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8 Reviewer A + Reviewer B Veterinary Medicine > Overall medicine > Flashcards

Overall medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common cause of sudden death in older mares around the time of parturition?
a. Left-sided congestive heart failure
b. Rupture of the uterine or ovarian artery
c. Cranial mesenteric arteritis, resulting in occlusive thrombotic disease
d. Valvular endocarditis

A

Rupture of the uterine or ovarian artery

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2
Q

This disease occurs when fish is exposed to water which has become supersaturated with air
a. Gas bubble disease
b. Swimbladder stress syndrome
c. Supersaturation disease
d. Oxygen bubble disease

A

Gas bubble disease

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3
Q

Reoviral infection in broiler chicks is most often associated with:
a.Immunosuppression
b.Increased respiratory disease
c.Abnormal bone and feather development
d.Impaired egg production

A

Abnormal bone and feather development

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4
Q

What is the best sample to submit to a diagnostic laboratory to confirm a clinical diagnosis of toxoplasmosis in sheep?
a.Aborted fetus
b.Fetal abomasal contents
c.Fetal serum or thoracic fluid
d.Cotyledons

A

Cotyledons

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5
Q

The year Philippines received OIE recognition as FMD-free status without vaccination.
a.2012
b.2013
c.2014
d.2015

A

2015

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6
Q

Q-fever can be transmitted through which of the following?
a.Exposure to birth fluids
b.Ingestion of milk
c.Infected ticks
d.All of the choices

A

All of the choices

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7
Q

A bitch has been bleeding for a week from the vagina. The owner stated last heat occurred 3 months ago. Upon closer examination, a 2-cm diameter cauliflower-like growth was seen at the inner fold of the vulva. Impression smear revealed round cells with a vacuolated cytoplasm. What is the treatment of choice?
a.Doxorubicin
b.Cyclophosphamide
c.Vincristine
d.Procarbazine

A

Vincristine

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8
Q

A 14-week-old broiler breeder farm exhibits symptoms of nasal discharge and respiratory issues. In addition, several birds exhibit depression, decreased consumption of food and water, and facial swelling. On laboratory test, the colony shows a typical “fried egg” appearance under low magnification. Which of the following diseases is most likely affecting the flock?
a.Mycoplasmosis
b.Infectious bronchitis
c.Infectious laryngotracheitis
d.Avian influenza

A

Mycoplasmosis

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9
Q

A high-performance fattener cattle suddenly died, and you observed that there is edematous area near of their hump. Upon palpating you observe a crepitus sound on pressure. On necropsy you observed a necrotic and butyric in odor lesions. What would be your diagnosis?
a.Lightning strike
b.Black leg
c.Black disease
d.Anthrax

A

Black leg

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10
Q

Nipah virus disease of swine and humans emerged in Malaysia in 1998 and 1999. What is the normal reservoir of the virus?
a.Mosquitoes
b.Rodents
c.Fruit bats
d.Birds

A

Fruit bats

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11
Q

In elephants, gestation lasts for:
a.16 months
b.18 months
c.22 months
d.24 months

A

22 months

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12
Q

Which of the following is the anticoagulant of choice for fish blood?
a.Citrate
b.Lithium Heparin
c.kEDTA
d.Fluoride

A

Lithium Heparin

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13
Q

Appearance of black spots that preceded mortalities in juvenile shrimps grown in ponds
a. Aflatoxicosis
b. Ichthyophoniasis
c. Fusarium disease
d. Mycosis

A

Fusarium disease

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14
Q

Given that a puppy is infected with heartworm microfilariae on the second day of life, what is the earliest time that this animal will test positive for microfilariae?
a.3 months of age
b.6 months of age
c.9 months of age
d.12 months of age

A

6 months of age

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15
Q

In vaginal cytology, which cell predominates during standing heat in the bitch?
a.Polymorphonuclear cell
b.Uncornified epithelial cell
c.Superficial epithelial cell
d.Parabasal epithelial cell

A

Superficial epithelial cell

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16
Q

A dog suddenly collapsed in the clinic during a routine check up. Quickly, the attending veterinarian supplied oxygen and attached a digital monitor to the patient. The rhythm at lead II was ventricular tachycardia. To address the life-threatening arrhythmia, what would the attending veterinarian administer?
a.Lidocaine
b.Atenolol
c.Amiodarone
d.Verapamil

A

Lidocaine

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17
Q

In pigs, atresia ani may go undiagnosed for 3 to 4 weeks because:
a.Pigs are usually dirty
b.Clinical signs may be alleviated by vomiting
c.Pigs do not strain if unable to defecate
d.Pigs do not defecate very often

A

Clinical signs may be alleviated by vomiting

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18
Q

A dog was presented to the clinic with exercise intolerance, orthopnea, and soft moist coughing. Crackling sounds and muffled heart sounds were heard upon auscultation of the thorax. Thoracic radiography revealed a globose cardiac silhouette with increased diaphragmatic and sternal contact. In addition, diffuse alveolar and bronchial patterns were also seen suggestive of pulmonary edema. What drug will you use to address the latter?
a.Sildenafil
b.Pimobendan
c.Enalapril
d.Furosemide

A

Furosemide

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19
Q

What is the most efficient means of transmission of Toxoplasma gondii to cats?
a.Congenital (in utero)
b.Predation by another host infected with cysts
c.Inhalation of aerosolized oocysts
d.Ingestion of feces

A

Predation by another host infected with cysts

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20
Q

Which of the following is the most common bacterium associated with canine pyometra?
a.Staphylococcus aureus
b.Staphylococcus intermedius
c.Escherichia coli
d.Proteus mirabilis

A

Escherichia coli

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21
Q

A dyspneic cat with an enlarged abdomen was suspected to have Feline Infectious Peritonitis. To confirm the diagnosis, the vet aspirated pleural effusions and placed a drop in water-acetic acid mixture. This test is the:
a.Coomb’s test
b.Coggin’s test
c.Rivalta’s test
d.Robert’s test

A

Rivalta’s test

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22
Q

The most consistent early clinical finding in horses with granulomatous enteritis is:
a. diarrhea
b. weight loss
c. peripheral lymphadenopathy
d. anorexia

A

Weight loss

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23
Q

RA 8485 or The Animal Welfare Act of 1988 has been amended by which of the following Republic Acts?
a.10631
b.10456
c.10136
d.10447

A

10631

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24
Q

Aside from Dipylidiasis, which is a common cause of ‘scooting’ or rubbing the anal area along the ground in dogs?
a.Constipation
b.Obstipation
c.Anal sac impaction
d.Perianal fistulae

A

Anal sac impaction

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25
Q

Which ocular disorder is associated with taurine deficiency in cats?
a.Retinal detachment
b.Glaucoma
c.Central retinal degeneration
d.Anterior uveitis

A

Central retinal degeneration

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26
Q

The drug most commonly used to prevent hypokalemic periodic paralysis is:
a.Indomethacin
b.Acetazolamide
c.Acetaminophen
d.Glucose

A

Acetazolamide

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27
Q

If acute organophosphate insecticide poisoning is suspected, an appropriate sample from a live animal for initial diagnostic testing is:
a.Serum
b.Whole blood
c.Fat biopsy
d.Urine

A

Whole blood

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28
Q

Based on Administrative Order 21 Series 2003 about the “Rules and Regulations on Pet Shops”, dogs or cat should only be displayed for not more than?
a.7 days
b.10 days
c.14 days
d.21 days

A

14 days

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29
Q

Which of the following anthelmintics is most effective against whipworms in dogs?
a.Praziquantel
b.Fenbendazole
c.Pyrantel pamoate
d.Bunamidine

A

Fenbendazole

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30
Q

Dysphagia from a snakebite is associated with:
a.Direct nerve damage
b.Systemic toxemia
c.Pharyngeal edema
d.Necrotizing glossitis

A

Pharyngeal edema

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31
Q

What is the most important treatment in horses with diarrhea and acute toxemia?
a. Plasma
b. Anti-inflammatory agent
c. Antimicrobial therapy
d. Fluids

A

Fluids

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32
Q

Many hens in a large backyard flock recently became ill after the owner purchased four new chickens. The sick hens are gasping, coughing and sneezing. They have poor appetite and act depressed. Some affected birds have watery green diarrhea and swelling of the head and neck. A few have paralyzed legs and wings, twisted necks, are circling, and have tremors or clonic spasms. Birds are not laying well and some eggs are misshapen with watery albumen. Necropsy of a dead chicken shows petechial hemorrhages on the mucosal surface of the proventriculus and gizzard. Which of the following diseases is most likely affecting this flock?
a. Infectious coryza
b. Infectious bronchitis
c. Infectious laryngotracheitis
d. Newcastle disease

A

Newcastle disease

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33
Q

Tricaine methanosulfonate is a water-soluble, white, crystalline powder commonly used as a:
a.Fish antibiotic
b.Fish anesthetic
c.Water conditioner
d.All of these

A

Fish anesthetic

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34
Q

Watery whites in the albumen and kidney and ureter distension with urates are usually associated with:
a.ILT
b.IB
c.EDS
d.ND

A

IB

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35
Q

Based on Administrative Order 32 Series of 2000 about the “Implementing Rules and Regulations on Dog Shows” there should be at least _____ show veterinarians during the show.
a.1
b.2
c.3
d.4

A

2

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36
Q

The first signs of the disease are usually anorexia or loss of appetite, with darkening either of the whole fish or of particular areas of the dorsum or back
a. Red spot disease
b. Nocardiosis
c. Streptococcosis
d. Vibriosis

A

Vibriosis

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37
Q

The most important factor in managing horses with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is:
a.Use of an appropriate antibiotic for an appropriate period
b.Intermittent use of a bronchodilator
c.Environmental management
d.Use of expectorants

A

Environmental management

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38
Q

A dozen young chickens at a broiler-raising facility are found dead on their backs and sides with no premonitory signs. Other birds appear cyanotic, with distended and reddened abdomens and congested blood vessels. Affected birds have an increased respiratory rate and reduced exercise tolerance. Necropsy of a dead chicken shows variable amount of clear yellow fluid and clots of fibrin in the hepatoperitoneal spaces. What is the clinical diagnosis?
a.Colibacillosis
b.Ascites syndrome
c.Salmonellosis
d.Inclusion body hepatitis

A

Ascites syndrome

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39
Q

Which of the following treatment is indicated in the primary bloat?
a.Vegetable oil
b.Trocar and cannula
c.Antibiotic administration
d.Gastric lavage

A

Vegetable oil

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40
Q

If you suspect a case of Newcastle disease, which body systems are needed to be examined in order to confirm your diagnosis?
a.Respiratory, reproductive and urinary
b.Digestive, urinary and nervous
c.Skeletal, nervous and reproductive
d.Nervous, respiratory and digestive

A

Nervous, respiratory and digestive

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41
Q

After infection with infectious bursal disease virus (IBDV), when does bursal atrophy occur?
a.1-3 days
b.7-10 days
c.28-30 days
d.40-42 days

A

7-10 days

42
Q

The most common cause of death in cats falling from heights (high-rise syndrome) is:
a.Cranial trauma
b.Rupture of abdominal viscera
c.Open fractures of long bones
d.Thoracic trauma

A

Thoracic trauma

43
Q

Postcoital pyometra in cows is virtually a pathognomonic sign of:
a.Campylobacteriosis
b.Listeriosis
c.Trichomoniasis
d.Actinomycosis

A

Trichomoniasis

44
Q

The CAE virus causes lesions in all except which of the following?
a.Mammary gland tissue
b.Lung parenchyma tissue
c.Synovial tissue
d.Hepatic tissue

A

Hepatic tissue

45
Q

The characteristic “moth-eaten” appearance of the bones of the skull radiographically and the so-called “rubber jaw” syndrome is associated with:
a.Hypothyroidism
b.Hyperadrenocorticism
c.Hypopituitarism
d.Hyperparathyroidism

A

Hyperparathyroidism

46
Q

This disease was first reported among Penaeus monodon juveniles cultured in Thailand in 1992 with an estimated shrimp loss of approximately 30 million US dollars
a. Koi herpesvirus
b. Taura syndrome virus
c. Infectious myonecrosis virus disease
d. Yellow head virus disease

A

Yellow head virus disease

47
Q

The only approved Beta-agonist drug to be used as feed additive for swine in the Philippines.
a.Clenbuterol
b.Salbutamol
c.Terbutaline
d.Ractopamine

A

Ractopamine

48
Q

The first step in treating a cat that eliminates outside the litterbox is to:
a.Improve litterbox hygiene
b.Confine the cat in a cage
c.Prescribe diazepam
d.Punish the cat

A

Improve litterbox hygiene

49
Q

Which type of horse is least likely to have an inguinal (scrotal) hernia as an adult?
a.Standardbred
b.Draft Horse
c.Tennessee Walking Horse
d.American Quarter Horse

A

American Quarter Horse

50
Q

Causative agent of strawberry foot rot in sheep?
a.Streptococcus
b.Dermatophyte
c.Sporothrix
d.Dermatophilus

A

Dermatophilus

51
Q

Philippine Veterinary Medicine Law of 2004 (Republic Act 9268) repeals which former Republic Act?
a.RA 10631
b.RA 8485
c.RA 382
d.RA 1435

A

RA 382

52
Q

Rose Bengal Test is use to screen what specific disease
a.Tryanosomiasis
b.Brucellosis
c.Johnnes Disease
d.Tuberculosis

A

Brucellosis

53
Q

The Rules and Regulations on the Conduct of Scientific Procedures using Animals” are explained in which Department of Agriculture Administrative Order?
a.DA AO No. 1
b.DA AO No. 15
c.DA AO No. 40
d.DA AO No. 45

A

DA AO No. 40

54
Q

In adult psittacine birds, acute death caused by severe liver necrosis is most frequently associated with:
a.Pacheco’s disease
b.Chlamydiosis
c.Polyomaviral infection
d.Poxviral infection

A

Pacheco’s disease

55
Q

Disease/s that have a characteristic “sulfur granules like appearance” in histopathological examination?
a.Lumpy jaw
b.Wooden tongue
c.Both A and B
d.None of the choices

A

Lumpy jaw & Wooden tongue

56
Q

Coggin’s Test is a test to detect horses with Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA). This test is also known as:
a.Virus Neutralization Test
b.Reverse Trancriptase- PCR
c.ELISA
d.Agar Gel Immunodiffusion (AGID)

A

Agar Gel Immunodiffusion (AGID)

57
Q

The feeding of raw infertile avian eggs to ovophagous reptiles is likely to induce deficiency of:
a.Choline and inositol
b.Carotene
c.Biotin
d.Methionine

A

Biotin

58
Q

Tilmicosin must not be used in this ruminants because it is fatal
a.Sheep
b.Goat
c.Cattle
d.Carabao

A

Goat

59
Q

Which of the following is the estrogenic mycotoxin that may have pronounced effect on the reproduction of sow?
a.Persin
b.Zearalenone
c.Ochratoxin
d.Picrotoxin

A

Zearalenone

60
Q

A parasitic isopod that is a major pest in the cage culture of Nile tilapia in Taal Lake
a. Alitropus typus
b. Lernea sp.
c. Prosthodisplosthomum sp.
d. Monogenean parasite

A

Alitropus typus

61
Q

What is the drug of choice for topical treatment of infected thermal burns?
a.Tannic acid spray
b.Povidone-iodine solution
c.Neomycin ointment
dSilver sulfadiazine cream

A

Silver sulfadiazine cream

62
Q

Which of the following companion animal diseases is not caused solely by a virus?
a.Feline infectious peritonitis
b.Canine distemper
c.Rabies
d.Kennel cough

A

Kennel cough

63
Q

Cracked-hooves and cracking or bleeding of the footpads of boars are often associated with what deficiency.
a.Choline
b.Pantothenic Acid
c.Niacin
d.Biotin

A

Biotin

64
Q

The principal gross lesion found in birds with psittacosis is:
a.Pulmonary hemorrhage
b.Thickened air sac
c.Splenic enlargement
d.Pancreatic atrophy

A

Splenic enlargement

65
Q

A diarrhea that has a characteristic “septic tank odor” in a 2 weeks old calf caused by.
a.Corona
b.Rotavirus
c.E. coli
d.Salmonella

A

Salmonella

66
Q

In 1-day-old piglets, diarrhea that is nonhemorrhagic and produces no obvious lesions at necropsy is most likely caused by:
a.Rotaviral infection
b.E. coli infection
c.Overnutrition
d.Coccidiosis

A

E. coli infection

67
Q

Clinical signs of Cushing’s syndrome in horses include:
a.Ataxia, excessive sweating, ptosis
b.Strabismus, miosis, excessive sweating
c.Polyuria, hirsutism, excessive sweating
d.Miosis, excessive sweating, ptosis

A

Polyuria, hirsutism, excessive sweating

68
Q

Enzootic pneumonia in pigs is often associated with intensive pig production and characterized by slight and constant dry cough, sneezing, loss of appetite, fever, poor feed efficiency and runting. What causes enzootic pneumonia?
a.Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia
b.Mycoplasma hyopnuemoniae
c.Pasteurella multocida
d.Swine Influenza Virus Type A

A

Mycoplasma hyopnuemoniae

69
Q

Ferrets are naturally susceptible to:
a.Canine distemper virus
b.Canine parvovirus
c.Feline panleukopenia virus
d.Feline immunodeficiency virus

A

Canine distemper virus

70
Q

Type of photosensitation that commonly occur in cattle due to aberrant pigment metabolism?
a.Type I
b.Type II
c.Type III
d.Type IV

A

Type II

71
Q

The most common dermatophyte of cats is:
a.Microsporum canis
b.Microsporum felis
c.Trichophyton mentagrophytes
d.Microsporum gypseum

A

Microsporum canis

72
Q

A 7-day-old commercial broiler farm reported a high first-week mortality rate. The chickens were unthrifty, had unhealed navels, and had varying degrees of respiratory signs. Necropsy showed airsacculitis and fibrinous exudate on the liver and pericardial sac. Which of the following diseases is most likely affecting this flock?
a.Sudden death syndrome
b.Egg drop syndrome
c.Colibacillosis
d.Candidiasis

A

Colibacillosis

73
Q

The most common eyelid tumor in horse is:
a. Melanoma
b. Sarcoid
c. Lymphosarcoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

74
Q

Which tumor is most likely to produce bone marrow dysplasia?
a.Sertoli-cell tumor
b.Interstitial-cell tumor
c.Seminoma
d.All of these

A

Sertoli-cell tumor

75
Q

A graft taken from one horse and applied to another horse is called:
a.Autograft
b.Allograft
c.Xenograft
d.Split-thickness graft

A

Allograft

76
Q

The minimum time for quarantine strongly recommended for pet fishes and animals intended for display in public aquaria is:
a.21 days
b.30 days
c.45 days
d.60 days

A

30 days

77
Q

You are presented with a 2-year-old Golden Retriever with right front limb lameness for 3 weeks. There is slight swelling of the right shoulder. On radiographs, a lesion in the humeral metaphysis is characterized by cortical destruction, active periosteal proliferation, and a hazy transition zone between normal and abnormal bone. The most likely cause of these findings is:
a.Osteosarcoma
b.Osteochondrosis
c.Bacterial osteomyelitis
d.Healing fracture

A

Osteosarcoma

78
Q

Hepatotoxicity from chronic aflatoxicosis in any avian species is associated with the primary histopathologic lesion of:
a.Extensive parenchymal fibrosis
b.Hepatocyte vacuolation
c.Hepatocyte necrosis
d.Bile duct hyperplasia

A

Bile duct hyperplasia

79
Q

What parameter/s does the pulse oximeter measure?
Respiration rate and depth
a.Oxygen saturation of b.hemoglobin and heart rate
c.Heart rate and respiration rate
d.Heart rate only

A

Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin and heart rate

80
Q

Which of the following is the most common vector of African Horse Sickness?
Sucking lice
House flies
Horse flies
Biting midges

A

Biting midges

81
Q

A 5-year-old puppy has had coughing and an oculonasal discharge for the past week. The puppy was vaccinated at 10 and 12 weeks of age. A blood smear stained with Diff-Quik reveals homogenous eosinophilic-staining inclusions in red blood cells and neutrophils. The most likely cause of this puppy’s illness is:
a.Parvovirus infection
b.Ehrlichiosis
c.Borreliosis
d.Distemper

A

Distemper

82
Q

Urinary calculi often obstruct the urethral process in:
a.Boars
b.Bulls
c.Rams
d.Stallions

A

Rams

83
Q

Actinomyces bovis infection in cattle is commonly associated with:
a.Mandibular osteomyelitis
b.Lingual induration and inflammation
c.Esophageal granulomas
d.Granulomatous skin ulcers

A

Mandibular osteomyelitis

84
Q

Ovariohysterectomy can help reduce the frequency of mammary neoplasia if performed before the:
a.1st estrous cycle
b.2nd estrous cycle
c.3rd estrous cycle
d.4th estrous cycle

A

4th estrous cycle

85
Q

The most common contagious disease of rabbits is:
a.Brucellosis
b.Listeriosis
c.Myxomatosis
d.Pasteurellosis

A

Pasteurellosis

86
Q

A dog has a thin haircoat, scaly dermatitis (especially around the eyes, mouth and ears), parakeratosis and hair depigmentation. These signs are most likely related to a dietary deficiency of:
a.Zinc
b.Iron
c.Selenium
d.Calcium

A

Zinc

87
Q

In nonhuman primates, venous blood is most easily collected from the:
a.Tail vein
b.Femoral vein
c.Jugular vein
d.Cephalic vein

A

Femoral vein

88
Q

Water deprivation is usually related to which non-infectious disease of pigs?
a.Hyperthyroidism
b.Salt Poisoning
c.Porcine Stress Syndrome
d.Intestinal Torsion

A

Salt Poisoning

89
Q

The hallmark of Clostridium botulinum intoxication is:
a.A stiff, stilted gait
b.Caudal ataxia progressing cranially
c.Rapidly progressive, flaccid paralysis
d.Excessive bleeding and bruising

A

Rapidly progressive, flaccid paralysis

90
Q

Hip dysplasia is best described by which of the following?
a.Most often affects small breeds of dogs
b.Is not hereditary
c.Resolves with age
d.Is diagnosed by ventrodorsal radiograph of the pelvis

A

Is diagnosed by ventrodorsal radiograph of the pelvis

91
Q

Which of the following animal is the best indicator to differentiate FMD and Vesicular disease infection:
a.Cattle
b.Goat
c.Swine
d.Horse

A

Horse

92
Q

Quarternary ammonium compounds are toxic to:
a.Dogs
b.Cats
c.Guinea pigs
d.Rats

A

Cats

93
Q

A cat is presented with pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin and mucous membranes. This condition is called:
a.Anemia
b.Icterus
c.Purpura
d.Petechiation

A

Petechiation

94
Q

Which clinical sign can help differentiate foal-heat diarrhea from viral enteritis in a foal?
a.Normal body temperature
b.Fetid odor of the feces
c.Hypophagia
d.Watery feces

A

Hypophagia

95
Q

A mixed breed dog has had a relatively severe, dry cough for the past 10 days. The cough began 4-5 days after the animal was housed at a kennel. The most likely cause of this dog’s disease is:
a.Herpesvirus
b.Streptococcus pneumoniae
c.Klebsiella pneumoniae
d.Bordetella bronchiseptica

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

96
Q

The Liptak test is used to measure:
a.pH of organ contents
b.pH of blood
c.pH of urine
d.White blood cell numbers in milk

A

pH of organ contents

97
Q

As a minimum standard, blood collection tubes containing EDTA as an anticoagulant should be filled:
a.To the top
b.Three-quarters of the way to the top
c.Half way to the top
d.One-fourth of the way to the top

A

Half way to the top

98
Q

Which lesion is not associated with respiratory disease?
a.Perihepatitis
b.Pneumonia
c.Exudative diathesis
d.Pericarditis

A

Exudative diathesis

99
Q

A useful instrument to aid removal of a lactolith from a cow’s teat is:
a.An Alligator forceps
b.A Hug tumor extractor
c.A Lichty teat knife
d.A Stoll teat bistoury

A

An Alligator forceps

100
Q

What is the most common clinical sign of overly rapid intravenous infusion of blood products in cats?
Ataxia
Bradycardia
Vomiting
Opisthotonus

A

Vomiting

8 Reviewer A + Reviewer B Veterinary Medicine (15 decks)

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