Rx Files Gastrointestinal Flashcards

1
Q

Ulcer types

A

gastric and duodenal

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2
Q

In what patient populations are stress ulcers commonly seen?

A
  • critically ill
  • mechanically ventilated
  • head trauma
  • burn trauma
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3
Q

What is the most common cause of medication induced ulcers?

A

NSAIDs

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4
Q

What is the indication for PrevPac?

A

H. pylori eradication

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5
Q

What drugs does the PrevPac contain?

A
  • Amoxicillin
  • Lansoprazole
  • Clarithromycin
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6
Q

What is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?

A

A condition where tumors cause the stomach to secrete too much acid.

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7
Q

Describe the pathology of gastrointestinal ulcers.

A

Mismatch between destructive and protective gastrointestinal factors.

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8
Q

What is the general treatment path for gastrointestinal ulcers?

A

increase mucus

decrease acid

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9
Q

What is GERD?

A

gastroesophageal reflux disease: phenomenon where gastric acid backs up or refluxes into the esophagus

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10
Q

How is GERD treated?

A

decreasing acid
coating and protecting esophagus
improving LES tone
lowering abdominal pressure

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11
Q

What is LES?

A

lower esophageal sphincter

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12
Q

Sucralfate brand

A

Carafate

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13
Q

Sucralfate undergoes (extensive/minimal) absorption from the gut.

A

minimal

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14
Q

Sucralfate exerts a (local/ systemic) effect.

A

local

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15
Q

Sucralfate mechanism of action

A

“band-aid effect”

coats areas of ulceration so that healing may occur

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16
Q

Sucralfate dosing

A

1 gram 4 times daily
empty stomach
chelates aluminum

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17
Q

What are the H2 receptor blockers?

A

Cimetidine
Famotidine
Nizatidine
Ranitidine

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18
Q

Cimetidine brand

A

Tagamet

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19
Q

Famotidine brand

A

Pepcid

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20
Q

Nizatidine brand

A

Axid

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21
Q

Ranitidine brand

A

Zantac

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22
Q

What H2 receptor blockers are available IV?

A

Cimetidine
Famotidine
Ranitidine

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23
Q

H2 receptor blockers mechanism of action?

A

Inhibits the binding of histamine to H2 receptors, preventing parietal cells from releasing H+ into the lumen of the gut.

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24
Q

Common adverse effects of H2 receptor blockers

A
  • CNS alterations
  • confusion
  • thrombocytopenia
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25
Which H2 receptor blocker may have the least thrombocytopenic potential?
Famotidine
26
Cimetidine has been associated with anti-_________ effects.
androgenic: gynocomastia
27
H2 receptor blockers elimination
renal
28
At what CrCl must H2 receptor blockers be adjusted?
CrCl < 50 mL/min
29
Examples of common drugs that depend on acid for absorption and therefore would have a negative interaction with acid reducers.
itraconazole digoxin iron
30
Why does cimetidine have so many drug interactions?
hepatic metabolism via CYP450 3A4
31
What are the proton pump inhibitors?
- omeprazole - esomeprazole - lansoprazole - rabeprazole - pantoprazole
32
Omeprazole brand
Prilosec
33
Esomeprazole brand
Nexium
34
Lansoprazole
Prevacid
35
Rabeprazole
Aciphex
36
Pantoprazole
Protonix
37
Which PPIs are available IV?
- esomeprazole - lansoprazole - pantoprazole
38
PPI mechanism of action
Inhibiting H+/K+ ATPase pump
39
Where are proton pumps located?
surface of parietal cells
40
Proton pump inhibition is (permanent/reversible).
permanent - parietal cells must generate new functional pumps
41
(T/F) Acid secretion returns to normal within a couple of days of discontinuation of PPIs.
False, acid secretion may continue to be inhibited after discontinuation of PPI
42
PPIs are considered to be the (least/most) potent acid reducer.
most
43
PPIs are _________ eliminated.
hepatically
44
How do you make a PPI suspension?
sodium bicarb and triturate for 15 - 30 minutes
45
What are the prokinetic agents?
- metoclopramide | - cisapride
46
Metoclopramide brand
Reglan
47
Cisapride brand
Propulsid
48
What are the indications of prokinetic agents?
- anti-emetics - GERD - gastroparesis - facilitate feeding tube placement
49
Metoclopramide mechanism of action
enhances upper GI smooth muscle response to Ach - this results in increased GI motility and accelerated gastric emptying, also blocks DA receptors in the CTZ
50
Cisapride mechanism of action
increases LES tone and GI motility also accelerates GI emptying time, works by enhancing GI response to Ach at the mysenteric plexus of the GI smooth muscle
51
How do cisapride and metoclopramide differ?
Cisapride affects the whole GI tract whereas metoclopramide only acts on the upper GI tract.
52
What are some common side effects of prokinetic agents?
- diarrhea - dizziness - confusion
53
What are some serious side effects of cisapride?
- QT interval prolongation -> Torsades de pointes - significant drug interaction with medications that inhibit CYP450 ( causes cisapride levels to rise and increase risk of TDP)
54
Cisapride caveat
Cisapride is no longer marketed in the US and is only available through limited access program.
55
What prokinetic agent is available IV?
metoclopramide
56
What are ADRs of aluminum antacids?
constipation
57
What are ADRs of magnesium antacids?
diarrhea
58
What are some precautions to take with antacid use?
- monitor sodium load | - chelations
59
What drug is used to prevent NSAID induced ulcers?
Misoprostol
60
Misoprostol brand
- Cytotec | - Arthrotec
61
Misoprostol ADRs
``` diarrhea uterine contractions (also used as abortifacient) ```
62
What is a common reason for misuse of laxatives?
weight loss
63
Examples of laxative agents
- magnesium sulfate - lactulose - polyethylene glycol - docusate sodium - bisacodyl - castor oil - SENA - Sorbitol
64
Treatment of flatulence
simethicone
65
Explain avoidance of antimotility agents in C.diff
can predispose to ileus (toxic megacolon)
66
Examples of anti-motility agents
- codiene - Diphenoxylate/ Atropine (Lomotil) - Loperamide (Immodium)
67
Common causes of traveller's diarrhea
- E.coli - Salmonella - Norwalk virus - Giardia - C.diff
68
Sulfasalazine brand
Sulfazine
69
Sulfasalazine indications
- UC | - RA
70
Mesalamine brand
- Ascol | - Pentasa
71
What are treatment options for UC?
- sulfasalazine - mesalamine - corticosteroids
72
Dicyclomine brand
Bentyl
73
Dicyclomine use
anti-spasmotic and anticholinergic specific to the intestinal musculature
74
What are the antiemetic antihistamines?
- meclizine | - dimenhydrinate
75
Meclizine brand
Antivert
76
Dimenhydrinate brand
Dramimine
77
What are the antiemetic phenothiazides?
Prochlorperazine
78
Prochlorperazine brand
Compazine
79
What are the antiemetic 5-HT3 receptor blockers?
ondansetron
80
Ondansetron brand
Zofran
81
What are the antiemetic prokinetics?
metoclopramide
82
What are the antiemetic BZDs?
lorazepam
83
Lorazepam brand
Ativan
84
What are the antiemetic cannabinoids?
Dronabinol
85
Dronabinol brand
Marinol
86
What are the antiemetic corticosteroids?
Dexamethazone
87
Dexamethasone brand
Decadron
88
What are the antiemetic substance P receptor blockers?
Aprepitant
89
Aprepitant brand
Emend