s10 - Genereal Anaesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

What is craniomaxillofacial surgery?

A

Surgical procedures involving the mouth, jaws, face, neck, and skull.

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2
Q

Name one type of surgery included in craniomaxillofacial surgery.

A
  • Dentoalveolar Surgery
  • Implant Surgery
  • Corrective Jaw Surgery (Orthognathic Surgery)
  • Pathology-Related Surgeries
  • Reconstructive Surgery
  • Congenital Malformations
  • Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) Disorders
  • Trauma Surgery
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3
Q

What is the purpose of corrective jaw surgery?

A

To correct jaw deformities, facial asymmetry, or sleep apnea.

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4
Q

What is osseointegrated dental implant surgery?

A

Surgery to insert dental implants for prostheses or bone-anchored devices.

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5
Q

Name one condition treated by craniomaxillofacial surgery.

A

Cleft lip and palate.

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6
Q

What is minimal sedation (anxiolysis)?

A

A minimally depressed level of consciousness where the patient can maintain an airway and respond to commands.

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7
Q

What is the key difference between minimal and moderate sedation?

A

In moderate sedation, patients respond only and purposefully to verbal commands or light touch.

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8
Q

What is deep sedation?

A

A drug-induced depression of consciousness where patients cannot be easily aroused but respond to painful stimuli.

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9
Q

What is the main risk during deep sedation?

A

Impaired ability to maintain ventilatory function, requiring airway assistance.

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10
Q

What is general anesthesia?

A

A drug-induced loss of consciousness where the patient is not arousable, even by painful stimulation.

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11
Q

What is the primary concern during general anesthesia?

A

The patient’s ability to maintain ventilatory function is impaired.

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12
Q

What is the cardiovascular status during deep sedation?

A

Cardiovascular function is usually maintained.

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13
Q

What is the patient’s responsiveness during moderate sedation?

A

Purposeful response to verbal commands or light tactile stimulation.

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14
Q

What is the primary goal of sedation in surgery?

A

To provide an optimal environment for completing the surgical procedure.

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15
Q

Why is minimizing patient anxiety important during sedation?

A

To optimize patient comfort and cooperation.

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16
Q

What is the role of sedation in controlling patient movement?

A

To control behavior and movement, ensuring patient cooperation.

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17
Q

How does sedation optimize analgesia?

A

By minimizing pain during the procedure.

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18
Q

What is the benefit of maximizing amnesia during sedation?

A

To prevent the patient from remembering the procedure.

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19
Q

Why is hemodynamic stability important during sedation?

A

To ensure patient safety and prevent complications.

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20
Q

What is the first step in general anesthesia?

A

Preoperative assessment.

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21
Q

What is the purpose of preoperative assessment?

A

To evaluate the patient’s medical condition and minimize anesthesia risks.

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22
Q

What is the induction phase of general anesthesia?

A

The administration of IV drugs to induce unconsciousness.

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23
Q

What is the role of airway management during anesthesia?

A

To ensure the patient’s airway is open and protected.

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24
Q

What is the maintenance phase of anesthesia?

A

The use of inhalational or IV agents to keep the patient unconscious.

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25
Q

What is monitored during the maintenance phase?

A

Vital signs (heart rate, blood pressure, oxygen saturation, CO2 levels).

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26
Q

What is the emergence phase of anesthesia?

A

The gradual reduction of anesthetic agents to allow the patient to wake up.

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27
Q

What is the purpose of a preanesthetic evaluation?

A

To assess the patient’s medical condition and optimize them for surgery.

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28
Q

What is included in a patient’s medical history for preanesthetic evaluation?

A

Current problems, drug allergies, prior anesthesia exposure, and general health.

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29
Q

What is the Mallampati score used for?

A

To predict the difficulty of intubation based on oropharyngeal visibility.

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30
Q

What is a Class I Mallampati score?

A

Soft palate, uvula, fauces, and pillars are visible.

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31
Q

What is a Class IV Mallampati score?

A

Only the hard palate is visible.

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32
Q

What is thyromental distance used for?

A

To predict difficult airways; a shorter distance indicates higher risk.

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33
Q

What is the normal thyromental distance?

A

6.5 cm or more.

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34
Q

What is the purpose of fasting before anesthesia?

A

To reduce the risk of aspiration during surgery.

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35
Q

How long should adults fast from clear fluids before anesthesia?

A

2-3 hours.

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36
Q

What is the purpose of preoperative instructions?

A

To prepare the patient physically and psychologically for surgery.

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37
Q

Question

38
Q

How long should a child under 6 months fast from clear fluids before anesthesia?

39
Q

How long should an adult fast from non-clear fluids/solids before anesthesia?

A

6 hours or overnight.

40
Q

Why is fasting important before anesthesia?

A

To prevent aspiration of stomach contents during surgery.

41
Q

What is the purpose of preoperative patient counseling?

A

To reduce anxiety and prepare the patient psychologically for surgery.

42
Q

What is the role of premedication before surgery?

A

To relieve anxiety, provide sedation, and prevent nausea and vomiting.

43
Q

Name one drug used for preoperative sedation.

A

Midazolam.

44
Q

What is the purpose of preoperative fasting instructions?

A

To ensure the patient’s stomach is empty, reducing the risk of aspiration.

45
Q

What is the role of preoperative drug therapy?

A

To manage pre-existing conditions and optimize the patient for surgery.

46
Q

Name one inhalational anesthetic gas.

A

Nitrous oxide.

47
Q

What is the primary use of sevoflurane?

A

As a volatile liquid for maintaining anesthesia.

48
Q

What is the main advantage of propofol as an IV anesthetic?

A

Rapid onset and short duration of action.

49
Q

What is the primary use of fentanyl in anesthesia?

A

To provide analgesia and sedation.

50
Q

What is the mechanism of action of succinylcholine?

A

It is a depolarizing muscle relaxant that causes muscle paralysis.

51
Q

What is the main side effect of opioids like morphine?

A

Respiratory depression.

52
Q

What is the primary use of ketamine in anesthesia?

A

To provide dissociative anesthesia and analgesia.

53
Q

What is the main advantage of using midazolam preoperatively?

A

It provides anxiolysis and amnesia.

54
Q

What is the primary use of atropine in anesthesia?

A

To reduce salivary secretions and prevent bradycardia.

55
Q

What is the main side effect of barbiturates like thiopental?

A

Cardiovascular and respiratory depression.

56
Q

What is the first step in the induction of anesthesia?

A

Pre-oxygenation with 100% oxygen.

57
Q

What is the primary method of inducing anesthesia?

A

Intravenous (IV) administration of anesthetic agents.

58
Q

What is the purpose of pre-oxygenation before induction?

A

To increase oxygen reserves and prevent hypoxia during apnea.

59
Q

What is the role of inhalational agents during induction?

A

To deepen anesthesia after IV induction.

60
Q

What is the primary goal of induction in anesthesia?

A

To rapidly achieve a state of unconsciousness.

61
Q

What is the primary purpose of airway management during anesthesia?

A

To ensure the patient’s airway is open and protected.

62
Q

What is the most common method of securing the airway during anesthesia?

A

Endotracheal intubation.

63
Q

What is the role of a laryngeal mask airway (LMA)?

A

To provide a secure airway without the need for intubation.

64
Q

What is the purpose of using an oropharyngeal airway?

A

To prevent the tongue from obstructing the airway in an unconscious patient.

65
Q

What is the primary risk of improper airway management?

A

Hypoxia due to inadequate ventilation.

66
Q

What is the role of capnography in airway management?

A

To monitor CO2 levels and ensure proper ventilation.

67
Q

What is the primary goal of maintaining anesthesia during surgery?

A

To keep the patient unconscious and pain-free throughout the procedure.

68
Q

What is the role of inhalational agents in maintaining anesthesia?

A

To provide a continuous state of unconsciousness.

69
Q

What is the role of IV drugs in maintaining anesthesia?

A

To supplement inhalational agents and provide analgesia or muscle relaxation.

70
Q

How does the anesthesiologist adjust anesthesia during surgery?

A

By monitoring vital signs and adjusting the depth of anesthesia as needed.

71
Q

What vital signs are continuously monitored during anesthesia?

A

Heart rate, blood pressure, oxygen saturation, and CO2 levels.

72
Q

Why is monitoring CO2 levels important during anesthesia?

A

To ensure adequate ventilation and prevent hypercapnia.

73
Q

What is the purpose of monitoring oxygen saturation during anesthesia?

A

To ensure the patient is receiving enough oxygen.

74
Q

What is the role of blood pressure monitoring during anesthesia?

A

To detect and prevent hypotension or hypertension.

75
Q

What is the emergence phase of anesthesia?

A

The gradual reduction of anesthetic agents to allow the patient to wake up.

76
Q

What is the primary goal during the emergence phase?

A

To ensure a smooth and safe transition to consciousness.

77
Q

What is the role of the recovery area after surgery?

A

To monitor the patient for complications and provide pain management.

78
Q

What is the primary concern during postoperative care?

A

Ensuring the patient’s airway and vital signs are stable.

79
Q

What is the purpose of pain management after surgery?

A

To ensure patient comfort and facilitate recovery.

80
Q

What is the purpose of skin disinfection before surgery?

A

To reduce the risk of surgical site infections.

81
Q

What is the most common disinfectant used for skin preparation?

A

Chlorhexidine or povidone.

82
Q

What is the purpose of draping in the operating room?

A

To create a sterile field around the surgical site.

83
Q

What is the clean zone in the operating room?

A

The area where preoperative and recovery activities take place.

84
Q

What is the sterile zone in the operating room?

A

The area where the highest level of aseptic conditions is maintained.

85
Q

What is the protective zone in the operating room?

A

The area surrounding the clean zone, including dressing rooms and reception.

86
Q

What is the disposal zone in the operating room?

A

The area for decontamination and disposal of soiled instruments and waste.

87
Q

What is the purpose of scrubbing, gowning, and glowing before surgery?

A

To maintain aseptic conditions and prevent infections.

88
Q

What is the primary purpose of handling surgical instruments correctly?

A

To ensure precision and safety during surgical procedures.

89
Q

What is the role of a scalpel in surgery?

A

To make incisions in tissue.

90
Q

What is the purpose of forceps in surgery?

A

To grasp and hold tissues or objects during surgery.