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Aircraft & Flying > Rules & Regs > Flashcards

Rules & Regs Flashcards

0
Q

The outbound leg of a hold must not be longer than:

  1. Up to and including FL140?
  2. Above FL140?
A
  1. 1 Minute or the time or distance specified on the chart.

2. 1.5 Minutes or the time and distance specified on the chart.

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1
Q

What is the maximum permitted indicated airspeed for holding:

  1. Up to and including FL140?
  2. Where the approach is limited to Cat A and B aircraft only?
  3. Above FL140 up to and including FL200?
  4. Above FL200?
A
  1. 230 KIAS
  2. 170 KIAS
  3. 240 KIAS
  4. 265 KIAS
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2
Q

All turns in a hold should be at a rate of/angle of?

A

Rate one or 25 degrees, whichever requires the lesser bank

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3
Q

In a hold, should allowance be made in heading and timing to compensate for the effect of wind?

A

Yes

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4
Q

What does a DME Limit mean when prescribed for a holding pattern?

A

The distance at which the outbound leg of the holding pattern should be terminated and a turn commenced.

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5
Q

Can a SID be flown by an aircraft already airborne? And if so what conditions apply?

A

Yes, the pilot must visually position the aircraft on the runway centreline so that all tracking and altitude requirements can be met.

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6
Q

At what point during a DME/GPS arrival is manoeuvring prohibited?

A

After passing the final approach fix.

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7
Q

What are the 5 specific restrictions that apply to the conduct of a GPS Arrival?

A
  1. Current Database.
  2. The co-ordinates of VOR/NDB in GPS must not be capable of modification by crew.
  3. GPS Integrity (RAIM) must be available.
  4. The nominated azimuth guide (VOR/NDB) must be used for track guidance.
  5. If there is doubt of validity of GPS info (RAIM Warning) a missed approach must be executed.
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8
Q

When do the circling restrictions shown on approach charts apply?

A

During day in less then VMC and at night.

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9
Q

What obstacle clearance does a 10 and 25nm MSA provide?

A

1,000 ft

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10
Q

A 3 degree approach equates to approximately how many feet per mile?

A

320 ft

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11
Q

What is Vat?

A

Vso multiplied by 1.3

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12
Q

Can an aircraft be operated in a lower speed category when operated at a lower weight?

A

No however must increase category when actual handling speeds are in excess of those the specified category.

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13
Q

What are the five reasons a missed approach must be executed?

A
  1. During the final segment the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use.
  2. During an IAP below the MSA the aid in use becomes suspect or fails.
  3. Visual reference is not established at or before the MAPT or DA/RA.
  4. A landing cannot be effected from a runway approach unless a circling approach can be conducted.
  5. Visual reference is lost while circling to land from an IAP.
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14
Q

What obstacle clearance and gradient is a missed approach designed to provide?

A

100 ft and 2.5%

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15
Q

If a missed approach is required from visual circling, how is the missed approach track regained?

A

The pilot must make an initial climbing turn towards the landing runway and overhead the airport, where the pilot will establish the aircraft climbing on the missed approach track.

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16
Q

During visual circling, descent below the MDA may only occur when the pilot: (5 items)

A
  1. Maintains the aircraft within the circling area.
  2. Maintains a visibility, along the intended flight path, not less then that specified on the chart.
  3. Maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment.
  4. From a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using normal rates of descent and manoeuvres.
  5. In daylight only, maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path.
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17
Q

How is the circling area determined?

A

By drawing arcs from the threshold of each usable runway.

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18
Q

When talking about an instrument approach, what does “visual reference with the landing environment” mean?

A

The ability to see the runway threshold or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway and a flight visibility not less than that specified for the procedure and either;

a. For circling approaches: clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water and a flight visibility not less then stated on chart.
b. For runway approaches; a flight visibility or RVR not less then stated on chart.

JEPPS TERM AU-23 4.10.1 NOTE 1

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19
Q

What is the takeoff minima for qualifying multi-engine airplanes?

A

A ceiling of 0 feet.
A visibility of 550m provided that:
- the runway must have illuminated edge lighting at spacing intervals not exceeding 60m and centreline lighting or markings.
- if the airport is an uncontrolled airport, the takeoff must be by day only and the airport must be CTAF(R).
Otherwise a visibility of 800m

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20
Q

What are the approved QNH sources and how long are they valid for from the time of receipt?

A
  1. ATC or ATIS
  2. AWIS
  3. CASA approved meteorological observers

15 minutes

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21
Q

How much must the minima be increased by if the area forecast QNH is used?

A

50 ft

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22
Q

Does an airport with PAL require an alternate at night and what are the conditions if the alternate also has PAL?

A

Yes, for non RPT aircraft the aircraft must:

  1. Be quipped with dual VHF radios; or
  2. Have a single VHF and a HF with 30 minutes of holding fuel.
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23
Q

In the event of a communications failure whilst maintaining an assigned level in controlled airspace under the IFR, how long should you maintain that level before climbing to planned level?

A

3 Minutes

‘A’ has 3 lines - 3 mins

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24
Q

In the event of a communication failure whilst being vectored during a flight under the IFR, how long should you maintain the assigned vector?

A

2 minutes

‘V’ has 2 lines - 2 mins

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25
Q

You have had a communication failure and are arriving at your destination which requires you to conduct an approach. How low are you permitted to fly to (cat B minima/circling)?

A

Prescribed Circling Minima

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26
Q

Where (what regulation) are details regarding the requirements to carry signalling equipment, portable megaphones, survival equipment and cabin attendants located?

A

CAO 20.11

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27
Q

How do you calculate an ‘emergency descent safety period’ for an aircraft.

A

Determined by doubling the time specified by the manufacturer as the time required for the aircraft to descend from its maximum operating altitude to 10,000 ft.

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28
Q

What regulation contains details regarding the carriage of supplemental oxygen for crew and passengers?

A

CAO 20.4

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29
Q

A weather radar operating in normal rotating mode must be how many meters from people/aircraft before being operated?

A

37m

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30
Q

Where are details regarding distance from people/aircraft during refuelling located?

A

CAO 20.9

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31
Q

What buffer (in minutes) is applied prior to weather conditions deteriorating below the alternate minimum when calculating possible holding/alternate requirements?

A

30 mins

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32
Q

Does a 30 minute buffer apply when weather from a TTF is available?

A

No

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33
Q

On a TTF with 2 visibilities on it, when will operational requirements apply?

A

When the higher visibility is less then the alternate minima.

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34
Q

At a controlled airport at night the runway lighting has partially failed and now has a 120m spacing. What requirements do you need to apply:

  1. In VMC?
  2. In less then VMC?
A
  1. No restriction

2. Visibility must be minimum stated on chart multiplied by 1.5

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35
Q

With an accurate QNH set, what is the maximum error an IFR altimeter is permitted to have? If you are required to have 2 altimeters and one is slightly incorrect - when can you continue the flight to another aerodrome for a re-check?

A
  1. 60 feet
  2. If the error is between 60 - 75 feet a flight to the next airport is permitted however the error must be below 60 feet on the second check otherwise it is considered unserviceable.
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36
Q

With regard to testing an altimeter for flight, what sources can be considered accurate? (3 sources)

A
  1. Tower
  2. ATIS
  3. AWIS

JEPPS AU-501 1.1.4.1

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37
Q

How long is an area QNH valid for?

A

3 hours

JEPPS AU-501 1.2.2.1

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38
Q

In controlled airspace, when must ATC be advised of a loss of RAIM (3 items)?

A
  1. If RAIM is lost for periods greater then 5 mins.
  2. If ATC requests a GPS distance.
  3. If ATC impose a GPS distance clearance requirement.

JEPPS ATC AU-514 5.23.2 b

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39
Q

What is the maximum permitted IAS that an aircraft can operate in Class D airspace below 2,500ft within 4nm of the Primary Class D aerodrome?

A

200 Kts

JEPPS ATC AU-515 7.1

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40
Q

When is FL110 not available as a cruise level?

A

When the area QNH is below 1013.

JEPPS AU-502 1.2.4.1

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41
Q

Describe the three ways an IFR flight may be navigated:

A
  1. An approved area navigation system that meets the performance requirements of the intended airspace or route.
  2. A radio navigation system/s where after making allowance for possible tracking errors of +/- 9 degrees the aircraft will come within the rated coverage. Time between fixes must not be more then 2 hours.
  3. Visual reference to the ground or water by day.

JEPPS AU-506 5.1.1

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42
Q

List the three ways a positive navigation fix is determined?

A
  1. Station passage of NDB, VOR, TACAN, Marker Beacon or DME.
  2. The intersection of 2 or more position lines which intersect with angles of not less the 45 degrees - must be within rated coverage of aids and if all lines are NDBs must be within 30nm from each of the NDBs.
  3. Approved GNSS

JEPPS AU-507 5.5.1

43
Q

A visual approach by night can be conducted when: (6 items)

A
  1. Clear of cloud
  2. In sight of ground or water
  3. 5km visibility
  4. Within the circling area or;
  5. Within 5nm (7nm for ILS equipped runway) and established not below ‘on slope’ on the PAPI or;
  6. Within 10nm if established not below the ILS glide path with less then full scale deflection.
44
Q

An aircraft is permitted to commence an approach without entering a holding pattern if: (3 items)

A
  1. The reversal procedure entry requirements are satisfied.
  2. The DME arc entry requirements are satisfied.
  3. The enroute track to the procedure commencement fix or facility is within 30 degrees either side of the first rack of the procedure.

JEPPS TERM AU-19 4.4.1b

45
Q

In the event of a failure of an NDB associated with an ILS, where must an aircraft join the ILS?

A

Outside the outer marker.

JEPPS TERM AU-17 2.7.2.1

46
Q

Can an ILS approach be conducted if marker beacons are not available? If so, how are altimeter checks carried out?

A

Yes
Using the alternate fixes started on the chart or by NOTAM

JEPPS TERM AU-17 2.7.2.4

47
Q

If during the final approach course beyond the final approach point the LOC/Glideslope indicator indicates full scale deflection what action must be commenced?

A

A missed approach

JEPPS TERM AU-17 2.7.3.1 b

48
Q

When is the ILS critical area not protected?

A

When cloud ceiling is above 600ft and visibility is above 2,000m.

JEPPS TERM AU-18

49
Q

What is the RNP-AR standard during a missed approach?

A

1

JEPPS TERM AU-18 3.2

50
Q

After what point in a GNSS approach must a missed approach be initiated in the event of a RAIM warning? Under what conditions can the GPS be used for missed approach guidance?

A
  • The Initial Approach Fix.
  • Provided the RAIM warning ceases when the missed approach is selected on the GPS receiver.

JEPPS TERM AU-24 4.12.1

51
Q

During a runway approach with a 15 degree offset, when may you align the aircraft with the runway?

A
  • Within the circling area.
  • Visual reference can be maintained.
  • In sight of ground or water.

JEPPS TERM AU-25 4.15.4

52
Q

If the installed HIAL on a runway is not available how much must the landing visibility minima be increased by for a Localiser LOC approach?

A

900m

JEPPS TERM AU-28 6.7.2

53
Q

If HIAL is not available, what is the minimum visibility required for a Cat 1 ILS Approach?

A

1.5 kms

JEPPS TERM AU-28 6.7.3a

54
Q

A minimum visibility of 1.2kms for an ILS Approach is required unless what 3 items are satisfied?

A
  1. The aircraft is manually flown using a FD or a coupled autopilot (LOC & GS).
  2. The aircraft is equipped with a failure warning system for the primary attitude and heading reference systems.
  3. High intensity runway edge lighting is available.

JEPPS TERM AU-29 6.7.3b

55
Q

What is the minimum visibility required for an ILS Approach if RVR at the threshold is not available?

A

0.8 kms

JEPPS TERM AU-29 6.7.3c

56
Q

In colder then ISA conditions a pressure altimeter will indicate a lower or higher altitude then true?

A

Higher then True thus reducing obstacle clearance margins

JEPPS TERM AU-29 6.7.4

57
Q

What cloud layers are considered less then SCT?

A

FEW + FEW
FEW
SKC

JEPPS ATC AU-303 3.2.1a

58
Q

Are wind gusts required to be considered when calculating alternate requirements?

A

Yes

JEPPS ATC AU-303 3.2.1d

59
Q

When may an aircraft descend below LSALT?

A
  • Visual Approach.
  • Instrument Approach.
  • DME/GNSS Arrival.
  • Being vectored by ATC.
  • Climb after take-off
  • 5nm and established above slope on PAPI
  • 7nm at airfield with ILS and established at/above slope on PAPI.
  • 10nm (14 in SY) and established less the full scale ILS deflection.
60
Q

What are the recent approach experience requirements to fly IFR and IFR in a particular category?

A

3 IAP within 90 Days
1 IAP within 90 Days in the same category.

CASR 61.870

61
Q

How long before and after a night departure must runway and taxiway lights be operating?

A

10 mins before and 30 mins after

62
Q

When may the special alternate minima be used?

A

When the aircraft has dual ILS capability which includes dual GS/LOC & Marker.

  • The requirement for duplicated Marker systems can be satisfied with 1 Marker and 1 DME
  • When an NDB is used for the ILS then duplicated ADFs are required.

JEPPS TERM AU-30 8.2

63
Q

How do you calculate a +/- 9 degree tracking tolerance to ensure you come within the rated coverage of an aid?

A

6.66 x Rated Coverage

64
Q

When may an aircraft descend below the Circling Area obstacle clearance limit?

A

When aligned with the landing runway.

TERM TERM AU-24 4.14.3

65
Q

What are the limitations on exercising the privileges of an instrument rating?

A
  • Conduct an IAP only if the aircraft is equipped for the procedure.
  • Conduct an IAP only if the holder has completed training and showed competency to a CASA examiner for the procedure.
  • Pilot the aircraft as a single pilot operation only if passed a flight test/IPC as a single pilot operation.
  • Conduct a circling approach under the IFR only if the IPC conducted in the passed 12 months involved demonstrating a circling approach.

CASR 61.860

66
Q

A TTF has the following located after the wind speed/direction; what does it mean?

360/090

A

Extreme range in directions in clockwise order - 360 degrees to 090 degrees.

Used when the direction varies by 60 degrees or more during the sampling period (usually 10 minutes).

JEPPS MET AU-24 12.6.6

67
Q

A TTF has the following; what does it mean?

9000 0600N

A

A prevailing visibility of 9000m and a minimum visibility of 600m to the North.

JEPPS MET AU-24 12.7.3

68
Q

What is the Category C speed range for operations after the initial approach fix?

A

160 - 240

69
Q

What is the Category C speed range for operating after the final approach fix?

A

115 - 160

70
Q

What is the Category C speed for visual circling?

A

180

71
Q

What is the Category C maximum speed for a missed approach?

A

240 KIAS

72
Q

A SIGWX is valid how many hours before/after the stated validity period?

A

3 Hours before and 3 Hours after

73
Q

De-code the RSWT: 2604859

A

Wind 260 degrees True

Wind Strength 048 knots

Temp -59

JEPPS MET AU-18

74
Q

What radius of an Aerodrome Reference Point does a TAF cover?

A

5nm

JEPPS MET AU-5.1

75
Q

During high cockpit workload after a wind shear event, how should wind shear be reported to ATC?

A

By using the words “Wind Shear Escape”

JEPPS MET AU-23

76
Q

What should be included in a full wind shear report to ATC?

A

Intensity: Light, Moderate, Strong, Severe
Airspeed/Groundspeed changes & Undershoot/Overshoot effects.
The altitude/altitude band that the adverse effects were felt.
Any others relevant info eg: wind direction/speed.

JEPPS MET AU-23

77
Q

List 5 ways to safely depart a Nav equipped airport in poor weather:

A
  1. Climb in the circling area to LSALT/MSA
  2. Fly the missed approach
  3. Fly the approach in reverse if climb gradient is possible
  4. Fly DME/GPS arrival in reverse or the missed approach
  5. Climb out on a pilot calculated safe track
78
Q

What is the category C circling area?

A

4.2nm

79
Q

At what speed must a jet aircraft in CTA leave an enroute holding pattern?

A

250 KIAS unless otherwise advised by ATC

Pilot may request a variation to this requirement.

JEPPS TERM Holding Procedures

80
Q

When is the special alternate minima not available?

A
  1. Local METAR/SPECI or forecasting services are not available; or
  2. An airport control service is not provided
81
Q 
What are the wake Turbulence Separation Standards applied to a Super and Heavy at the following times:
Departing (Full Length)
Departing (Intersection)
Arriving (Full Length)
Arriving (Intersection)
A 
Super:
Departing (Full Length): 3 mins
Departing (intersection): 4 mins
Arriving (Full Length): 3 mins
Arriving (Displaced): 3 mins
Heavy:
Departing (Full Length): 2 mins
Departing (Intersection): 3 mins
Arriving (Full Length): 2 mins
Arriving (Displaced): 2 mins
82
Q

When can a pilot transfer to tower frequency if approach has not instructed them too?

A

pic Should change automatically provided:

  • aircraft is established on final and cleared for final approach and;
  • Comms congestion has not allowed the pilot to report established or obtain clearance to transfer and;
  • transfer should not occur prior to 4nm.
83
Q

Following a turbo jet aircraft, what distance are we permitted to taxi behind when it is at or below normal taxiing speed and also at Thrust used to initiate a stationary aircraft?

What are the requirements if the aircraft was a turbo prop?

A

30m
46m

15m
23m

CAO 20.9

84
Q

When a radar attenuating device is used, what do the safe radar distances need to be reduced to?

A

75% of Rotating and Fixed distances.

CAO 20.9

85
Q

Describe the term CAVOK:

A
  • Visibility greater then 10km.
  • Nil significant cloud: no cloud below 5,000ft or below the highest 25nm MSA and no CB or towering CB.
  • Nil significant weather
86
Q

What is the definition of a high capacity aircraft (Seats/Payload)?

A

An aircraft with a maximum seating capacity that exceeds 38 seats or a maximum payload exceeding 4,200kgs.

CAO 82.0 Page 4

87
Q

What is the CAO 20.7.1B landing climb performance requirement?

A

In the Landing configuration, an airplane must have a gross gradient of climb of not less then 3.2% at a climbing speed not in excess of 1.3 Vs with all engines operating.

CAO 20.7.1B 10.1

88
Q

Describe the CAO 20.7.1B approach climb performance requirement:

A

In the approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative at not more then 1.5Vs, an airplane must have a gross climb of at least 2.1%.

CAO 20.7.1B 9.1a

89
Q

What is the difference in emergency response if a Mayday call is made compared to a Pan Pan call?

A

Mayday - is declared when activation of more then just airport based responding agencies is advisable.

Pan Pan - is declared when activation of only airport based agencies is warranted (Local Standby).

90
Q

How long before and after your anticipated arrival time is a TAF required to be valid for?

A

30mins before and 60mins after.

JEPPS

91
Q

In a holding pattern, when may speeds be increased in turbulent conditions?

A
  • Above the highest MSA.
  • Subject to ATC Approval in CTA.
  • Up to the lessor of 280 KIAS or 0.8 MACH

JEPPS TERM 2.1

92
Q

In Australia, is RVR measured by the human eye or electronic systems or both?

A

Solely on the information provided by electronic systems.

JEPPS State rules and Procedures

93
Q

If vectored away from a STAR when given an instruction to maintain a certain speed, is the speed requirement cancelled?

A

No, unless specifically cancelled ATC traffic management speeds will apply to aircraft when vectored or cleared away from a STAR.

94
Q

What does a gradient in brackets (3.5 %) on a SID Chart mean?

A

The climb gradient required to remain within controlled airspace.

95
Q

What do the following abbreviations mean on a WX forecast when referring to TS:
ISOL
OCNL
FRQ?

A

ISOL - Isolated - Individual TCU or CB with maximum spatial coverage of up to 50%.

OCNL - Occasional - Well separated TCU or CB with special coverage of 50 - 75%.

FRQ - Frequent - CBS or TCU with little or no separation with spatial coverage of over 75%

96
Q

When given a frequency change prior to take-off (“airborne contact approach”) when should you contact the new frequency?

A

As soon as practicable preferably within 1nm

97
Q

How long can RAIM be unavailable before ATC must be advised?

A

5 minutes

98
Q

If RAIM is unavailable can you give ATC a GNSS distance when requested?

A

No, RAIM must be available

99
Q

If you are given a clearance restriction that includes a GNSS distance and RAIM becomes unavailable, what must you do?

A

Advise ATC

100
Q

How long can GPS 1 and 2 fail (during flight) before ATC must be advised?

A

1 minute

101
Q

When climbing to an RVSM level, by how many feet must you ensure you don’t overshoot your cleared level by? When must you report to ATC a cleared level deviation?

A
  1. 150 feet

2. 300 feet or more

102
Q

When given a time to leave a holding pattern, how early/late can you depart the hold?

A

On time or up to 1 min early

103
Q

If the tower is closed for the night, can you use the special alternate minima?

A

No, tower must be open

104
Q

What are the 3 types of speed control methods that can be applied and or cancelled?

A
  1. ATC issued
  2. Published (on SID/STAR/Approach Charts)
  3. Airspace
105
Q

What are the conditions for planning/flying through the following types of restricted areas?
RA1:
RA2:
RA3:

A

RA1: Can be planned through and a clearance expected.
RA2: Can only be planned through via JEPPS preferred routes (airways) and clearance is not assured although alternate tracking through RA may be available.
RA3: Cannot plan through and clearance will not be available.

Aircraft & Flying (5 decks)

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