Ruminant medicine Flashcards
Pale or white streaks in the muscles of rapidly growing calves, lamb and kids is a characteristic feature of:
a. Vitamin E/ Selenium Deficiency
b. Hypokalemic myopathy
c. Black leg
d. Malignant edema
Vitamin E/ Selenium Deficiency
Sawhorse stance is a characteristic feature of what disease?
a. Tetanus
b. Anthrax
c. Botulism
d. Rabies
Tetanus
A diarrhea that has a characteristic “septic tank odor” in a 2 weeks old calf caused by
a. Corona
b. Rotavirus
c. E. coli
d. Salmonella
Salmonella
The occurrence of this disease is self-limiting because the agent destroys the small intestinal villi and the large intestine is spared
a. Corona virus infection
b. Rotaviral gastroenteritis
c. Colibacillosis
d. Salmonellosis
Rotaviral gastroenteritis
This pathogen attack the both small and large intestinal villi
producing severe diarrhea
a. Corona virus infection
b.Rotaviral gastroenteritis
c. Colibacillosis
d.Salmonellosis
Corona virus infection
A substance normally produced by the fetus which stimulates the growth of Brucella spp.
a. Erythritol
b.Hydroxyapatite
c. Prostaglandin
d.Progesterone
Erythritol
The most susceptible ruminants in anthrax?
a. Buffalo
b. Cattle
c. Sheep
d. Goat
Buffalo
Which of the following disease/s exhibit zebra stripping lesions in the gastro intestinal tract:
a. BVD
b. Rinderpest
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
BVD & Rinderpest
Which of the following animal is the best indicator to differentiate FMD and Vesicular disease infection:
a. Cattle
b. Goat
c. Swine
d. Horse
Horse
A high-performance fattener cattle suddenly died, and you observed that there is edematous area near of their hump. Upon palpating you observe a crepitus sound on pressure. On necropsy you observed a necrotic and butyric in odor lesions. What would be your diagnosis?
a. Lightning strike
b. Black leg
c. Black disease
d. Anthrax
Black leg
Which of the following diseases causes extravascular hemolysis of erythrocyte resulting to brown colored urine?
a. Anaplasmosis
b. Babesiosis
c. Heart water disease
d. Both A and B
Anaplasmosis
Disease/s that have a characteristic “sulfur granules like appearance” in histopathological examination?
a. Lumpy jaw
b. Wooden tongue
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
Lumpy jaw & Wooden tongue
Wooden Tongue:Actinobacillus Ligneresii)
Lumpy jaw:( Actinomyces bovis)
Pus from an abscess crushed between two glass slides may show club-like spicules of calcium phosphate (formed by the pathogen and by immune complexes synthesized as a response to
the infection) , giving the appearance of sulfur granules
The only effective control measure to prevent CAE virus transmission to kids
a. Vaccination
b. Provision of vitamins
c. Colostrum feeding
d. Bottle feeding
Bottle feeding
Transmitted mainly through consumption of virus infected colostrum and milk. Direct contact with infected animals and body secretions.
The most prominent clinical sign of FMD infection in reindeer?
a. Pancreatitis
b. Erosion of mucosal epithelium
c. Antlers shedding
d. Tiger heart lesions
Antlers shedding
Which of the following disease/s produce classical consolidated and typically marbled lungs?
a. CPP
b. CBPP
c. Hemosep
d. FMD
CBPP
Mycoplasma mycoides is a bacterium that causes contagious bovine pleuropneumonia (CBPP).
Yawning movements, which may be accurately described as voiceless attempts to bellow in cattle is a clinical sign of:
a. Pseudorabies
b. Rabies
c. Listeriosis
d. Mad cow disease
Rabies
Which of the following treatment is indicated in the primary bloat?
a. Vegetable oil
b. Trocar and cannula
c. Antibiotic administration
d. Gastric lavage
Vegetable oil
Tuberculin testing should be evaluated on the maximum hours of___ post inoculation?
a. 24 hrs
b. 36 hr
c. 72 hrs
d. 64 hrs
72 hrs
Tilmicosin must not be used in this ruminants because it is fatal
a. Sheep
b. Goat
c. Cattle
d. Carabao
Goat
Injection of this antibiotic has been shown to be fatal in swine and non-human primates, and may be fatal in horses and goats
Antibiotic administration in the latter part of the hemorrhagic septicemia cases is not recommended because?
a. The organisms already developed resistance to the antibiotic
b. The animal develops allergy to the antibiotic
c. It causes the precipitation of the endotoxin
d. Biotransformation the drugs is impaired
It causes the precipitation of the endotoxin
The only Host adapted leptospira serovar in cattle?
a. Harjo
b. Gryppotyphosa
c. Interohemorrhagicae
d. Pomona
Harjo
In the pathogenesis of contagious ecthyma, the epidermal tissue proliferation under the scab are called?
a. Pustules
b. Papules
c. cyst
d. Verrucose
Verrucose
The most prominent manifestation of Coxiella burneti infection in ruminants are the following except?
a. Fever
b. Abortion
c. Subclinical mastitis
d. Infertility
Fever
The most susceptible species of ruminants to copper poisoning
a. Cattle
b. Goat
c. Sheep
d. Buffalo
Sheep
Cattle disease that produces a classical bovine bonkers syndrome?
a. Copper poisoning
b. Lead poisoning
c. Ammonia poisoning
d. Chlorinated hydrocarbons poisoning
Ammonia poisoning
Treatment that could be used to minimize the severity of toxicity on cattle overfed with urea treated feedstuff?
a.Cold water
b.Vinegar
c.Soda lime
d.Both A and B
Cold water & Vinegar
A post mortem hall mark of bloat?
a. Hepatic congestion
b. Bloat line
c. Overly distended rumen
d. Sudden death
Bloat line
A characteristic color of TB granuloma lesion often seen in cattle during post mortem examination?
a.Yellow
b.White
c.Greyish white
d.Brown
Yellow
White in buffaloes and greyish white in other animals.
Causative agent of strawberry foot rot in sheep?
a.Streptococcus
b.Dermatophyte
c.Sporothrix
d.Dermatophilus
Dermatophilus congolensis
Pathogenic bacteria in cattle that has longest incubation period?
a.Mycobacterium Bovis
b.Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c.Mycobacterium avium sub. Paratuberculosis
d.Mycoplasma
Mycobacterium avium sub. Paratuberculosis
6 months-15 years
The following are the antibiotics that could be used in the treating mycoplasma infection in ruminants except:
a.Danofloxacin
b.Tylosin
c.Enrofloxacin
d.Penicillin
Penicillin
All mycoplasmas lack a cell wall and, therefore, all are inherently resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics (e.g.,penicillin).
Which of the following bacteria/virus can be a zoonotic and can be
acquired through ingestion of contaminated milk?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Brucella meletensis
c. Listeria monocytogens
d. All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following disease is necropsy procedure contraindicated?
a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Botulism
c. Anthrax
d. Rinderpest
Anthrax
Suspect animal should not be opened, the bacilli may sporolate contaminating the environment
Which of the following disease exhibit flaccid paralysis?
a. Tetanus
b. Botulism
c. Anthrax
d. Listeriosis
Botulism
Wound debridement is the primary treatment course of what disease?
a. Tetanus
b. Botulism
c. Anthrax
d. Listeriosis
Tetanus
Rose Bengal Test is use to screen what specific disease
a. Tryanosomiasis
b. Brucellosis
c. Johnnes Disease
d. Tuberculosis
Brucellosis
Definitive Diagnostic tool for leptospirosis?
a. ELISA
b. PCR
c. MIT
d. Dark field Microscopy
Dark field Microscopy
Outbreak of the disease is associated to long drought and sudden storm surge?
a. Botulism
b. Anthrax
c. Tetanus
d. Hemosep
Anthrax
Outbreak is related to flooding as it may cause the spores to flow out at the soil surface
Type of photosensitation that commonly occur in cattle due to aberrant pigment metabolism ?
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
Type II
- Primary photosensitation - Type I: occurs when the photodynamic agent is either ingested, injected, or absorbed through the skin.
Photodynamic agent ->absorbed in skin or GIT - >skin(native form) - Defective or aberrant pigment formation - Type II
due to aberrant pigment metabolism is known to occur in both cattle and cats. Photosensitizing porphyrin agents are endogenous pigments that arise from
inherited or acquired defective functions of enzymes involved in heme synthesis (heme oxygenase) - Secondary (Hepatogenous) – Type III: most frequent type of photosensitivity observed in livestock. Photosensitizing agent, phylloerythrin (a porphyrin),
accumulates in plasma because of impaired hepatobiliary excretion. - Idiopathic – Type IV: Photosensitivity where the pathogenesis is unknown or the photodynamic agent is not dentified is classified as type IV
Cattle serve as a maintenance host for the serovar Hardjo, which is
the most common cause of leptospirosis in the species. Chronic infections are often associated with abortions, stillbirths, and infertility. Which of the following management techniques increases a herd’s risk for Hardjo infections?
a. Artificial insemination
b. Feeding total mixed rations (TMR)
c. Maintaining a “closed” herd
d. Sharing grazing fields with sheep
Sharing grazing fields with sheep
Treatment of cattle showing neurologic and GIT disturbances after ingesting used oil and battery from machinery waste?
a. Ca EDTA
b. Atropine
c. Yohimbine
d. Acetylcysteine
Ca EDTA
Antidote: calcium disodium edetate (Ca-EDTA) is given IV or SC (110 mg/kg/day) divided bid for 3 days; this treatment should be repeated 2 days later
Which of the following is associated to fasciola infestation?
a. Black disease
b. Malignant edema
c. Bloat
d. Anthrax
Black disease
Which of the following is associated to ingestion of silage?
a. Black disease
b. Malignant edema
c. Anthrax
d. Listeriosis
Listeriosis
Stage of Johne’s disease in which emaciation and bottled jaw is observed?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 2
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 4
Stage 4
- stage 1- silent, subclinical, non-detectable infection
- stage 2- Subclinical shreadders
- stage 3- Clinical Johne’s
- Stage 4- terminal/final state of the fatal disease, animals become emaciated with fluid
diarrhea and develop “bottle Jaw”
Q-fever can be transmitted through which of the following?
a. Exposure to birth fluids
b. Ingestion of milk
c. Infected ticks
d. All of the above
All of the above
The most pronounced clinical manifestation of surra infection to cattle?
a. Bleeding Tendencies
b. Immunosuppression
c. Embolism
d. Pulmonary Edema
Immunosuppression
T. evansi infection of cattle and buffalo usually lead to pronounced immunosuppression, resulting in increased susceptibility to other opportunistic diseases
Preventive/ prophylactic medication of trypanosoma in cattle?
a. Suramin
b. Ethidium bromide
c. Diminazene aceturate
d. Isomethamedium
Isomethamedium
The most effective treatment of anaplasma in cattle?
a. Imidocarb
b. Trimethoprim Sulfa
c. Oxytetracycline
d. Enrofloxacin
Oxytetracycline
Tetracyclines has a good intracellular penetration
The most effective treatment of Fasciola hepatica infection to cattle?
a. Nitroimidazole
b. Ivermectin
c. Albendazole
d. Triclabendazole
Triclabendazole
Which of the following agent causes mid-term abortion?
a. Trichomonas foetus
b. IBR virus
c. Brucella abortus
d. Leptospira harjo
IBR virus
Caused by Bovine herpes virus-1
Which of the following breed of cattle is predisposed to pink eye?
a. Hereford
b. Brahman
c. Simmental
d. Angus
Hereford
Breeds lacking pigment on their eyelids (Herefords, Hereford crosses, Charolais, and some Holsteins) are more susceptible to pinkeye because of their increased
sensitivity to sunlight and a decreased immune response in the eye.
