Equine medicine Flashcards
A factor commonly leading to exertional myopathy (rhabdomyelitis) in horses is:
a.Protein deficient diet
b.Equine herpesvirus-1 infection
c. Chronic phenylbutazone administration
d.Changes in exercise pattern
Changes in exercise pattern
Which of the following causes abortion in mares, with typical fetal lesions that include hepatic necrosis and bronchiolitis?
a. Equine viral arteritris
b.Equine herpesvirus-1 infection
c. Equine influenza
d.Brucellosis
Equine herpesvirus-1 infection
This is the most common equine skin tumor.
a. Melanoma
b.Sarcoid
c. Lymphosarcoma
d.Squamous cell carcinoma
Sarcoid
The most common clinical sign of laryngeal hemiplegia is:
a. Pulmonary crackles
b. Inspiratory stridor
c. Rapid respiratory rate
d. Coughing
Inspiratory stridor
The most important factor in managing horses with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is:
a. Use of an appropriate antibiotic for an appropriate period
b.Intermittent use of a bronchodilator
c. Environmental management
d.Use of expectorants
Environmental management
What is the primary composition of most enteroliths found in horses?
a. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
b. Magnesium ammonium oxalate
c. Magnesium calcium oxalate
d. Magnesium calcium sulfate
Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Which of the following describes a graft taken from another species (e.g. pigskin) and applied to a horse?
a. Split-thickness graft
b. Full-thickness graft
c. Allograft
d. Xenograft
Xenograft
Laminitis is an adverse effect associated with administration of:
a. Furosemide
b. Phenylbutazone
c. Dexamethasone
d. Xylazine
Dexamethasone
Which of the following is involved in the pathogenesis of septic arthritis?
a. Relatively high rates of blood flow in synovial capillaries
b. Articular cartilage destruction by enzymes produced by synovial and inflammatory cells
c. Rapid chondrocyte proliferation and cartilage repair
d. Localization of inoculated bacteria in synovial fluid
Articular cartilage destruction by enzymes produced by synovial and inflammatory cells
What is the most important treatment in horses with diarrhea and acute toxemia?
a. Plasma
b. Anti-inflammatory agent
c. Antimicrobial therapy
d. Fluids
Fluids
What is the most consistent clinical manifestation of cholelithiasis in horses?
a. Dementia
b. Profuse diarrhea
c. Mild intermittent colic
d. Spontaneous epistaxis
Mild intermittent colic
Which sign frequently occurs in horses with guttural pouch mycosis?
a. Dysphagia
b. Retropharyngeal swelling
c. Ataxia
d. Purulent nasal discharge
Dysphagia
The average quantity of colostrum ingested by healthy, active foals by sucking the dam in the first day of life is:
a. 500 mL
b. 1 L
c. 2 L
d. 4 L
4 L
What is the drug of choice for immediate short-term control of seizures in foals?
a. Acepromazine
b. Pentobarbital
c. Xylazine
d. Diazepam
Diazepam
Which organism commonly causes diarrhea in foals?
a. Coronavirus
b. Enterotoxegenic E. coli
c. Campylobacter jejuni
d. Rotavirus
Rotavirus
Which clinicopathologic finding allows definite diagnosis of verminous arteritis?
a.There is no laboratory test to definitively diagnose verminous arteritis
b.Demonstration of large strongyle ova in feces
c. Hyperglobulinemia, hypoalbuminemia and anemia
d.Eosinophilia, hyperproteinemia and anemia
There is no laboratory test to definitively diagnose verminous arteritis
The most consistent early clinical finding in horses with granulomatous enteritis is:
a. diarrhea
b. weight loss
c. peripheral lymphadenopathy
d. anorexia
Weight loss
The most common eyelid tumor in horse is:
a. Melanoma
b. Sarcoid
c. Lymphosarcoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma
A laxative effective in treatment of impactions of ingesta or sand.
a. Metronidazole
b. Mineral oil
c. Butorphanol
d. Psyllium
Psyllium
Clinical sign of monensin toxicity.
a. Stiff gait
b. Diarrhea
c. Petechiation of mucous membrane
d. Ataxia
Stiff gait
Which organism is among those that infect the supraspinatus bursa, leading to fistulous withers?
a. Brucella abortus
b. Actinobacillus
c. Rhodococcus equi
d. Fusobacterium necrophorum
Brucella abortus
What is the most common cause of sudden death in older mares around the time of parturition?
a. Left-sided congestive heart failure
b. Rupture of the uterine or ovarian artery
c. Cranial mesenteric arteritis, resulting in occlusive thrombotic disease
d. Valvular endocarditis
Rupture of the uterine or ovarian artery
Concerning regenerative anemia in horses, which statement is most accurate? a. Mean corpuscular volume is increased.
b. Reticulocytes are seen on peripheral blood smears.
c. Signs of regeneration are not routinely seen in the peripheral blood.
d. Nucleated red blood cells are seen on peripheral blood smears.
Signs of regeneration are not routinely seen in the peripheral blood.
All of the following are hematologic changes indicative of endotoxemia in horses except:
a. Left shift
b. Basophilic cytoplasm in neutrophils
c. Dohle bodies in neutrophils
d. Barr bodies in neutrophils
Barr bodies in neutrophils
All of the following are likely hematologic or biochemical changes associated with chronic infection in horses except:
a. Leftward shift
b. Anemia
c. Mature neutrophilia
d. Monocytosis
Leftward shift
Which clinicopathologic abnormality is most common in horses with acute hepatic failure?
a. Hypoalbuminemia
b. Hypoglobulinemia
c. Prolonged prothrombin time
d. Hypoglycemia
Prolonged prothrombin time
The most consistent early clinical findings in horses with granulomatous enteritis is:
a. Diarrhea
b. Weight loss
c. Anorexia
d. Fever
Weight loss
Muscle damage resulting from prolonged recumbency is best assessed by
monitoring?
a. The complete blood cell count
b. Serum creatinine kinase activity and urea nitrogen level
c. Serum aspartate aminotransferase and creatine kinase activities
d. Serum alkaline phosphatase and aspartate
aminotransferase activities
Serum aspartate aminotransferase and creatine kinase activities
Acute pulmonary insufficiency following smoke inhalation injury and carbon monoxide poisoning is related to:
a. Pathologic changes of the upper respiratory tract
b. Pathologic changes of type II alveolar epithelial cells
c. Pathologic changes of type I alveolar epithelial cells
d. Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin
Reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin
You are asked to examine a horse that just arrived after a 48-hour trailer ride. The horse has a rectal temperature of 105 F and is depressed. You detect no airway sounds in the ventral thorax and percuss dullness on the thorax from the level of the shoulder to the elbow. The most likely cause of these findings is:
a. Parasitic pneumonitis
b. Pneumothorax
c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
d. Pleuropneumonia
Pleuropneumonia
In a horse with prolonged esophageal obstruction and excessive salivation, which electrolyte and acid-base abnormalities are most likely to occur?
a. Hyponatremia, hypochloremia, metabolic alkalosis
b. Hypernatremia, hypochloremia, metabolic acidosis
c. Hyperkalemia, hyperchloremia, metabolic alkalosis
f. Hypokalemia, hyperchloremia, respiratory alkalosis
Hyponatremia, hypochloremia, metabolic alkalosis
Which of the following diseases is characterized by raised, edematous or cutaneous urticarial skin plaques resembling (“silver dollar plaques”)?
a. Dourine
b. Enzootic lymphangitis
c. Farcy
d. Dermatophilosis
Dourine
Which of the following serologic tests is internationally accepted for the diagnosis of Equine Infectious Anemia?
a. ELISA
b. Western blot
c. IFAT
d. AGID
AGID
In uncomplicated cases of Equine Influenza, which of the following signs is usually not observed?
a. Serous nasal discharge
b. Submandibular lymphadenopathy
c. High fever
d. Productive cough
Productive cough
In which equine disease can you observe a Maltese cross in blood films?
a. Surra
b. Theileriosis
c. Leptospirosis
d. Dourine
Theileriosis
Which of the following causes neurologic disease in horses?
a. EHV-1
b. EHV-2
c. EHV-3
d. EHV-4
EHV-1
Which of the following diseases in horses can be characterized by colonic microabscessation?
a. Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis infection
b.Salmonella spp. infection
c.Rhodococcus equi infection
d.Streptococcus equi equi infection
Rhodococcus equi infection
Which muscle primarily forms the heave line in horses with Recurrent Airway Obstruction?
a. External abdominal oblique muscle
b. Transversus abdominis muscle
c. Internal abdominal oblique muscle
d. Latissimus dorsi muscle
External abdominal oblique muscle
Crackles heard during auscultation of horses with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease are associated with?
a. Interstitial edema
b.Excessive mucus production
c.Pulmonary hemorrhage
d.Thoracic empyema
Excessive mucus production
Escherichia coli is the most common gram- negative organism involved in neonatal septicemia. What is the drug of choice for treatment of neonatal septicemia?
a. Trimethprim-sulfa
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Tetracycline
d. Amikacin
Amikacin
In a horse with a pleural effusion, thoracentesis yields a yellow, flocculent fluid with a foul smell. A malodorous effusion usually indicates:
a. Bastard strangles
b. Anaerobic infection
c. Neoplasia
d. Mycoplasma infection
Anaerobic infection
You are asked to investigate a widespread outbreak of upper respiratory tract disease at the local racetrack. Affected horses have a high fever for 2 days, a serous nasal discharge, cough, and lethargy. You suspect equine influenza. Which test would confirm your tentative diagnosis?
a. anaerobic culture of a transtracheal aspirate
b. fourfold increases in influenza antibody titers over a 2-week period
c. an interstitial lung pattern on thoracic radiographs
d. response to acyclovir, an antiviral drug
Fourfold increases in influenza antibody titers over a 2-week period
Strangles, or Streptococcus equi infection, is a highly contagious disease transmitted by:
a. direct contact with purulent discharges
b. fecal-oral route
c. bird excrement
d. insect vectors
Direct contact with purulent discharges
What is the most common sequela of retained placenta in mares?
a. abdominal cramps
b. cystitis
c. laminitis
d. uterine adhesions
Laminitis
The most effective drug for treating central respiratory depression caused by barbiturates and inhalant anesthetics in horses is:
a. Menthol
b. Doxapram
c. Morphine
d. Phenobarbital
Doxapram
Analgesic of choice for spasmodic colic in horse:
a. Ketoprofen
b. Flunixin meglumine
c. Meloxicam
d. Detomidine
Flunixin meglumine
Which procedure is required to control houseflies and stable flies?
a. frequent spraying of insecticides around barns
b. applying repellents and insecticidal sprays to horses
c. installing electric light traps around barns
d. proper disposal of hay and manure
Proper disposal of hay and manure
A 3-month-old foal has a rectal temperature of 104° F a cough, and dyspnea. A complete blood cell count reveals leukocytosis with neutrophilia and monocytosis. Culture of transtracheal aspirates yields Rhodococcus equi. What is the most appropriate treatment for this horse?
a. erythromycin and rifampin
b. penicillin and gentamicin
c. trimethoprim-sulfa
d. metronidazole and kanamycin
Erythromycin and rifampin
A 5-year-old mare slips on ice and strikes its head. On physical examination the mare appears normal, except that the right ear and eyelid droop and the muzzle appears to be pulled to the left. These signs indicate damage to the:
a. facial nerve
b. trochlear nerve
c. vestibular nerve
d. trigeminal nerve
Facial nerve
After vaccinating her horse with several different vaccines, an owner calls you to report that her horse is depressed and febrile, and has a large fluctuant swelling over the vaccine injection site. You try to aspirate the swelling and obtain a large amount of gas before you aspirate a dark red, serous fluid. The most likely cause of these findings is:
a. Sterile injection abscess
b. Hematoma from injection
c. Clostridial myonecrosis
d. Rhabdomyolysis
Clostridial myonecrosis
