Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

8 Reviewer A + Reviewer B Veterinary Medicine > Ruminant medicine > Flashcards

Ruminant medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Pale or white streaks in the muscles of rapidly growing calves, lamb and kids is a characteristic feature of:
a. Vitamin E/ Selenium Deficiency
b. Hypokalemic myopathy
c. Black leg
d. Malignant edema

A

Vitamin E/ Selenium Deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Sawhorse stance is a characteristic feature of what disease?
a. Tetanus
b. Anthrax
c. Botulism
d. Rabies

A

Tetanus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A diarrhea that has a characteristic “septic tank odor” in a 2 weeks old calf caused by
a. Corona
b. Rotavirus
c. E. coli
d. Salmonella

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The occurrence of this disease is self-limiting because the agent destroys the small intestinal villi and the large intestine is spared
a. Corona virus infection
b. Rotaviral gastroenteritis
c. Colibacillosis
d. Salmonellosis

A

Rotaviral gastroenteritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This pathogen attack the both small and large intestinal villi
producing severe diarrhea
a. Corona virus infection
b.Rotaviral gastroenteritis
c. Colibacillosis
d.Salmonellosis

A

Corona virus infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A substance normally produced by the fetus which stimulates the growth of Brucella spp.
a. Erythritol
b.Hydroxyapatite
c. Prostaglandin
d.Progesterone

A

Erythritol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The most susceptible ruminants in anthrax?
a. Buffalo
b. Cattle
c. Sheep
d. Goat

A

Buffalo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following disease/s exhibit zebra stripping lesions in the gastro intestinal tract:
a. BVD
b. Rinderpest
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

BVD & Rinderpest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following animal is the best indicator to differentiate FMD and Vesicular disease infection:
a. Cattle
b. Goat
c. Swine
d. Horse

A

Horse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A high-performance fattener cattle suddenly died, and you observed that there is edematous area near of their hump. Upon palpating you observe a crepitus sound on pressure. On necropsy you observed a necrotic and butyric in odor lesions. What would be your diagnosis?
a. Lightning strike
b. Black leg
c. Black disease
d. Anthrax

A

Black leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following diseases causes extravascular hemolysis of erythrocyte resulting to brown colored urine?
a. Anaplasmosis
b. Babesiosis
c. Heart water disease
d. Both A and B

A

Anaplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Disease/s that have a characteristic “sulfur granules like appearance” in histopathological examination?
a. Lumpy jaw
b. Wooden tongue
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

Lumpy jaw & Wooden tongue

Wooden Tongue:Actinobacillus Ligneresii)
Lumpy jaw:( Actinomyces bovis)

Pus from an abscess crushed between two glass slides may show club-like spicules of calcium phosphate (formed by the pathogen and by immune complexes synthesized as a response to
the infection) , giving the appearance of sulfur granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The only effective control measure to prevent CAE virus transmission to kids
a. Vaccination
b. Provision of vitamins
c. Colostrum feeding
d. Bottle feeding

A

Bottle feeding

Transmitted mainly through consumption of virus infected colostrum and milk. Direct contact with infected animals and body secretions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The most prominent clinical sign of FMD infection in reindeer?
a. Pancreatitis
b. Erosion of mucosal epithelium
c. Antlers shedding
d. Tiger heart lesions

A

Antlers shedding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following disease/s produce classical consolidated and typically marbled lungs?
a. CPP
b. CBPP
c. Hemosep
d. FMD

A

CBPP

Mycoplasma mycoides is a bacterium that causes contagious bovine pleuropneumonia (CBPP).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Yawning movements, which may be accurately described as voiceless attempts to bellow in cattle is a clinical sign of:
a. Pseudorabies
b. Rabies
c. Listeriosis
d. Mad cow disease

A

Rabies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following treatment is indicated in the primary bloat?
a. Vegetable oil
b. Trocar and cannula
c. Antibiotic administration
d. Gastric lavage

A

Vegetable oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tuberculin testing should be evaluated on the maximum hours of___ post inoculation?
a. 24 hrs
b. 36 hr
c. 72 hrs
d. 64 hrs

A

72 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tilmicosin must not be used in this ruminants because it is fatal
a. Sheep
b. Goat
c. Cattle
d. Carabao

A

Goat

Injection of this antibiotic has been shown to be fatal in swine and non-human primates, and may be fatal in horses and goats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Antibiotic administration in the latter part of the hemorrhagic septicemia cases is not recommended because?
a. The organisms already developed resistance to the antibiotic
b. The animal develops allergy to the antibiotic
c. It causes the precipitation of the endotoxin
d. Biotransformation the drugs is impaired

A

It causes the precipitation of the endotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The only Host adapted leptospira serovar in cattle?
a. Harjo
b. Gryppotyphosa
c. Interohemorrhagicae
d. Pomona

A

Harjo

22
Q

In the pathogenesis of contagious ecthyma, the epidermal tissue proliferation under the scab are called?
a. Pustules
b. Papules
c. cyst
d. Verrucose

A

Verrucose

23
Q

The most prominent manifestation of Coxiella burneti infection in ruminants are the following except?
a. Fever
b. Abortion
c. Subclinical mastitis
d. Infertility

A

Fever

24
Q

The most susceptible species of ruminants to copper poisoning
a. Cattle
b. Goat
c. Sheep
d. Buffalo

A

Sheep

25
Q

Cattle disease that produces a classical bovine bonkers syndrome?
a. Copper poisoning
b. Lead poisoning
c. Ammonia poisoning
d. Chlorinated hydrocarbons poisoning

A

Ammonia poisoning

26
Q

Treatment that could be used to minimize the severity of toxicity on cattle overfed with urea treated feedstuff?
a.Cold water
b.Vinegar
c.Soda lime
d.Both A and B

A

Cold water & Vinegar

27
Q

A post mortem hall mark of bloat?
a. Hepatic congestion
b. Bloat line
c. Overly distended rumen
d. Sudden death

A

Bloat line

28
Q

A characteristic color of TB granuloma lesion often seen in cattle during post mortem examination?
a.Yellow
b.White
c.Greyish white
d.Brown

A

Yellow

White in buffaloes and greyish white in other animals.

29
Q

Causative agent of strawberry foot rot in sheep?
a.Streptococcus
b.Dermatophyte
c.Sporothrix
d.Dermatophilus

A

Dermatophilus congolensis

30
Q

Pathogenic bacteria in cattle that has longest incubation period?
a.Mycobacterium Bovis
b.Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c.Mycobacterium avium sub. Paratuberculosis
d.Mycoplasma

A

Mycobacterium avium sub. Paratuberculosis

6 months-15 years

31
Q

The following are the antibiotics that could be used in the treating mycoplasma infection in ruminants except:
a.Danofloxacin
b.Tylosin
c.Enrofloxacin
d.Penicillin

A

Penicillin

All mycoplasmas lack a cell wall and, therefore, all are inherently resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics (e.g.,penicillin).

32
Q

Which of the following bacteria/virus can be a zoonotic and can be
acquired through ingestion of contaminated milk?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Brucella meletensis
c. Listeria monocytogens
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

33
Q

Which of the following disease is necropsy procedure contraindicated?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Botulism
c. Anthrax
d. Rinderpest

A

Anthrax

Suspect animal should not be opened, the bacilli may sporolate contaminating the environment

34
Q

Which of the following disease exhibit flaccid paralysis?
a. Tetanus
b. Botulism
c. Anthrax
d. Listeriosis

A

Botulism

35
Q

Wound debridement is the primary treatment course of what disease?
a. Tetanus
b. Botulism
c. Anthrax
d. Listeriosis

A

Tetanus

36
Q

Rose Bengal Test is use to screen what specific disease
a. Tryanosomiasis
b. Brucellosis
c. Johnnes Disease
d. Tuberculosis

A

Brucellosis

37
Q

Definitive Diagnostic tool for leptospirosis?
a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. MIT
d. Dark field Microscopy

A

Dark field Microscopy

38
Q

Outbreak of the disease is associated to long drought and sudden storm surge?
a. Botulism
b. Anthrax
c. Tetanus
d. Hemosep

A

Anthrax

Outbreak is related to flooding as it may cause the spores to flow out at the soil surface

39
Q

Type of photosensitation that commonly occur in cattle due to aberrant pigment metabolism ?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

A

Type II

  • Primary photosensitation - Type I: occurs when the photodynamic agent is either ingested, injected, or absorbed through the skin.
    Photodynamic agent ->absorbed in skin or GIT - >skin(native form)
  • Defective or aberrant pigment formation - Type II
    due to aberrant pigment metabolism is known to occur in both cattle and cats. Photosensitizing porphyrin agents are endogenous pigments that arise from
    inherited or acquired defective functions of enzymes involved in heme synthesis (heme oxygenase)
  • Secondary (Hepatogenous) – Type III: most frequent type of photosensitivity observed in livestock. Photosensitizing agent, phylloerythrin (a porphyrin),
    accumulates in plasma because of impaired hepatobiliary excretion.
  • Idiopathic – Type IV: Photosensitivity where the pathogenesis is unknown or the photodynamic agent is not dentified is classified as type IV
40
Q

Cattle serve as a maintenance host for the serovar Hardjo, which is
the most common cause of leptospirosis in the species. Chronic infections are often associated with abortions, stillbirths, and infertility. Which of the following management techniques increases a herd’s risk for Hardjo infections?
a. Artificial insemination
b. Feeding total mixed rations (TMR)
c. Maintaining a “closed” herd
d. Sharing grazing fields with sheep

A

Sharing grazing fields with sheep

41
Q

Treatment of cattle showing neurologic and GIT disturbances after ingesting used oil and battery from machinery waste?
a. Ca EDTA
b. Atropine
c. Yohimbine
d. Acetylcysteine

A

Ca EDTA

Antidote: calcium disodium edetate (Ca-EDTA) is given IV or SC (110 mg/kg/day) divided bid for 3 days; this treatment should be repeated 2 days later

42
Q

Which of the following is associated to fasciola infestation?
a. Black disease
b. Malignant edema
c. Bloat
d. Anthrax

A

Black disease

43
Q

Which of the following is associated to ingestion of silage?
a. Black disease
b. Malignant edema
c. Anthrax
d. Listeriosis

A

Listeriosis

44
Q

Stage of Johne’s disease in which emaciation and bottled jaw is observed?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4

A

Stage 4

  • stage 1- silent, subclinical, non-detectable infection
  • stage 2- Subclinical shreadders
  • stage 3- Clinical Johne’s
  • Stage 4- terminal/final state of the fatal disease, animals become emaciated with fluid
    diarrhea and develop “bottle Jaw”
45
Q

Q-fever can be transmitted through which of the following?
a. Exposure to birth fluids
b. Ingestion of milk
c. Infected ticks
d. All of the above

A

All of the above

46
Q

The most pronounced clinical manifestation of surra infection to cattle?
a. Bleeding Tendencies
b. Immunosuppression
c. Embolism
d. Pulmonary Edema

A

Immunosuppression

T. evansi infection of cattle and buffalo usually lead to pronounced immunosuppression, resulting in increased susceptibility to other opportunistic diseases

47
Q

Preventive/ prophylactic medication of trypanosoma in cattle?
a. Suramin
b. Ethidium bromide
c. Diminazene aceturate
d. Isomethamedium

A

Isomethamedium

48
Q

The most effective treatment of anaplasma in cattle?
a. Imidocarb
b. Trimethoprim Sulfa
c. Oxytetracycline
d. Enrofloxacin

A

Oxytetracycline

Tetracyclines has a good intracellular penetration

49
Q

The most effective treatment of Fasciola hepatica infection to cattle?
a. Nitroimidazole
b. Ivermectin
c. Albendazole
d. Triclabendazole

A

Triclabendazole

50
Q

Which of the following agent causes mid-term abortion?
a. Trichomonas foetus
b. IBR virus
c. Brucella abortus
d. Leptospira harjo

A

IBR virus

Caused by Bovine herpes virus-1

51
Q

Which of the following breed of cattle is predisposed to pink eye?
a. Hereford
b. Brahman
c. Simmental
d. Angus

A

Hereford

Breeds lacking pigment on their eyelids (Herefords, Hereford crosses, Charolais, and some Holsteins) are more susceptible to pinkeye because of their increased
sensitivity to sunlight and a decreased immune response in the eye.

8 Reviewer A + Reviewer B Veterinary Medicine (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions