abnormal)
Thoracic radiography
- lung metastasis uncommon but to evaluate sternal LN and
Buffy coat - non specific and greater in inflammatory disease
Bone marrow aspirates - rare unless extensive disease
Biopsy - FNA inconclusive, pre-surgical to determine grade

165
Q

Factors affecting prognosis of MCTs?

A
Location
Breed
Appearance
Systemic illness
Recurrence
Clinical staging - ie presence of metastatic disease
Tumour histological grade - most important prognostic indicator
Ki67
AGNORs
C-kit mutation
166
Q

Patnaik grading system for MCTs?

A
Grades I (low) - III (high)
Grade I: well differentiated tumours:
- benign (<10% metastasis)
- low recurrence rate
- unlikely to cause death (up to 7-12%)
Grade II: intermediate tumours:
- variably metastatic (5-22%)
- cause of death in 17-56% of patients
- nodal metastases associated with poorer prognosis in some studies
Grade III: poorly differentiated tumours:
- highly metastatic (>80%)
- likely to be cause of death
167
Q

Kiupel grading system for MCTs?

A

Low grade and high grade
Low grade: MST > 2 years
High grade: MST < 4 months

168
Q

Surgery for MCTs?

A

3cm margins and 1 fascial plane deep
1-2cm lateral margins may be adequate for grade I and II tumours
Histopathology of all excised masses - grade and assess margins
Potential to be curative for grade I and II

169
Q

MCT recurrence?

A

23% of incompletely excised grade II

5-11% completely excised

170
Q

Indications for radiotherapy for MCTs?

A

Post op of incompletely excised MCTs
Local nodal metastasis
Gross disease - degranulation

171
Q

Indications for chemotherapy for MCTs? Which drugs?

A

High grade and/or confirmed metastasis
Neoadjunctively prior to surgery
Residual microscopic disease
Commonly used:
- vinblastine and prednisolone, approx 50% response rate with gross disease
- lomustine
- TKIs (toceranib/mastinib, have to test for KIT mutation on histopath, only 30% will respond if haven’t got mutation)

172
Q

Clinical presentation, diagnosis and treatment of feline cutaneous MCT?

A

Cutaneous raised hairless masses
Easily diagnosed by cytology and rarely metastatic
Multiple tumours
Surgical excision is usually curative

173
Q

Treatment of feline visceral MCTs?

A

Splenic: splenectomy, unclear role of chemotherapy
Intestinal: metastasis common, poor prognosis, chemotherapy/TKI?

174
Q

TCCs - location? metastasis? Signs?

A

Most commonly -> bladder trigone but urethra and prostate
High metastatic rate to medial iliac lymph nodes and other organs
Metastatic rate 14% (local) and 16% (distant) at diagnosis but up to 50% at necropsy
Breed predisposition - Scottish Terriers
LUT signs - haematuria, stranguria, pollakyuria
Occasionally signs related to bone metastasis (lameness_ or renal dysfunction
Signs can be present for months as dog gets treated for ‘complicated UTIs’
Signs may improve with antibiotics

175
Q

Diagnosis of TCCs?

A

Histopathology
Risk of seeding with FNA
Traumatic cathetarisation
Prostatic wash

176
Q

Staging of TCCs?

A

Haematology/Biochemistry/Urine analysis (including culture):
- may show neutrophilia, renal dysfunction, presence of UTI
- rule out any other problems
Abdominal ultrasound
- assess bladder wall, urethra, prostate and kidneys +/- metastasis in other organs
- FNA
T&A radiography
- lung metastasis uncommon
- bone metastasis

177
Q

Treatment of TCCs?

A

Surgery rarely possible due to location
External beam radiotherapy - high rate of complications
Medical treatment:
- NSAIDs alone: MST 181 days
- Mitoxantrone and NSAIDs: MST 291 days
- Other chemotherapy drugs (Vinblastine, chlorambucil, carboplatin)
Palliative care
- regular urine cultures and antibiotic courses as appropriate
cystotomy tubes/ Urethral stents

178
Q

Prognosis of TCCs?

A

Poor long term prognosis but quality of life can be maintained for several months.
Local disease most likely cause of death/euthanasia (MST 6-8 months).
Rapid deterioration due to renal failure or clinical signs associated with bone metastasis (pain) also possible
Owner counselling and regular monitoring of quality of life.

179
Q

What is lymphoma? Aetiology?

A

A group of neoplasms that arise from the lymphoreticular cells (T or B cells)
Normally arise from lymphoid tissue but can arise from virtually any tissue
Aetiology: multifactorial and largely unknown
- genetic and molecular factors
- infectious diseases (retroviruses/Epstain-Barr virus/Helicobacter)
- toxins
- immunological factors

180
Q

Clinical presentation of lymphoma?

A

Can affect virtually any dog
Middle age to old dogs
Breed predispositions - boxer, bullmastiff, english bulldogs
Intact females have reduced risk

181
Q

Anatomical classification of lymphoma?

A
Multicentric
Craniomediastinal 
Gastro-intestinal
Cutaneous
Extra-nodal forms (CNS, renal, heart, bladder)
182
Q

Clinical signs of multi centric lymphoma?

A

Generalised peripheral lymphadenopathy +/- other signs:

  • moderate to marked lymph node enlargement
  • some dogs clinically well
  • rapid deterioration
  • non specific signs (weight loss, inappetance/anorexia, lethargy, pyrexia)
  • more specific signs (diarrhoea, vomiting, cough, ocular signs)
  • regional oedema if lymph drainage impaired
183
Q

Clinical signs of cranial mediastinal lymphoma?

A

Can be solitary lesion or part of multi centric form
Tachypnoea, dyspnoea
Signs of hypercalcaemia (PU/PD, vomiting/diarrhoea, muscle tremors, anorexia, weight loss)
Occasionally pre-caval syndrome
Altered position of PMI for cardiac auscultation, displacement of apex beat

184
Q

Clinical signs of GI (alimentary) lymphoma?

A
Weight loss, anorexia
Pan-hypoproteinaemia (hypoalbuminemia),
Evidence of malabsorption
Abdominal masses or diffuse
Occasionally multicentric lymphadenopathy
Tends to be aggressive in dogs
185
Q

Forms of cutaneous lymphoma? Appearance?

A

Epitheliotrophic: T cell, solitary or generalised
Non-epitheliotrophic: more frequently B cell, more likely to have lesions elsewhere
Progression to raised, erythematous plaques/nodules
Variable pruritus
In general poorly responsive to chemotherapy

186
Q

Features of hepatosplenic and CNS lymphoma?

A

Hepatosplenic: aggressive, no peripheral lymphadenopathy, T cell
CNS: mass lesion or diffuse, commonly ocular involvement, generally T cell

187
Q

Define paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

A syndrome (set of signs) that is a consequence of the tumour but it is not due to the presence of tumour cells in that location

188
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes seen with lymphoma?

A

Hypercalcaemia (PTHrp): T cell (35%), mediastinal and GI forms
Immune mediated diseases: IMHA, IMTP, pemphigus foliaceous
Monoclonal gammopathies: B cell
Neuropathies
Cachexia

189
Q

Diagnosis of lymphoma?

A

Always cytological or histopathological
Ancillary tests:
- PARR (PCR): clonality and phenotype (B or T cell)
- Flow cytometry: cell size, phenotype and expression of aberrant markers, requires living cells
- Immunohistochemistry
- Multiple biomarker test (canine lymphoma blood test, cLBT)

190
Q

Staging of lymphoma?

A

Stage I: single lymph node or lymphoid tissue in a single organ
Stage II: multiple lymph nodes in one region +/- tonsils
Stage III: generalised lymph node involvement
Stage IV: hepatic and/or splenic involvement
Grade V: manifestations in the blood and involvement of bone marrow and/or other organ systems (extra nodal forms always stage V, poorer prognosis)

Haematology
- thrombocytopenia 
- neutrophilia
- lymphocytosis
- abnormal cells on smear
Biochemistry
- hypercalcaemia
Aspirate or biopsy of other lymph nodes/organs
Thoracic radiographs, abdominal ultrasound
Bone marrow biopsy
191
Q

Treatment of lymphoma?

A

No treatment
- MST 4-6 weeks for asymptomatic dogs
- consider euthanasia for symptomatic dogs
Prednisolone alone
- ORR 30% median response duration 1-2 months
Gold standard is multidrug chemotherapy
- survival time varies
- lower doses and prolonged intervals between doses compared to humans -> less side effects
- rarely curative and very prolonged survivals in 20% of cases
- high dose COP
- discontinuous CHOP/CEOP

Local treatments:
Radiation may be useful for stage I disease, palliative therapy of local disease and mass lesions on CNS
Surgery could be considered for rare Hodgkin’s lymphoma and possibly extra nodal and early stage I disease
Local treatments generally adjuvant of chemotherapy, not substitute

192
Q

High dose COP for lymphoma?

A

Preferred to low dose COP
= cyclophosphamide, vincristine, prednisolone
Well tolerated protocol
Easily and safely administered in general practice setting
Haematology performed prior to each treatment
Urine sample prior to each cyclophosphamide
Overall response rate 60-80%
Median survival around 6-9 months

193
Q

Discontinuous CHOP/CEOP for lymphoma?

A

= cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin/epirubicin, vincristine, prednisolone
Response rate 90-95%
Median survival time 1–12 months
No advantage to continuous treatment

194
Q

Specific chemotherapy toxicities of cyclophosphamide, doxirubicin/epirubicin and lomustine? How to avoid?

A

Cyclophosphamide: sterile haemorrhagic cystitis - furosemide, encourage urination
Doxorubicin/epirubicin: cardiotoxicity - echocardiographic monitoring
Lomustine: hepatotoxicity - monitor ALT and liver protectors

195
Q

What must be considered when treating CNS lymphoma?

A

Many drugs do not penetrate blood brain barrier - cytarabine, lomustine, steroids, L-asparaginase

196
Q

Treatment for epitheliotrophic lymphoma?

A

Typical protocols are COP or CCNU + Prednisolone:
- no proven extension of life span (6-8 months)
- may improve quality of life
- response to treatment can be hard to gauge due to natural behaviour of disease
Retinoids have also been used with moderate success for controlling clinical signs (pruritus)
Radiation therapy is very useful for localized mucocutaneous disease

197
Q

Assessing response of lymphoma patient to treatment?

A

Palpation of lymph nodes/other lesions prior to every treatment
Resolution of clinical signs
Repeating imaging (restaging) for internal lesions
Monitoring blood parameters (Ca, ALT etc.)
Achieving a complete response (CR) is vital:
- increases time to relapse
- increases survival time
- being in CR at the end of a discontinuous protocol leads to a very high chance of regaining remission later using the same protocol
If CR not achieved, suggests resistant population of tumour cells - will rapidly become the dominant population

198
Q

Rescue protocols for lymphoma if complete response of lymphoma not achieved/initial treatment not worked?

A

DMAC (Dexamethasone, Melphalan, Actinomycin-D, Citarabine)
CCNU, L-asparaginase and prednisolone
Single agent anthracyclines (doxorubicin/ epirubicin) if not already used
In general short lived responses but occasional long term survivors

199
Q

Follow up of lymphoma complete response patients following treatment? When is restating needed?

A

Monthly at least for the first 6 months and every 2-3 months thereafter
Average time to relapse 4 months but very variable
Restaging:
- when there are no sentinel lymph nodes to follow
- when patient not doing as well as expected or all clinical signs do not resolve
- at the end of the induction phase
- at the end of a discontinuous protocol

200
Q

What is an appropriate reticulocyte count?

A

In mild anaemia: >60

Get from cases

201
Q

What are schistocytes?

A

Abnormally shaped RBCs

Indicates shearing through narrow vessels

202
Q

Types of lymphoma seen in cats?

A

Pre FeLV: mediastinal/multicentric lymphoma in young/adult cats
Post FeLV: gastrointestinal lymphoma in geriatric cats (most common intestinal tumour in cats)

203
Q

How does FIV cause lymphoma?

A

Oncogenesis through immune suppression
B cell lymphomas
GIT more often affected

204
Q

Risk of developing lymphoma in cats with FIV and FeLV?

A

FeLV +ve: 62 x risk
FIV +ve: 5-6 x risk
FeLV and FIV +ve: 80 x risk

205
Q

Aetiological factors for lymphoma in cats?

A
FeLV
FIV
Genetic predisposition
Altered expression of oncogenes, tumour expression genes
Epigenetic modifications
Tobacco smoke
Chronic inflammatory conditions ie IBD
206
Q

Types of lymphoma in cats?

A
Nodal lymphoma (multicentric)
Alimentary lymphoma
Mediastinal lymphoma
Extranodal lymphoma
- nasal/retrobulbar
- laryngeal
- renal
- CNS
- ocular 
- cutaneous
207
Q

Features of nodal-multicentric lymphoma in cats? Clinical signs?

A
True multi centric lymphoma with symmetrical generalised lymphadenopathy is rare in cats (most common form in dogs)
Regional lymphadenopathy more common
Middle aged cats
Clinical signs:
- non painful lymph node enlargement
- anorexia
- depression
- non specific malaise
- pyrexia
- (PUPD)
208
Q

Clinical signs of mediastinal lymphoma in cats? Examination findings?

A
Younger cats? Siamese?
Respiratory distress
Regurgitation/dysphagia
Weight loss
Lethargy, exercise intolerance
Cough (rare)
Palpable reduction in compressibility of cranial thorax
Decreased lung sounds
209
Q

Differentials for mediastinal lymphoma in cats?

A

Thymoma
Other cranial mediastinal lymphadenopathy
Other causes of pleural effusions - CHF, pyothorax, FIP, haemothorax

210
Q

Differentials for nodal-multicentric lymphoma in cats?

A

Retroviral, viral, bacterial, fungal, mycobacterial and (protozoal) infections
Immune mediated disease
Idiopathic forms
Metastatic disease (regional)

211
Q

Clinical signs of alimentary lymphoma in cats?

A

Older cats
Insidious weight loss
Anorexia - more common and severe in cats than dogs
Diarrhoea (may not be observed)
Malabsorption/PLE
Occasionally vomiting - gastric involvement

212
Q

Differentials of alimentary lymphoma in cats?

A
Many other causes of GI signs
FIP
IBD
Metastatic neoplasia
Pancreatitis
Mycobacterial infection
213
Q

Extranodal lymphoma in cats? Clinical signs?

A

CNS
Nasal/retrobulbar - nasal discharge, epistaxis, obstruction, exopthalmos
Renal - malaise, anorexia, renomegaly (bilateral), azotaemia

214
Q

Renal lymphoma in cats?

A

Degree of azotaemia not prognostic of outcome
Overall low response rate and poor survival time
High incidence of CNS involvement in cats with renal lymphoma - few agents cross blood brain barrier, add cytosine arabinoside in induction?

215
Q

Cutaneous lymphoma in cats?

A

Generally non epitheliotropic in cats
Generally not very responsive to chemotherapy - clinical response is not as rapid as skin must repair
Role of retinoids - in amelioration of clinical signs of epitheliotropic lymphoma
Other agents e.g. interferon

216
Q

FNA for lymphoma in cats?

A

Cats often have low grade small cell or mixed lymphomas, especially multicentric lymphomas - difficult to differentiate from reactive hyperplasia on cytology, FNAs much less likely to be diagnostic than in dogs
Cranial mediastinal and extra nodal lymphomas may be higher grade - easier to diagnose on FNA
Renal lymphoma often requires biopsy
GI lymphomas often high grade (can be low) - LN FNA in GI lymphoma rarely diagnostic

217
Q

Biopsy for diagnosis of lymphoma in cats?

A

Excisions biopsy of node
Avoid Trucut needle biopsies - except renal lymphoma (check co-ag times)
Wedge biopsy from extra nodal lesion or enormous node - impression smears
If chance of mycobacterial disease (or fungal) keep some fresh tissue

218
Q

PARR for diagnosis of lymphoma in cats?

A

= PCR for antigen receptor rearrangements
Clonality detection - identifies a clonal population in a background of normal lymphocytes
High specificity
Clonality not only feature of neoplasia
Can get negative results if not enough cells
Identifies 65-70% of lymphomas in cats

219
Q

Clinical staging, grading and typing of lymphoma in cats?

A

Don’t fit in standard staging used for dogs
No simple useful staging system adopted
WHO grading for canine lymphoma recently applied to cats
Immunophenotype not prognostic

220
Q

Positive and negative prognostic indicators for lymphoma in cats?

A
Positive:
- Achieving CR
- Small volume extra nodal disease - nasal lymphoma
- T cell immunophenotype in indolent lymphomas?
Negative:
- Failure to achieve CR
- FeLV +ve status
- previous therapy with corticosteroids?
221
Q

Treatment of lymphoma?

A

Corticosteroids
Multi drug regimes - COP, CHOP, COAP
Non continuous regimes - poorly evaluated for cats
High dose COP (cyclophosphamide, vincristine, prednisolone) is excellent protocol for cats - 75% CR, 1 year survival 49%, 2 year survival 40%
Use of doxorubicin controversial - poor response rates was single agent
Survival times for multi drug regimes disappointing: MW 5-6 months

222
Q

Median survival of cat with lymphoma without therapy?

A

4 weeks

223
Q

Patient monitoring for side effects of cat with lymphoma treated with chemotherapy

A

Myelosuprpessive agents - check haemorrhage prior to every bolus dose, on low dose COP check at appropriate intervals
Intermittently check urine
Hair loss (whiskers)
GI signs

224
Q

Treatment for alimentary lymphoma?

A

Surgical excision of solitary mass lesion - must biopsy nodes
Follow up chemotherapy?
Extensive infiltration - staggered induction to reduce risk of perforation?
Supportive therapy - appetite stimulants, O-tube?, vitamin B12
Gastric lymphoma very difficult to treat
LGL lymphoma has poor response to chemotherapy
Low grade ‘epitheliotrophic’ tend to respond to chlorambucil and prednisolone only - extended survival times can be achieved (2 years)

225
Q

What is the outcome of lymphoma in cats following chemotherapy?

A

Most cats will develop drug resistance and will relapse
Rescue therapy - single agent doxorubicin or lumustine (RR 40%)
Could consider radiation if local disease
Small % of cats will be cured

226
Q

Features of acute lymphoid leukaemia (ALL) and acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) in cats?

A

High WBC counts
Concurrent pancytopenias
Poor prognosis (weeks-months) even with chemotherapy
Myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) recognised as precursor to acute leukaemia in FeLV positive cats - characterised by cytopenias without circulating neoplastic cells

227
Q

Acute leukaemia treatment in cats?

A
Supportive therapy - very sick patients:
- blood transfusion
- antibiotics
- barrier nursing
- CSF?
Multi-agent chemotherapy protocols:
- COP vs CHOP
- addition of cytarabine infusions may improve response
MST of all treated with chemotherapy is 120 days in dogs
228
Q

Features of chronic lymphoid leukaemia in cats? Treatment?

A

Proliferation of mature lymphocytes in bone marrow
Rare (T cell > B cell)
Lymphocyte counts >30x10^9/L
Decision to treat based on the individual (presence of CS, degree of lymphocytosis)
Treat with prednisolone/chlorambucil - survival times of 1-3 years reported

229
Q

Features of chronic myeloid leukaemia?

A

Proliferation of mature myeloid cells (normally neutrophils) in bone marrow
Rarer than chronic lymphoid leukaemia
Have to exclude other causes of extreme neutrophilia: infection, immune mediated disease, paraneoplastic disease

230
Q

Leukaemia diagnosis in cats?

A

Haematology with manual differential and smear evaluation
Flow cytometry of peripheral blood
Staging to evaluate extent of disease - thoracic radiographs, abdominal ultrasound, cytology of liver/spleen
Bone marrow biopsy (cytology + histology)

231
Q

Features of myeloma related disorders in cats?

A

AKA multiple myeloma
Rare <1% of malignant tumours in animals
Systemic neoplastic proliferation of plasma cells results in overproduction of antibody (IgA or IgG)
Can get local disease - extramedullary plasmacytoma which can progress to multiple myeloma
Hyperproteinemia can lead to hyperviscosity syndrome - neurological symptoms, retinal detachment, CHF (cats > dogs), hypertension, coagulopathy
Bone marrow involvement can lead to cytopenias - secondary infections
Renal disease present in 33-50% of dogs (multifactorial due to proteinuria, hypercalcaemia, renal infiltration, urinary infection)

232
Q

Multiple myeloma diagnosis?

A

Haematology, biochemistry, urinalysis:
- non specific, may see circulating plasma cells
- proteinuria
- hypercalcaemia
- hyperglobinaemia
Serum protein electrophoresis - monoclonal gammopathy
Diagnostic imaging:
- hepatosplenomegaly
- osteolytic bone lesions
Cytology - liver, spleen and bone marrow
In dogs, have to fulfil 2 of following criteria:
- monoclonal gammopathy
- radiographic evidence of osteolytic bone lesions
- >5% neoplastic plasma cells or >10-20% plasmacytosis in the bone marrow
- Bence-Jones proteinuria
In feline myeloma related disorder there is rarely bone marrow involvement so should demonstrate plasma cell infiltration of visceral organs

233
Q

Multiple myeloma treatment?

A
Supportive treatment:
- blood transfusions
- plasmaphoeresis
- antibiotics if secondary infection
- therapy for hypercalcaemia
Prednisolone
Chemotherapy - prednisolone, melphalan - cumulative myelosuppression is seen (perform haematology every 2 weeks, then monthly)
Median survival 540 days (dogs)
Local extra medullary plasma cell disease may be treated surgically if no systemic involvement
234
Q

What gastrointestinal paraneoplastic syndromes are there?

A

Cancer cachexia/sarcopenia complex
Cancer anorexia
Gastro-duodenal ulceration
Protein losing enteropathy

235
Q

What causes cancer cachexia/sarcopenia and anorexia?

A
  1. Cancer cells preferentially use glucose for energy and poor tumour blood flow leads to anaerobic respiration -> increased lactate production and altered insulin sensitivity
  2. Cancer related cytokine production and inflammation can also alter metabolism
  3. Some patients suffer poor appetite but can see changes even with normal appetite

Anorexia common

  • cytokine release (IL-6, IL-1) ‘anorexigen’
  • abdominal pain with GI neoplasia
  • use of chemotherapy: taste alteration? GI side effects

Cachexia uncommon in dogs, more common in cats:

  • cytokine release (IL-1B, TGFB, IL-6)
  • insulin resistance, extensive lipolysis, proteolysis
236
Q

Clinical signs of cancer cachexia/sarcopenia and anorexia? Treatment? Quality of life?

A

Weight loss, reduced fat mass, lean muscle loss, poor tolerance of treatment
Treatment:
- maintain caloric intake with low carbohydrate high fat diet
- omega 3 PUFA may be beneficial in reducing inflammation related changes
Uncommon problem in animals but might indicate poor quality of life

237
Q

Why can cancers cause gastro-duodenal ulceration? Problems?

A

GI tumours often have associated gastric or duodenal ulceration at their location due to poor blood supply and altered wall structure
- often bleed -> anaemia
- can sometimes rupture
Some tumours produce hormones/metabolites -> gastric acid -> ulceration
- dogs with MCT have elevated blood histamine -> GI signs, ulceration and bleeding
- gastrinomas produce gastrin -> GI signs, ulceration and bleeding
- some neuroendocrine tumours can cause GI bleeding (hormone/cytokine production)

238
Q

Which types of tumours can cause protein losing enteropathy? Problems?

A

Diffuse GI lesions can allow protein loss - seen particularly with GI lymphoma
Typically low TP, globulin and albumin, often accompanied by diarrhoea
Low albumin can lead to ascites
Other effects due to loss of proteins binding hormones, clotting factors etc

239
Q

How can tumours cause acute blood loss anaemia? Clinical signs? Type of anaemia?

A

Due to haemorrhage from a tumour - spleen, GI
Clinical signs of hypovolaemia and shock
TP drops before PCV
Anaemia initially nonregenerative, then becomes regenerative
Platelet count normal then low

240
Q

How can tumours cause chronic blood loss anaemia? Clinical signs? Type of anaemia?

A

Low grade haemorrhage from GI tumour or PNS: excess histamine (MCT) or gastrin (gastrinoma) causing ulceration
Main differentials are other GI or oral lesions
Clinical signs of lethargy, pallor
Poorly regenerative microcytic hypo chromic anaemia due to iron deficiency
Normal or elevated platelet count

241
Q

How can tumours cause myelophthisis?

A

Crowding out of stem cells in the bone marrow by tumour cells
Tumours might produce suppressive cytokines (tumour types include lymphoma, leukaemia, multiple myeloma, occasionally histiocytic sarcoma and mast cell tumour)
One or several cytopenias
Neutropenia then thrombocytopenia before anaemia
Non regenerative normochromic normocytic anaemia
Diagnosis by bone marrow aspirate

242
Q

What reduced production cytopenias can cancers cause?

A

Myelophthisis
Anaemia of chronic inflammatory disease
Hyperoestrogenism

243
Q

Which tumour can cause hyperoestrogenism? Problems? Signs? Treatment?

A

Testicular tumours - 50% of dogs with Sertoli cell tumours
Initially neutrophilia then progression to bone marrow hypoplasia
Neutropenia, thrombocytopenia and non-regenerative anaemia
Other signs are feminisation signs and include symmetrical alopecia, pendulous prepuce, hyperpigmentation, penile atrophy, gynecomastia, prostatic metaplasia
Castration can reverse many signs but bone marrow changes can be slow to recover or irreversible

244
Q

Which tumours can cause immune mediated anaemia and thrombocytopenia?

A

Secondary to lymphoproliferative tumours (must exclude before treating IMHA or IMTP)

245
Q

Why can tumours cause microangiopathic anaemia? Indicator?

A

Fragmentation and shearing of RBCs leads to anaemia
Caused by fibrin networks
Causes include HSA and DIC
Schistocytosis is a key indicator

246
Q

Which tumours can cause erythrocytosis? Signs? Treatment?

A

Renal tumours via increased EPO, lymphoma, nasal fibrosarcoma, TVT, hepatic tumours
Clinically significant erythrocytoses include PUPD, neurological signs and seizures
Treatment - phlebotomy, removal of inciting cause, hydroxyurea

247
Q

What paraneoplastic cytoses are there?

A

Erythrocytosis
Neutrophilia
Eusinophilia

248
Q

Why do many tumours cause neutrophilia?

A

Tumour indeed or an immune response to the tumour

249
Q

Which tumours most commonly cause eosinophilia? Why?

A

T cell lymphoma and MCT

Due to IL-5 production

250
Q

Which tumours produce mono-clonal gammopathies? Signs? Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Multiple myeloma - a tumour of plasma cells, lymphoma, leukaemia
Elevated serum globulins on biochemistry
Clinical signs due to hyperviscosity (neurological including seizures, coma, cardiac signs), reduced immune function, renal failure, coagulopathies and ocular disorders
Gammopathies detected by electrophoresis of serum and urine (Bence-Jones proteins)
Treatment by plasmapheresis and tumour directed therapy?

251
Q

What coagulation problems can tumours cause?

A
Altered coagulation
- Altered platelet function
- Infarcts/thromboembolism can result
DIC
- mainly in association with carcinoma and HSA
252
Q

What is DIC? Diagnosis?

A

Syndrome of altered consumptive coagulation
Thromboembolism in small vessels and bleeding due to consumption of platelets and clotting factors
Multi-organ failure and death
Elevated APTT, PT, FDPs/D dimers, low fibrinogen, low platelet count, schistocytes

253
Q

What endocrine paraneoplastic syndromes are there?

A

Hypercalcaemia
Hypoglycaemia
Ectopic ACTH syndrome
Hyperoestrogenism

254
Q

How often is hypercalcaemia due to PNS? Other differentials?

A

Cause of 2/3 canine hypercalcaemia and 1/3 feline hypercalcaemia
Other ddx: lab error, renal failure, hypervitaminosis D, hypoadrenocorticism, granulomatous disease

255
Q

Which tumours most commonly cause hypercalcaemia? Less common ones? Mechanisms?

A

Lymphoma, anal sac adenocarcinoma (25%), hyperparathyroidism

Others - multiple myeloma, thymoma

256
Q

Clinical signs of hypercalcaemia?

A
  • PU/PD
  • Dehydration
  • GI signs - inappetence and vomiting
  • Weakness
  • Muscle fasciculation
  • Calcification of soft tissues (especially kidneys)
  • Arrhythmias
  • Death
257
Q

Management of severe hypercalcaemia in an emergency? Long term treatment?

A

Initially:
- rehydrate with NaCl 0.9% 3-4 x maintenance - also enhances calciuresis
The:
- continue fluids
- consider furosemide - increases calciuresis by increased Na loss
- consider bisphosphonates - toxic to osteoclasts so slows Ca release from bone
- consider salmon calcitonin - short acting (a few days) but often effective
- consider prednisolone - only when lymphoproliferative disease diagnosed or excluded
- removal of inciting lesion - only effective long term treatment

258
Q

Work up for hypercalcaemia?

A
  • Assess tCa and if elevated assess iCa, also consider phosphate
  • Ensure rectal exam negative for anal gland tumours
  • Assess and aspirate lymph node
  • Check history for diet and toxin exposure
  • Imaging of thorax and abdomen and ultrasound neck esp. if iCa ↑ and Phos ↓
  • PTH / PTHrp / vitamin D if appropriate history of exposure
  • Bone marrow biopsy
  • Consider ACTH stim if other signs are consistent with hypoadrenocorticism
259
Q

Which tumours can cause hypoglycaemia? Clinical signs? Management?

A

Most commonly insulinoma
IGF-II-omas
Hepatocellular carcinoma, smooth muscle tumours - caused by IGF-II
Weakness, disorientation, seizures, coma and death
Emergency - IV glucose and CRI glucose if necessary
Medical management - prednisolone, diazoxide, octreotide
Removal of inciting tumour

260
Q

Non neoplastic ddx for hypoglycaemia?

A
Sepsis
Starvation
Liver dysfunction
Hypoadrenocorticism
Lab error
Some toxicities
261
Q

What cutaneous paraneoplastic syndromes are there?

A
  • Alopecia and Malassezzia associated dermatitis
  • Pancreatic associated panniculitis
  • Superficial necrolytic dermatitis (SND)
  • Paraneoplastic immune mediated disease – Pemphigus and Erythema multiforme
  • Feline Thymoma-Associated Exfoliative Dermatitis (FTAED)
  • Cutaneous flushing
  • Nodular dermatofibrosis
262
Q

Feline Paraneoplastic Alopecia (FPA) - signs?

A

Acute-onset, non pruritic, progressive symmetrical alopecia
Initially affects ventral abdomen and limbs then generalises hair easily epilated
Glistening skin: alopecia skin elastic and thin - smooth shiny appearance
Footpad lesions: concentric scale, crusting and painful fissures affecting footpads
Malassezia dermatitis: brown greasy accumulations around eyes, nose and claw beds, may be pruritic
Older cats (7-16 years)
No sex or breed predilection

263
Q

Ddx for feline paraneoplastic alopecia (FPA)?

A
Dermatophytosis
Demodicosis 
SIA (pruritis, psychogenic)
Telogen defluxion
Endocrinopathies
Superficial necrolytic dermatitis (SND)
264
Q

What is superficial necrolytic dermatitis (SND)? Signs?

A

Dogs and cats
Hepatic disease and pancreatic neoplasia
Associated amino acid deficiency
Distinctive histo and U/S
Footpad hyperkeratosis - erythema, crusting, hyperkeratosis
Crusting dermatitis - alopecia, erosions, ulceration, adherent crusts
Other signs - none in early stages, lethargy, inappetence, systemic signs associated with hepatic/pancreatic disease, some cases develop DM in association with hepatic disease

265
Q

Paraneoplastic pemphigus (PNP) - signs? Aetiopathogenesis?

A

Very rare cutaneous PNS
Autoimmune-induced ulceration of the mucosae and mucocutaneous junctions
Lymphoma, thymoma, splenic sarcoma, metastatic thymic mass
Primary immune mediated pemphigus also seen
Exact pathomechanism unknown
Antibodies against tumour antigens cross-react with self-antigens

266
Q

Cutaneous markers for paraneoplastic pemphigus (PNP)?

A

Oral and much-cutaneous ulceration:

  • vesicles (rapidly rupture)
  • severe ulceration of oral cavity and mucocutaneous junctions
  • lesions often bilaterally symmetrical
  • claw beds and pressure points may be affected
267
Q

Feline Thymoma-Associated Exfoliative Dermatitis (FTAED) - which cats? Cutaneous markers?

A

Older cats, no sex or breed predilection
Exfoliative dermatitis - non pruritic, diffuse erythema and skin exfoliation/scaling, alopecia, head and pinnae and then generalied
Keratosebaceous accumulations - brown, keratosebaceous debris interdigital skin, claw beds and ear canals, some cases associated with Malassezia dermatitis
Crusting and ulceration

268
Q

What is cutaneous flushing? Which tumours can cause it? Ddx?

A

Periodic release of vasoactive substances by tumours leads skin colour changes
Rarely reported but reported with pheochromocytoma, lung tumours and MCT
Ddx: Demodicosis, drug reactions and systemic lupus erythematosus

269
Q

Nodular dermatofibrosis - signs? Which animals? Cause?

A

Nodules of well differentiated collagenous nevi mainly on limbs but also heads and trunk
Middle aged GSDs with bilateral renal cysts or cyst adenocarcinoma
Inherited in autosomal dominant fashion
Due to mutated Birt-Hogge-Dube gene

270
Q

Hypertrophic osteopathy - what is it? Which tumours can cause it? Why? Clinical signs? Diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Palisading periosteal proliferation along shafts of long bones
Pulmonary (or occasionally abdominal) tumours
Cause unknown - poss increased blood flow to limbs due to afferent neurological stimulation
In humans vagotomy can lead to resolution
Shifting lameness
Swelling/oedema
Limbs feel warm and are uncomfortable to touch
Diagnosis - clinical signs and radiography of long bones and pelvis
Treatment:
• Remove inciting cause
• Prednisolone
• Pain relief
• Bisphosponates

271
Q

Why can tumours cause paraneoplastic pyrexia? Which tumours? Problems? Treatment?

A

Due to expression of inflammatory cytokines by or in response to the tumour
Especially lymphoma, renal cancers and hepatic tumours
Can lead to anorexia and malaise.
Need to exclude other causes especially infection before assuming pyrexia is neoplasia associated
Treatment by removal of the tumour, NSAIDS/paracetamol

272
Q

What is palliative care?

A

Relieving pain without dealing with the cause of the condition
Improves quality of life

273
Q

What is quality of life?

A

An individual satisfaction with:

  • physical and psychological health (physical state e.g. pain, mentation e.g. active)
  • physical and social environment (daily activities e.g. food intake and walks, behaviour)
  • ability to interact with that environment (interaction with owners e.g. playful
274
Q

What are primary concerns for health related quality of life in animals?

A

Appetite
Mobility
Pain
Behaviour

275
Q

How to improve quality of life with palliative care for cancer?

A
Pain management
Treatment of side effects
Nutrition
Treatment of cancer-specific signs
Owner's expectations
Alternative medicine
276
Q

Types of pain in cancer patients?

A

Adaptive nociceptive = direct tissue injury
- somatic = cancer cell invasion of skeleton, soft tissue, tendons/ligaments (focal, stabbing)
- visceral = cancer cell infiltration, compression or distortion of internal organs (diffuse, squeezing)
Maladaptive neuropathic = infiltration of nerves and spinal cord (burning, shooting, numbness)

277
Q

Which tumours cause somatic adaptive nociceptive pain?

A

Bone and joint sarcoma
Oral, nasal tumour
Inflammatory mammary carcinoma
ASAC

278
Q

Which tumours cause visceral adaptive nociceptive pain?

A

TCC
Pancreatic carcinoma
Hemangiosarcoma
Carcinomatosis

279
Q

Signs of pain in cancer patients?

A

Reduced activity
Appetite change
Increased respiration/heart rate
Attitude change (aggressiveness, dullness, shyness)
Facial expression (head hung low, squinted eye, sad expression)
Appearance of the coat (failure to groom)
Response to palpation
Self trauma (licking, scratching)
Posture and ambulation
Vocalisation
Sleep disturbance

280
Q

Pain management for cancer patients?

A

Non opioid +/- adjuvant - NSAIDs, paracetamol
Opioid for mild to moderate pain +/- non opioid +/- adjuvant - codeine, tramadol
Opioid for moderate to severe pain +/- non opioid +/- adjuvant - morphine, methadone, fentanyl

281
Q

What are NSAIDs good for in cancer patients? Contra-indications?

A

Very good painkiller
May have some anti-cancer action (carcinoma)
Contra-indicated with corticosteroids
GI/kidney issues

282
Q

What is tramadol? Side effects?

A

Opoidergic/monoaminergic drug
Main action: weak u-agonist (inhibition of serotonin reuptake)
Can cause dysphoria, sedation, nausea
Doubt on its efficacy in dogs

283
Q

Adjuvants for pain management of cancer patients?

A
Gabapentin:
- good for neuropathic pain
- can cause mild sedation and ataxia
Amantadine:
- minimal evidence of action
- minimal side effects (lethargy, dizziness)
- NMDA agonist
Oral buprenorphine
Tricyclic antidepressants (amitriptyline, clomipramine, fluoxetine)
284
Q

Mechanisms of pain from osteosarcomas? Pain management?

A

Tumour associated inflammation due to neoplastic osteoblasts
Bone destruction due to osteoclasts
Multimodal approach:
- e.g. NSAID, paracetamol, gabapentin/amantadine +/- tramadol
Radiation therapy
- aim for pain management = cell death of both neoplastic osteoblasts and resorbing osteoclasts
- palliative setting: 1-4 treatments, minimal side effects
- 75-95% of pain alleviation for 2-4 months
Biphosphonates
- aim = induction of osteoclasts apoptosis -> limit bone resorption
- can be used for multiple cancers with associated osteolysis
- IV or oral
- moderate efficacy 50%

285
Q

What cancer specific palliative treatments can be used?

A

Stenting - urethra, trachea, minimally invasive but technically challenging
Cystotomy tubes - urethral obstructions (TCC), not long term solution, risk of abdominal metastasis
Amputation
Surgical excision of ulcerated/painful mass

286
Q

Nutritional management of cancer patients?

A

Low carbohydrate diet - theoretical benefit to limit glucose intake, benefit in mouse model, no proof in clinic, danger with cancer cachexia/anorexia
Well balanced diet - adapt to BCS/MCS
Supplements? - Omega 3, vitamins, anti-oxidants (no clear evidence of benefit)
Feeding techniques - change diet slowly (more appellant), change consistency, small frequent meals, warm up
Medications - maropitant to manage vomiting/nausea, mirtazapine, cyproheptatide
Assisted feeding techniques - oesophagostomy tubes, PEG tubes
Steroids?

287
Q

Difference between anorexia and cachexia?

A

Anorexia - decreased fat

Cachexia - decrease lean body mass +/- fat

288
Q

Nutrition assessment of cancer patients?

A

BCS
Muscle condition score
Poor hair coat, seborrhoea

289
Q

Pros and cons of steroids for palliative cancer treatment?

A
Pros:
- can stimulate appetite
- useful for round cell tumours
- reduces inflammation (brain tumours, radiation therapy side effects)
Cons:
- weak analgesia effect
- precludes use of NSAIDs
- muscle wastage
- no effects on carcinoma and sarcoma
- can prevent diagnosis
- can create resistance (lymphoma)
290
Q

What alternative medicines are there for palliative cancer care?

A
Acupuncture
- neuromodulation
- pain control, poss anti-emetic
Herbs
- theoretical benefit
- limited evidence
- possible harmful effect (coagulation, increases toxicity to chemo/RT)
- lack of regulation
Cannabinoids
- analgesia, anti-emetic, anti-tumour effects
- can produce neurological signs
- lack of proof in small animals
291
Q

What should neutrophils be before chemotherapy? What if less?

A

> 3 (delay if <3)
Some clinicians may go ahead if 2-3 with reduce dose
If <1 but clinically well, send home with oral antibiotics
If <1 and clinically unwell, admit

292
Q

What should platelets be before chemotherapy?

A

> 100

293
Q

Usual protocol used for lymphoma in dogs and cats?

A

CHOP in dogs

COP in cats

294
Q

When is cyclophosphamide contraindicated?

A

If UTI - check dipstick before treatment
If haematuria:
- Cysto and culture to check if UTI
- Substitute for chlorambucil for that treatment while treating UTI/waiting for results
- Can use cyclo for next treatment if UTI cleared but if second case of haematuria, don’t use cyclo again

295
Q

What to do before/while infusing epirubicin/doxorubicin as part of CHOP protocol? What to check before treatment?

A

Can give maropitant 1-2h before as causes nausea and inappetence
Infuse slowly over 20 mins as risk of cardiac arrhythmias and anaphylaxis
Watch for restlessness, discomfort, femoral pulse/HR
Echo before treatment if DCM/breeds predisposed to DCM
Check urea and creatinine of cats before treatment
Can cure hepatic damage - careful if pre-existing liver problem

296
Q

Cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma: Signs?Treatment options? Prognosis?

A
Signs:
- common in white cats: face, pinna
- scabs
- reddened, thickened skin
- ulceration, plaques
Options:
- excise when small ASAP
- RT unknown effectiveness
- chemo
- photodynamic therapy
- laser ablation
- imiquiod on small lesions caused by papillomavirus
Prognosis:
- excellent following sx
- poor if large and invasive
297
Q

Treatment of hypercalcaemia?

A

IVFT
Bisphosphonate (reduces osteoclast activity)
Avoid steroids before diagnosed lymphoma (as can reduce the lymphoma)

298
Q

Why do you get paraneoplastic hypercalcaemiua?

A

Cytokine release

PTH related hormone released

299
Q

What makes up a normal lymph node on cytology? What is abnormal?

A
Normal:
- 80% small lymphocytes (mature)
- 15% intermediate lymphocytes
- 5% large lymphocytes (immature)
Abnormal:
- >50% large lymphocytes
- anisocytosis/anisokaryosis
- mitotic index
- can get small cell lymphomas - impossible to dx on cytology (need PARR)
300
Q

Main side effects of CHOP protocol for lymphoma?

A
Anaemia, thrombocytopenia, myelosuppression
Sterile haemorrhagic cystitis
Cardiotixicity
GI toxicity
Occurs in 20-30% of patients
301
Q

Are B or T cell lymphomas better?

A

B cell better

T cell lymphomas respond less to chemo

302
Q

Rescue protocols for lymphoma?

A

Lomustine
LPP = lomustine, procarbazine, prednisolone
DMAC = dexamathasone, metphalan, actinomycin, cytosine arabinoside
Actinomycin D

303
Q

What to do before surgery to remove MCT?

A

Steroids for couple of weeks before to shrink tumour - helps get appropriate margins

304
Q

What is Darier’s sign?

A

Degranulation of MCT after FNA (can use chlorphenamine prior to FNA to prevent this)
Looks like a bullseye

305
Q

What locations have a worse prognosis for MCTs?

A

Mucocutaneous
Muzzle
Inguinal

306
Q

Where do anal sac adenocarcinomas often metastasis to?

A

Via lymphatics to medial iliac LNs - so FNA

307
Q

Ddx for anal sac issue?

A

Anal gland abscess
Impaction
Anal sac adenocarcinoma
Skin - MCT, STS, lipoma, cutaneous lymphoma, SCC

308
Q

Signs of anal sac adenocarcinoma?

A

Tenesmus, straining (usually due to metastasis to medial iliac lymph nodes)
Scooting
Flat faeces
Hypercalcaemia: PUPD, restless, anorexic, lethargic, V+, D, facial paresis, cardiac arrhythmias

309
Q

Treatment for anal sac carcinomas?

A

Surgery - care not to damage anal sphincter, risk of incontinence
Chemo - need oral successive treatment, tokeranib
Steroids for hypercalcaemia
Stool softener
NSAIDs if no hypercalcaemia

310
Q

Ddx for nasal discharge and how would they present?

A
Allergic rhinitis
- May be seasonal
- Marked snotty nasal discharge
- Bilateral
Fungal rhinitis (Aspergillosis)
- Nasal depigmentation
- Painful around muzzle: owner may note not wanting to put head in deep bowls, head shy, not wanting to push doors with nose etc
Foreign body
- Acute
- Paroxysmal dramatic sneezing
Neoplasia
- Sneezing
- Unilateral
- May be progressive
- Often serosanguinous nasal discharge
- Exopthalmos
- Check airflow: would have obstructed airway down one nostril
- Stertorous breathing: owner may say snoring
311
Q

Diagnostic investigation of nasal discharge? Findings for different ddx?

A

DV intraoral radiograph:

  • FB: mucosal inflammation may increase ST opacity but generally often don’t see much (need scope)
  • Neoplasia: loss of turbinates, usually start at the back, bone lysis, cribriform plate damage, septum may be deviated, tumour may expand into oropharynx, increased ST opacity
  • Fungal rhinitis: punctate lucency of turbinates, destructive rhinitis, uncommon to cause other bony lysis
  • Allergic rhinitis: increased ST from mucosal inflammation so turbinates look coarser, no lysis

Endoscopy
- If no endoscope available, can use otoscope to see first part, or laryngoscope to look under soft palate

Pinch biopsy:

  • Risks: undiagnostic sample, going through into brain, haemorrhage
  • Avoid going into brain by measuring length need to go in
  • Urinary catheter for cats may work
  • If think neoplasia, whilst under GA: FNA submandibular, retropharyngeal, prescapular LNs
312
Q

What is nasal neoplasia likely to be in dogs?

A
Adenocarcinoma usually (unlikely to have metastasised)
<10% are lymphomas - important to diagnose as more likely to have metastasised at diagnosis
313
Q

Treatment of choice for nasal carcinoma?

A

Radiotherapy

Eye and nose side effects

314
Q

What to assume if cat with mass between shoulders?

A

Treat as feline injection site sarcoma (FISS) until proven otherwise

315
Q

Where do prostate TCCs like to metastasise to?

A

LNs
Lungs
Bone - so can see lameness